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  • Sending a list of mails with SmtpClient

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    I use SendCompletedEventHandler of SmtpClient when sending a list of emails. The SendCompletedEventHandler is only called when have already sent all emails in the list. I expexted, that SendCompletedEventHandler is called one an email is send. Is there something wrong in my code? public void SendAllNewsletters(List<string> recipients) { string mailText = "My Tex"; foreach(string recipient in recipients) { //if this loop takes 10min then the first call to //SendCompletedCallback is after 10min SendNewsletter(mailText,recipient); } } public bool SendNewsletter(string mailText , string emailaddress) { SmtpClient sc = new SmtpClient(_smtpServer, _smtpPort); System.Net.NetworkCredential SMTPUserInfo = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(_smtpuser, _smtppassword); sc.Credentials = SMTPUserInfo; sc.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailMessage mm = null; mm = new MailMessage(mailText, emailaddress); mm.IsBodyHtml = true; mm.Priority = MailPriority.Normal; mm.Subject = "Something"; mm.Body = "Something"; mm.SubjectEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; mm.BodyEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; //Mail string userState = emailaddress; sc.SendAsync(mm, userState); return true; } public void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string)e.UserState; if (e.Error != null) { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, false, e.Error.Message); } else { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, true, string.Empty); } }

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  • Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

    - by abszero
    I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • SQLBrowser will not start

    - by Oliver
    SQL Server 2005 x64 on Windows Server 2003 x64, with multiple instances (default + 2 named). Engineers moved server to a different domain. Since then, cannot get SQLBrowser to start. Still able to query the default instance, and can access named instances by port (TCP:hostname,port#). When on server, can use SSMS to connect to the instances, all is well from that perspective. No errors in the SQL Server logs. As SQLBrowser is starting, an entry in EventViewer.Application says that one of the named instances has an invalid configuration, but I haven't been able to figure out what is invalid. Startup continues, and next message says "The SQLBrowser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery." Next, it enables instance and connectivity discovery support; next, another message about that same named instance having an invalid configuration; then an event says that SQLBrowser has started; last, an event shows the SQLBrowser service has shutdown. I got SQLBrowser to get past the issue with the first named instance by temporarily renaming a registry entry, and now the second named instance can be accessed by name rather than port. Still, cannot access the first named instance by name. Advice?

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  • TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

    - by Alan G.
    I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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  • Modify onclick function with jQuery

    - by Chris Barr
    I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

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  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Silverlight, Flash, or JavaScript for web app that runs client-side, or just stick with C#?

    - by Sootah
    Silverlight, Flash, and JavaScript, oh my.. I have a couple of applications that I need to develop for one of my business partners that will be distributed to dozens of people. These applications will need to be able to query information from the internet (query via Google, grab feeds from our other sites, just general web access) and save files to their computer. The reason I want to host the application is so that it all can be centrally managed, and any updates would be instantly deployed to everyone that uses the service. There always seems to be headaches with developing a pure desktop app in a language like C# with regards to making sure people use the latest version, don't have some odd problem with the installer, etc. Since we don't want to tie up our server's CPU I want effectively all of the processing done client-side. Meaning that they would log into their account, access the app, and then all the work done within the app is all handled by their machine. Only specific data would be sent back to the server. So - which language is best for this? Microsoft's Silverlight, Adobe's Flash, or Sun's JavaScript? I've heard a lot of good things about Silverlight and have wanted to try it for some time. I've only done extremely limited JavaScript programming, and absolutely none with Flash. Or, with my main requirement being that the client does all of its own processing should I just stick with C#? Also, is there any way to integrate a C# app into a webpage? I've never even considered it (or have any idea if it's even possible) until just now. Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • how to share a variable between two threads

    - by prmatta
    I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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  • Howto use predicates in LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects

    - by user274947
    I'm using LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects in my Data Access Layer. My goal is to filter as much as I can from the database, without applying filtering logic on in-memory results. For that purpose Business Logic Layer passes a predicate to Data Access Layer. I mean Func<MyEntity, bool> So, if I use this predicate directly, like public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception [System.NotSupportedException] --- {"The LINQ expression node type 'Invoke' is not supported in LINQ to Entities."} Solution in that question suggests to use AsExpandable() method from LINQKit library. But again, using public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.AsExpandable().Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception Unable to cast object of type 'System.Linq.Expressions.FieldExpression' to type 'System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression' Is there way to use predicate in LINQ to Entities query for Entity Framework objects, so that it is correctly transformed it into a SQL statement. Thank you.

