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• Web Hosting: Any web host that supports files more than 50,000 in number?

  - by Devner

  Hi all, For my PHP & mySQL based application, I am trying to buy website hosting from a host who does not have a limit on the number of files I carry in my hosting account. Almost all the websites have a common limit of 50,000 files (some websites call it 50,000 nodes). The rest(to the extent of my search) are not even close. I have gone through the various websites, Googled lot of information, have spoken with the customer service of the hosting companies and they said that they have a limit of 50,000 files and that's why they call it the LIMIT. Now I have my application, which is a kind of social networking website, where people can upload various files of varying file size. So say if 50,000 users were to join the website and upload 1 file each, the limit of 50,000 will be reached very easily and my 50,001 customer will start facing file upload problems (& so will my account). So I would like to know if there's any website hosting services that do NOT levy such restrictions. In summary, I need the following options: No maximum file limit (more than 50,000 files in account). No maximum file upload limit in server setting (10MB, 12MB, 15MB, 20MB, etc.). Ability to upload files of various types (zip, flv, jg, png, etc.). Ability to stream Audio and Video (live audio & video not necessary). Access to .htaccess Access to php.ini, my.cnf or my.ini (this would be a plus) Supports SSL. Provides dedicated hosting(& IP) as well. Monthly payments without contracts are a plus. If you know of any such website hosting services, please post a reply ( a link to the same will be appreciated ). Thank you.

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• How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

  - by Nicholas Flynt

  I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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• Lazy loading is not working for one to many

  - by Shire

  Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

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• Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

  - by John Gietzen

  Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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• Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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• Passing an array of structs in C

  - by lelouch

  I'm having trouble passing an array of structs to a function in C. I've created the struct like this in main: int main() { struct Items { char code[10]; char description[30]; int stock; }; struct Items MyItems[10]; } I then access it like: MyItems[0].stock = 10; etc. I want to pass it to a function like so: ReadFile(MyItems); The function should read the array, and be able to edit it. Then I should be able to access the same array from other functions. I've tried heaps of declarations but none of them work. e.g. void ReadFile(struct Items[10]) I've had a look around for other questions, but the thing is they're all done different, with typedefs and asterisks. My teacher hasn't taught us pointers yet, so I'd like to do it with what I know. Any ideas? :S EDIT: Salvatore's answer is working after I fixed my prototype to: void ReadFile(struct Items[9]);

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• "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

  - by JackLocke

  Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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• Creating a global variable on the fly. [PHP ENCRYPTION]

  - by stormdrain

  Is there a way to dynamically create constant variables on the fly? The idea is that upon logging into the system, a user would be asked to upload a small text file that would be fread, and assigned to a var that would be accessible throughout the system. If this is possible, just to be clear, would this variable then only be accessible to that user and only while the session is alive? Security being the main concern here, would it be more practical to store the var in a session variable? The plan: Data in the db will be encrypted via mcrypt, and the key will be stored on USB thumbdrives. The user will insert the thumbdrive when going to access the system. Upon logging in, the app will prompt the user to upload the key. They will navigate to the thumbdrive and key. Via fopen and fread, the key will be assigned to a global var which will then allow access to encrypted data, and will be used to encrypt new info being entered to the db. When the user logs out, or session times out, the global var will become empty. Thanks!

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• Object Design: How to Organize/Structure a "Collection Class"

  - by CrimsonX

  I'm currently struggling to understand how I should organize/structure a class which I have already created. The class does the following: As its input in the constructor, it takes a collection of logs In the constructor it validates and filters the logs through a series of algorithms implementing my business logic After all filtering and validation is complete, it returns a collection (a List) of the valid and filtered logs which can be presented to the user graphically in a UI. Here is some simplified code describing what I'm doing: class FilteredCollection { public FilteredCollection( SpecialArray<MyLog> myLog) { // validate inputs // filter and validate logs in collection // in end, FilteredLogs is ready for access } Public List<MyLog> FilteredLogs{ get; private set;} } However, in order to access this collection, I have to do the following: var filteredCollection = new FilteredCollection( secialArrayInput ); //Example of accessing data filteredCollection.FilteredLogs[5].MyLogData; Other key pieces of input: I foresee only one of these filtered collections existing in the application (therefore should I make it a static class? Or perhaps a singleton?) Testability and flexibility in creation of the object is important (Perhaps therefore I should keep this an instanced class for testability?) I'd prefer to simplify the dereferencing of the logs if at all possible, as the actual variable names are quite long and it takes some 60-80 characters to just get to the actual data. My attempt in keeping this class simple is that the only purpose of the class is to create this collection of validated data. I know that there may be no "perfect" solution here, but I'm really trying to improve my skills with this design and I would greatly appreciate advice to do that. Thanks in advance.

