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  • Does a nested subTable break reRender?

    - by Tom
    Here is a minimal rich:dataTable with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a complete page refresh. Why does subTable break support for reRender-ing the way i'd like to use it here? Tanks Tom

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  • UpdateProgress with UpdatePanel not showing up in User control when page is loading

    - by Carter
    Is this typical behavior of the UpdateProgress for an ASP.Net UpdatePanel? I have an update panel with the UpdateProgress control inside of a user control window on a page. If I then make the page in the background do some loading and click a button in the user control update panel the UpdateProgress does not show up at all. It's like the UpdatePanels refresh request is not even registered until after the actual page is done doing it's business. It's worth noting that it will show up if nothing is happening in the background. The functionality I want is what you would expect. I want to loader to show up if it has to wait for anything to get it's refresh done when after the button is clicked. I know I can get this functionality if I just use jquery ajax with a static web method, but you can't have static web methods inside of a user control. I could have it in the page but it really doesn't belong there. A full-blown wcf wouldn't really be worth it in this case either. I'm trying to compromise with an UpdatePanel but these things always seem to cause me some kind of trouble. Maybe this is just the way it works? Edit:So I'll clarify a bit what I'm doing. What's happening is I have a page and all it has on it are some tools on the side and a big map. When the page initially loads it takes some time to load the map. Now if while it's loading I open up the tool (a user control) that has the update panel in question in it and click the button on this user control that should refresh the update panel with new data and show the loading sign (in the updateprogress) then the UpdateProgress loading image does not show up. However, the code run by the button click does run after the page is done loading (as expected) and The UpdateProgress will show up if nothing on the page containing the user control is loading. I just want the loader to show up while the page is loading. I thought my problem was that perhaps the map loading is in an update panel and my UpdateProgress was only being associated with the update panel for the user control's update panel. Hence, I would get no loading icon when the map was loading. This is not the case though.

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  • jquery data selector

    - by Tauren
    I need to select elements based on values stored in an element's .data() object. At a minimum, I'd like to select top-level data properties using selectors, perhaps like this: $('a').data("category","music"); $('a:data(category=music)'); Or perhaps the selector would be in regular attribute selector format: $('a[category=music]'); Or in attribute format, but with a specifier to indicate it is in .data(): $('a[:category=music]'); I've found James Padolsey's implementation to look simple, yet good. The selector formats above mirror methods shown on that page. There is also this Sizzle patch. For some reason, I recall reading a while back that jQuery 1.4 would include support for selectors on values in the jquery .data() object. However, now that I'm looking for it, I can't find it. Maybe it was just a feature request that I saw. Is there support for this and I'm just not seeing it? Ideally, I'd like to support sub-properties in data() using dot notation. Like this: $('a').data("user",{name: {first:"Tom",last:"Smith"},username: "tomsmith"}); $('a[:user.name.first=Tom]'); I also would like to support multiple data selectors, where only elements with ALL specified data selectors are found. The regular jquery multiple selector does an OR operation. For instance, $('a.big, a.small') selects a tags with either class big or small). I'm looking for an AND, perhaps like this: $('a').data("artist",{id: 3281, name: "Madonna"}); $('a').data("category","music"); $('a[:category=music && :artist.name=Madonna]'); Lastly, it would be great if comparison operators and regex features were available on data selectors. So $(a[:artist.id>5000]) would be possible. I realize I could probably do much of this using filter(), but it would be nice to have a simple selector format. What solutions are available to do this? Is Jame's Padolsey's the best solution at this time? My concern is primarily in regards to performance, but also in the extra features like sub-property dot-notation and multiple data selectors. Are there other implementations that support these things or are better in some way?

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  • System architecture: simple approach for setting up background tasks behind a web application -- wil