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  • how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

    - by user287745
    i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

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  • Error accessing uncompiled pages using ISA Server 2006 SP1

    - by Bravax
    We are in the processing of configuring a portal to use ISA Server as our front end security provider. So we are using ISA Server 2006 SP1. Unfortunately when we access .net applications through ISA Server, the first time they are accessed. i.e. They are not compiled yet, the following error appears: Error Code: 500 Internal Server Error. The parameter is incorrect. (87) In the ISA Monitoring logs, this shows: Failed Connection Attempt Log type: Web Proxy (Reverse) Status: 87 The parameter is incorrect. Once the application is compiled, the error never appears. Does anyone know how to resolve this, so the site works correctly the first time? Some additional information: The websites accessed are running on windows server 2008 64 bit - standard edition, and occurs for Sharepoint as well as standard .net websites. ISA Server is running on Windows server 2003 R2 SP2 Standard eidtion The firewall on the windows server 2008 box allows all access. (To rule this out.) Nothing odd appears in the IIS logs or firewall logs.

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  • Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

    - by Sébastien Nussbaumer
    I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • jQuery: Targeting elements added via *non-jQuery* AJAX before any Javascript events fire? Beyond th

    - by peteorpeter
    Working on a Wicket application that adds markup to the DOM after onLoad via Wicket's built-in AJAX for an auto-complete widget. We have an IE6 glitch that means I need to reposition the markup coming in, and I am trying to avoid tampering with the Wicket javascript... blah blah blah... here's what I'm trying to do: New markup arrives in the DOM (I don't have access to a callback) Somehow I know this, so I fire my code. I tried this, hoping the new tags would trigger onLoad events: $("selectorForNewMarkup").live("onLoad", function(){ //using jQuery 1.4.1 //my code }); ...but have become educated that onLoad only fires on the initial page load. Is there another event fired when elements are added to the DOM? Or another way to sense changes to the DOM? Everything I've bumped into on similar issues with new markup additions, they have access to the callback function on .load() or similar, or they have a real javascript event to work with and live() works perfectly. Is this a pipe dream?

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  • How do you get an object associated with a Future Actor?

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I would like to be able to get access to the object that is being returned from spawning a future import scala.actors.Future import scala.actors.Futures._ class Object1(i:Int) { def getAValue(): Int = {i} } object Test { def main( args: Array[String] ) = { var tests = List[Future[Object1]]() for(i <- 0 until 10) { val test = future { val obj1 = new Object1(i) println("Processing " + i + "...") Thread.sleep(1000) println("Processed " + i) obj1 } tests = tests ::: List(test) } val timeout = 1000 * 60 * 5 // wait up to 5 minutes val futureTests = awaitAll(timeout,tests: _*) futureTests.foreach(test => println("result: " + future())) } } The output from one run of this code is: Processing 0... Processing 1... Processing 2... Processing 3... Processed 0 Processing 4... Processed 1 Processing 5... Processed 2 Processing 6... Processed 3 Processing 7... Processed 4 Processing 8... Processed 6 Processing 9... Processed 5 Processed 7 Processed 8 Processed 9 result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> I've tried future().getClass(), and the output is result: class scala.actors.FutureActor What I'm looking to be able to access is the obj1 objects. Thanks Bruce

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  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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  • Service reference not generating client types

    - by Cranialsurge
    I am trying to consume a WCF service in a class library by adding a service reference to it. In one of the class libraries it gets consumed properly and I can access the client types in order to generate a proxy off of them. However in my second class library (or even in a console test app), when i add the same service reference, it only exposes the types that are involved in the contract operations and not the client type for me to generate a proxy against. e.g. Endpoint has 2 services exposed - ISvc1 and ISvc2. When I add a service reference to this endpoint in the first class library I get ISvc1Client andf ISvc2Client to generate proxies off of in order to use the operations exposed via those 2 contracts. In addition to these clients the service reference also exposes the types involved in the operations like (type 1, type 2 etc.) this is what I need. However when i try to add a service reference to the same endpoing in another console application or class library only Type 1, Type 2 etc. are exposed and not ISvc1Client and ISvc2Client because of which I cannot generate a proxy to access the operations I need. I am unable to determine why the service reference gets properly generated in one class library but not in the other or the test console app.

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  • Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

    - by Heyl1
    I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

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  • Error 100 When Attempting to post from app to Facebook wall?

    - by IMAPC
    I'm playing around with the Facebook API, and have gotten far enough to get the access token into my app, but when I go to actually send a post to my Facebook wall I get the error message, {"error":{"message":"(#100) You can't post this because it has a blocked link.","type":"OAuthException","code":100}}1 I'm not attempting to send any kind of link, just "Hello, World!" so this seems pretty weird to me :\ Here's my code so far: $content = urlencode("Hello, World!"); $accesstoken = urlencode($row['fbid']); $result = getPageWithPOST("https://graph.facebook.com/me/feed", "access_token=" . $accesstoken . "&message=" . $content); echo $result; where getPageWithPOST is, function getPageWithPOST($url, $posts) { $c = curl_init(); curl_setopt($c, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($c, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($c, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $posts); $content = curl_exec ($c); curl_close ($c); return $content; } thanks!

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  • How do I make VC++'s debugger break on exceptions?