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• How do I optimize this postfix expression tree for speed?

  - by Peter Stewart

  Thanks to the help I received in this post: I have a nice, concise recursive function to traverse a tree in postfix order: deque <char*> d; void Node::postfix() { if (left != __nullptr) { left->postfix(); } if (right != __nullptr) { right->postfix(); } d.push_front(cargo); return; }; This is an expression tree. The branch nodes are operators randomly selected from an array, and the leaf nodes are values or the variable 'x', also randomly selected from an array. char *values[10]={"1.0","2.0","3.0","4.0","5.0","6.0","7.0","8.0","9.0","x"}; char *ops[4]={"+","-","*","/"}; As this will be called billions of times during a run of the genetic algorithm of which it is a part, I'd like to optimize it for speed. I have a number of questions on this topic which I will ask in separate postings. The first is: how can I get access to each 'cargo' as it is found. That is: instead of pushing 'cargo' onto a deque, and then processing the deque to get the value, I'd like to start processing it right away. I don't yet know about parallel processing in c++, but this would ideally be done concurrently on two different processors. In python, I'd make the function a generator and access succeeding 'cargo's using .next(). But I'm using c++ to speed up the python implementation. I'm thinking that this kind of tree has been around for a long time, and somebody has probably optimized it already. Any Ideas? Thanks

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• Sending a list of mails with SmtpClient

  - by Malcolm Frexner

  I use SendCompletedEventHandler of SmtpClient when sending a list of emails. The SendCompletedEventHandler is only called when have already sent all emails in the list. I expexted, that SendCompletedEventHandler is called one an email is send. Is there something wrong in my code? public void SendAllNewsletters(List<string> recipients) { string mailText = "My Tex"; foreach(string recipient in recipients) { //if this loop takes 10min then the first call to //SendCompletedCallback is after 10min SendNewsletter(mailText,recipient); } } public bool SendNewsletter(string mailText , string emailaddress) { SmtpClient sc = new SmtpClient(_smtpServer, _smtpPort); System.Net.NetworkCredential SMTPUserInfo = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(_smtpuser, _smtppassword); sc.Credentials = SMTPUserInfo; sc.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailMessage mm = null; mm = new MailMessage(mailText, emailaddress); mm.IsBodyHtml = true; mm.Priority = MailPriority.Normal; mm.Subject = "Something"; mm.Body = "Something"; mm.SubjectEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; mm.BodyEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; //Mail string userState = emailaddress; sc.SendAsync(mm, userState); return true; } public void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string)e.UserState; if (e.Error != null) { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, false, e.Error.Message); } else { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, true, string.Empty); } }

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• facebook authentication / login trouble

  - by salmane

  I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

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• How can I execute an ANTLR parser action for each item in a rule that can match more than one item?

  - by Chris Farmer

  I am trying to write an ANTLR parser rule that matches a list of things, and I want to write a parser action that can deal with each item in the list independently. Some example input for these rules is: $(A1 A2 A3) I'd like this to result in an evaluator that contains a list of three MyIdentEvaluator objects -- one for each of A1, A2, and A3. Here's a snippet of my grammar: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN op=my_ident+ { /* want to do something here for each 'my_ident'. */ /* the following seems to see only the 'A3' my_ident */ $e.Add($op.e); } RPAREN ; my_ident returns [IEvaluator e] : IDENT { $e = new MyIdentEvaluator($IDENT.text); } ; I think my_ident is defined correctly, because I can see the three MyIdentEvaluators getting created as expected for my input string, but only the last my_ident ever gets added to the list (A3 in my example input). How can I best treat each of these elements independently, either through a grammar change or a parser action change? It also occurred to me that my vocabulary for these concepts is not what it should be, so if it looks like I'm misusing a term, I probably am. EDIT in response to Wayne's comment: I tried to use op+=my_ident+. In that case, the $op in my action becomes an IList (in C#) that contains Antlr.Runtime.Tree.CommonTree instances. It does give me one entry per matched token in $op, so I see my three matches, but I don't have the MyIdentEvaluator instances that I really want. I was hoping I could then find a rule attribute in the ANTLR docs that might help with this, but nothing seemed to help me get rid of this IList. Result... Based on chollida's answer, I ended up with this which works well: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN (op=my_ident { $e.Add($op.e); } )+ RPAREN ; The Add method gets called for each match of my_ident.