    - by Tim Molendijk
    I have a Django web application and I have some tasks that should operate (or actually: be initiated) on the background. The application is deployed as follows: apache2-mpm-worker; mod_wsgi in daemon mode (1 process, 15 threads). The background tasks have the following characteristics: they need to operate in a regular interval (every 5 minutes or so); they require the application context (i.e. the application packages need to be available in memory); they do not need any input other than database access, in order to perform some not-so-heavy tasks such as sending out e-mail and updating the state of the database. Now I was thinking that the most simple approach to this problem would be simply to piggyback on the existing application process (as spawned by mod_wsgi). By implementing the task as part of the application and providing an HTTP interface for it, I would prevent the overhead of another process that is holding all of the application into memory. A simple cronjob can be setup that sends a request to this HTTP interface every 5 minutes and that would be it. Since the application process provides 15 threads and the tasks are quite lightweight and only running every 5 minutes, I figure they would not be hindering the performance of the web application's user-facing operations. Yet... I have done some online research and I have seen nobody advocating this approach. Many articles suggest a significantly more complex approach based on a full-blown messaging component (such as Celery, which uses RabbitMQ). Although that's sexy, it sounds like overkill to me. Some articles suggest setting up a cronjob that executes a script which performs the tasks. But that doesn't feel very attractive either, as it results in creating a new process that loads the entire application into memory, performs some tiny task, and destroys the process again. And this is repeated every 5 minutes. Does not sound like an elegant solution. So, I'm looking for some feedback on my suggested approach as described in the paragraph before the preceeding paragraph. Is my reasoning correct? Am I overlooking (potential) problems? What about my assumption that application's performance will not be impeded?

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  • php if clause inside foreach not retrieving data correctly

    - by Mike
    Here's my issue: In my controller, I want to grab user input from a form. I then parse the input, and compare it to database values to ensure I'm grabbing the correct input. I simply want to match the user's answers to the question, grab the user ID, the question ID, and then determine if the answer applies to a multiple choice or checkbox question, or something else. I take those values and insert them into the answer table. Ignore the waiver stuff. I'll test that once I get the answers input correctly. // add answers and waiver consent records try { $answerArray = array(); $waiverArray = array(); // retrieve answers, waiver consents, and the question ID's from form object foreach ($formData as $key => $value) { $parts = explode("_", $key); if ($parts[0] == 'question') { array_push($answerArray, $value); } if ($parts[0] == 'waiverTitle') { array_push($waiverArray, $value); } } $questions = new Model_DbTable_Questions(); $questionResults = $questions->getQuestionResults($session->idEvent); foreach ( $questionResults as $qr ) { if ($qr ['questionType'] == 'multipleChoice' || $qr ['questionType'] == 'checkBox') { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], null, $aa ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } else { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], $aa, null ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } } } catch (Zend_Db_Statement_Exception $e) { $e->getMessage(); throw $e; } From my test data, I expect to get 2 records that match the multiple choice and checkbox criteria, and 1 record for text in the ELSE clause like this: 3, checkbox, 1 3, multipleChoice, 1 3, text, question_2 What I get is a 3x3 Cartesian product, 3 question elements each with the 3 possible answers like this output from the echo statements: 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, question_2 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, question_2 4, text, 1 4, text, 1 4, text, question_2 I've tried placing the IF clause inside the inner foreach, but I get the same results. I've been staring at this problem for way too long and cannot see what I'm doing wrong. Your kind assistance would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if my request requires more clarification.

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  • How do you unit test a unit test?

    - by FlySwat
    I was watching Rob Connerys webcasts on the MVCStoreFront App, and I noticed he was unit testing even the most mundane things, things like: public Decimal DiscountPrice { get { return this.Price - this.Discount; } } Would have a test like: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,80); } While, I am all for unit testing, I sometimes wonder if this form of test first development is really beneficial, for example, in a real process, you have 3-4 layers above your code (Business Request, Requirements Document, Architecture Document), where the actual defined business rule (Discount Price is Price - Discount) could be misdefined. If that's the situation, your unit test means nothing to you. Additionally, your unit test is another point of failure: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,90); } Now the test is flawed. Obviously in a simple test, it's no big deal, but say we were testing a complicated business rule. What do we gain here? Fast forward two years into the application's life, when maintenance developers are maintaining it. Now the business changes its rule, and the test breaks again, some rookie developer then fixes the test incorrectly...we now have another point of failure. All I see is more possible points of failure, with no real beneficial return, if the discount price is wrong, the test team will still find the issue, how did unit testing save any work? What am I missing here? Please teach me to love TDD, as I'm having a hard time accepting it as useful so far. I want too, because I want to stay progressive, but it just doesn't make sense to me. EDIT: A couple people keep mentioned that testing helps enforce the spec. It has been my experience that the spec has been wrong as well, more often than not, but maybe I'm doomed to work in an organization where the specs are written by people who shouldn't be writing specs.