    - by Mason Wheeler
    I'm trying to debug a problem in a DLL written in C that keeps causing access violations. I'm using Visual C++ 2008, but the code is straight C. I'm used to Delphi, where if an exception occurs while running under the debugger, the program will immediately break to the debugger and it will give you a chance to examine the program state. In Visual C++, though, all I get is a message in the Output tab: First-chance exception at blah blah blah: Access violation reading location 0x04410000. No breaks, nothing. It just goes and unwinds the stack until it's back in my Delphi EXE, which recognizes something's wrong and alerts me there, but by that point I've lost several layers of call stack and I don't know what's going on. I've tried other debugging techniques, but whatever it's doing is taking place deep within a nested loop inside a C macro that's getting called more than 500 times, and that's just a bit beyond my skill (or my patience) to trace through. I figure there has to be some way to get the "first-chance" exception to actually give me a "chance" to handle it. There's probably some "break immediately on first-chance exceptions" configuration setting I don't know about, but it doesn't seem to be all that discoverable. Does anyone know where it is and how to enable it?

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  • vs2008, opencv2.1,compile error in cxcore.hpp

    - by Long Gu
    Hi, gurus: I installed opencv2.1, made a new project (proj_A) using vs2008, used it for my computer vision tasks, it works fine. I copied an old project (proj_B, also made using vs2008) from other PC, compile it with ".h" and ".lib" files copied from opencv1.0 (which I did not install onto my PC), it compiles fine. I re-directed ".h" and ".lib" files in proj_B to opencv2.1 folders instead, compiled the proj_B, and then I got these errors from cxcore.hpp: class CV_EXPORTS RNG { public: enum { A=4164903690U, UNIFORM=0, NORMAL=1 }; // errors here, line 936 errors are: 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2143: syntax error : missing '}' before 'constant' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2059: syntax error : 'constant' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before '}' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2238: unexpected token(s) preceding ';' (400+ similar errors, but I believe the answer should be the same, so only list 1 set here) I compared setting for proj_A and proj_B, made them identical, and find no improvement. proj_A works well, proj_B refuse to compile. May I know what's wrong? Urgent, need to get it solved ASAP! Thanks a lot!

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  • ASP.NET - Accessing copied content

    - by James Kolpack
    I have a class library project which contains some content files configured with the "Copy if newer" copy build action. This results in the files being copied to a folder under ...\bin\ for every project in the solution. In this same solution, I've got a ASP.NET web project (which is MVC, by the way). In the library I have a static constructor load the files into data structures accessible by the web project. Previously I've been including the content as an embedded resource. I now need to be able to replace them without recompiling. I want to access the data in three different contexts: Unit testing the library assembly Debugging the web application Hosting the site in IIS For unit testing, Environment.CurrentDirectory points to a path containing the copied content. When debugging however, it points to C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE. I've also looked at Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location which points to C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c44f9da4\9238ccc\assembly\dl3\eb4c23b4\9bd39460_f7d4ca01\. What I need is to the physical location of the webroot \bin folder, but since I'm in a static constructor in the library project, I don't have access to a Request.PhysicalApplicationPath. Is there some other environment variable or structure where I can always find my "Copy if newer" files?

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  • Tracking down slow managed DLL loading

    - by Alex K
    I am faced with the following issue and at this point I feel like I'm severely lacking some sort of tool, I just don't know what that tool is, or what exactly it should be doing. Here is the setup: I have a 3rd party DLL that has to be registered in GAC. This all works fine and good on pretty much every machine our software was deployed on before. But now we got 2 machines, seemingly identical to the ones we know work (they are cloned from the same image and stuffed with the same hardware, so pretty much the only difference is software settings, over which I went over and over, and they seem fine). Now the problem, the DLL in GAC takes a very long time to load. At least I believe this is the issue, what I can say definitively is that instantiating a single class from that DLL is the slow part. Once it is loaded, thing fly as they always have. But while on known-good machines the DLL loads so fast that a timestamp in the log doesn't even change, on these 2 machines it take over 1min to load. Knowns: I have no access to the source, so I can't debug through the DLL. Our app is the only one that uses it (so shouldn't be simultaneous access issues). There is only one version of this DLL in existance, so it shouldn't be a matter of version conflict. The GAC reference is being used (if I uninstall the DLL from GAC, an exception will be thrown about the missing GAC reference). Could someone with a greater skill in debug-fu suggest what I can do to track down the root cause of this issue?

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  • What C++ templates issue is going on with this error?

    - by WilliamKF
    Running gcc v3.4.6 on the Botan v1.8.8 I get the following compile time error building my application after successfully building Botan and running its self test: ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h: In member function `Botan::MemoryVector<T>& Botan::MemoryVector<T>::operator=(const Botan::MemoryRegion<T>&)': ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h:310: error: missing template arguments before '(' token What is this compiler error telling me? Here is a snippet of secmem.h that includes line 130: [...] /** * This class represents variable length buffers that do not * make use of memory locking. */ template<typename T> class MemoryVector : public MemoryRegion<T> { public: /** * Copy the contents of another buffer into this buffer. * @param in the buffer to copy the contents from * @return a reference to *this */ MemoryVector<T>& operator=(const MemoryRegion<T>& in) { if(this != &in) set(in); return (*this); } // This is line 130! [...]

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