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• ASP.NET - What is the best way to block the application usage?

  - by Tufo

  Our clients must pay a monthly Fee... if they don't, what is the best way to block the asp.net software usage? Note: The application runs on the client own server, its not a SaaS app... My ideas are: Idea: Host a Web Service on the internet that the application will use to know if the client can use the software. Issue 1 - What happen if the client internet fails? Or the data center fails? Possible Answer: Make each web service access to send a key that is valid for 7 or 15 days, so each web service consult will enable the software to run more 7 or 15 days, this way the application will only be locked after 7 or 15 days without consulting our web servicee. Issue 2 - And if the client don't have or don't want to enable internet access to the application? Idea 2: Send a key monthly to the client. Issue - How to make a offline key? Possible Answer: Generate a Hash using the "limit" date, so each login try on software will compare the today hash with the key? Issue 2 - Where to store the key? Possible Answer: Database (not good, too easy to change), text file, registry, code file, assembly... Any opinion will be very appreciated!

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• String literal recognition problem

  - by helicera

  Hello! I'm trying to recognize string literal by reading string per symbol. Here is a sample code: #region [String Literal (")] case '"': // {string literal ""} { // skipping '"' ChCurrent = Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(++ChPosition); while(ChCurrent != '"') { Value.Append(ChCurrent); ChCurrent = Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(++ChPosition); if(ChCurrent == '"') { // "" sequence only acceptable if(Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(ChPosition + 1) == '"') { Value.Append(ChCurrent); // skip 2nd double quote ChPosition++; // move position next ChCurrent = Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(++ChPosition); } } else if(default(Char) == ChCurrent) { // message: unterminated string throw new ScanningException(); } } ChPosition++; break; } #endregion When I run test: [Test] [ExpectedException(typeof(ScanningException))] public void ScanDoubleQuotedStrings() { this.Scanner.Run(@"""Hello Language Design""", default(System.Int32)); this.Scanner.Run(@"""Is there any problems with the """"strings""""?""", default(System.Int32)); this.Scanner.Run(@"""v#:';?325;.<>,|+_)""(*&^%$#@![]{}\|-_=""", default(System.Int32)); while(0 != this.Scanner.TokensCount - 1) { Assert.AreEqual(Token.TokenClass.StringLiteral, this.Scanner.NextToken.Class); } } It passes with success.. while I'm expecting to have an exception according to unmatched " mark in this.Scanner.Run(@"""v#:';?325;.<>,|+_)""(*&^%$#@![]{}\|-_=""", default(System.Int32)); Can anyone explain where is my mistake or give an advice on algorithm.

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• Approaches for cross server content sharing?

  - by Anonymity

  I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

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• connecting to secure database from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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• What about race condition in multithreaded reading?

  - by themoob

  Hi, According to an article on IBM.com, "a race condition is a situation in which two or more threads or processes are reading or writing some shared data, and the final result depends on the timing of how the threads are scheduled. Race conditions can lead to unpredictable results and subtle program bugs." . Although the article concerns Java, I have in general been taught the same definition. As far as I know, simple operation of reading from RAM is composed of setting the states of specific input lines (address, read etc.) and reading the states of output lines. This is an operation that obviously cannot be executed simultaneously by two devices and has to be serialized. Now let's suppose we have a situation when a couple of threads access an object in memory. In theory, this access should be serialized in order to prevent race conditions. But e.g. the readers/writers algorithm assumes that an arbitrary number of readers can use the shared memory at the same time. So, the question is: does one have to implement an exclusive lock for read when using multithreading (in WinAPI e.g.)? If not, why? Where is this control implemented - OS, hardware? Best regards, Kuba

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• Flash - Http service bound to a button can be used only once ?

  - by SAKIROGLU Koray

  I have a flex project, in one of the screen of my UI, I create a HTTP service that call a "doGet" J2EE servlet through the GET method; and I bind the service call to a button. The service print log to system.out so I know when it is run. The problem I have is, when I click said button the first time, the servlets do what it is supposed to do, and print the stack to system.out, but if I click another time, nothing happens. Any idea what might be the cause ? Here's the flex code (code and service has been generated by Eclipse flex plugin) <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ protected function button_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { LaunchSimulResult.token = simulation.LaunchSimul(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Canvas> ... <mx:Button label="Simulation" id="button" click="button_clickHandler(event)"/> .. </mx:Canvas> <mx:CallResponder id="LaunchSimulResult"/> <simulation:Simulation id="simulation" fault="Alert.show(event.fault.faultString + '\n' + event.fault.faultDetail)" showBusyCursor="true"/>

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• Silverlight, Flash, or JavaScript for web app that runs client-side, or just stick with C#?

  - by Sootah

  Silverlight, Flash, and JavaScript, oh my.. I have a couple of applications that I need to develop for one of my business partners that will be distributed to dozens of people. These applications will need to be able to query information from the internet (query via Google, grab feeds from our other sites, just general web access) and save files to their computer. The reason I want to host the application is so that it all can be centrally managed, and any updates would be instantly deployed to everyone that uses the service. There always seems to be headaches with developing a pure desktop app in a language like C# with regards to making sure people use the latest version, don't have some odd problem with the installer, etc. Since we don't want to tie up our server's CPU I want effectively all of the processing done client-side. Meaning that they would log into their account, access the app, and then all the work done within the app is all handled by their machine. Only specific data would be sent back to the server. So - which language is best for this? Microsoft's Silverlight, Adobe's Flash, or Sun's JavaScript? I've heard a lot of good things about Silverlight and have wanted to try it for some time. I've only done extremely limited JavaScript programming, and absolutely none with Flash. Or, with my main requirement being that the client does all of its own processing should I just stick with C#? Also, is there any way to integrate a C# app into a webpage? I've never even considered it (or have any idea if it's even possible) until just now. Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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• java: "downcasting" to new object / opposite of slicing

  - by rhavin

  Sorry, i really dont know how to make a headline for that question; maybe there is a name for what im trying to do that i dont know, but i can explain it with some code: Guess you have a class that unfortunately neither has a copy-constructor nor a public static copy method. class A { private int i; // <- private, cant access String x; // <- even worse: cant access unless in same pkg! /* … other stuff, ctor, etc. … */ public A clone() { A a = new A(); a.i = i; a.x = x; return x; } } Guess further, there is some function that returns an object of that class: public static A someFn(x,y,z); Now the problem: I want to derive from that class to add some functionality. Unfortunately, i neither have a sizeof in java nor a cc or static copy method. So when i do a class B extends A { protected w; public B clone() { /* as usual */ } } then i can clone my B and get a new one, but how can i convert the returned A from someFn() into a B. Is there anyway to do the opposite of slicing in java? if i clone it, it's still an A, and i cant copy it field by field. This is all simple in c++, but how to do this in Java?

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• connecting to secure database on private network from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

  - by abszero

  I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Double hashing passwords - client & server

  - by J. Stoever

  Hey, first, let me say, I'm not asking about things like md5(md5(..., there are already topics about it. My question is this: We allow our clients to store their passwords locally. Naturally, we don't want them stored in plan text, so we hmac them locally, before storing and/or sending. Now, this is fine, but if this is all we did, then the server would have the stored hmac, and since the client only needs to send the hmac, not the plain text password, an attacker could use the stored hashes from the server to access anyone's account (in the catastrophic scenario where someone would get such an access to the database, of course). So, our idea was to encode the password on the client once via hmac, send it to the server, and there encode it a second time via hmac and match it against the stored, two times hmac'ed password. This would ensure that: The client can store the password locally without having to store it as plain text The client can send the password without having to worry (too much) about other network parties The server can store the password without having to worry about someone stealing it from the server and using it to log in. Naturally, all the other things (strong passwords, double salt, etc) apply as well, but aren't really relevant to the question. The actual question is: does this sound like a solid security design ? Did we overlook any flaws with doing things this way ? Is there maybe a security pattern for something like this ?

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