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  • Which third party website thumbnailing services do you use?

    - by Ben Delarre
    I've got a requirement for showing thumbnails of arbitrary websites. I need to be able to show small thumbnails (120px by 90px), and larger thumbnails of around 480px wide. I'll need to specify the queue and invalid placeholder images and preferably have a pingback when the queued images are processed so I can respond appropriately. I'd also need a simple API I can use either directly embedded in my HTML, or from a simple web request to queue the images. I've been looking at various services ranging from low-fi services, to large scale ones - here's some examples: www.bitpixels.com Uses Google AppEngine, seems like a prototype or a toy. Free! www.websnapr.com Tried using this, made a free account and requested a thumbnail. Waited a few minutes and refreshed a couple of times, and ended up having the account banned. Free is tricky yes, but if I can't try it out successfully I'm disinclined to pay. www.shrinktheweb.com Free account seems to be very quick. Lots of documentation on the site, and even covers local caching of the images to your own server (documentation mostly in PHP). Quality of thumbnails look good, and there appear to be sufficient options for setting thumbnail placeholder images and parameters for altering how the thumbnailing is done. Also supports large 'screenshots' of URLs - very useful for me. Discovered the PRO pricing is an à la carte menu, allowing me to select just the features I want and keep the monthly cost low. Excellent stuff, have decided to use this service. www.thumbalizr.com Good coverage of thumbnail sizes and control options - even allowing specification for browser width when thumbnailing. No ping-back, but I can live without that. Supports local caching of images with PHP API, would prefer .NET, but can port it if necessary. Looks like a fairly professional service but seems fairly expensive for the number of thumbnails you get to generate. apologies for lack of proper linking - spam protection! I'm not entirely convinced by any of them, and since this will be a long term service I'd like some stability and support. I'm willing to pay for the service, but I'd want something that fulfills most if not all of my requirements for that. I should also mention that we're hosted on Windows under IIS, so local solutions involving Xvfb and the like sadly can't be used for this project. So my question is: what services do you use? How have they panned out, are you happy with them?

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  • dropdown under a nav button css/html

    - by MannfromReno
    I have a navcontainer with buttons in the container. I need to make a dropdown list for only one of the buttons. How would this be accomplished with CSS/HTML. Here is my code: HTML: <div id="navcontainer"> <a href="/home.html" class="button" style="width: 115px">About Us</a> <a href="/quote.html" class="button" style="width: 170px">Request a Quote</a> <a href="/affiliates.html" class="button" style="width: 115px">Affiliates</a> <a href="/pricing.html" class="button" style="width: 170px">Pricing & Plans</a> <a href="/addservices.html" class="button" style="width: 190px">Additional Services</a> <a href="/service.html" class="button" style="width: 165px">Service Details</a> <a href="/watering.html" class="button" style="width: 108px">Watering</a> </div> CSS: #navcontainer { float: right; width: 1040px; height: 45px; text-align: center; line-height: 45px; color: #fff; margin-bottom: 6px; } .button { text-align: center; background: #226426; color: #fff; width: 100px; height: 45px; float: left; text-decoration: none; font-family: Arial, sans-serif; font-size: 15px; font-weight: bold; border-right: solid 1px #91b293; border-top: solid 1px #91b293; border-bottom: solid 1px #91b293; } Do I need to make this into a ul or can I keep it as is, and just add a dropdown to the Services button? Thanks for your help.

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  • Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

    - by Kelly Ellis
    I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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  • MVC 2 AntiForgeryToken - Why symmetric encryption + IPrinciple?

    - by Brad R
    We recently updated our solution to MVC 2, and this has updated the way that the AntiForgeryToken works. Unfortunately this does not fit with our AJAX framework any more. The problem is that MVC 2 now uses symmetric encryption to encode some properties about the user, including the user's Name property (from IPrincipal). We are able to securely register a new user using AJAX, after which subsequent AJAX calls will be invalid as the anti forgery token will change when the user has been granted a new principal. There are also other cases when this may happen, such as a user updating their name etc. My main question is why does MVC 2 even bother using symmetric encryption? Any then why does it care about the user name property on the principal? If my understanding is correct then any random shared secret will do. The basic principle is that the user will be sent a cookie with some specific data (HttpOnly!). This cookie is then required to match a form variable sent back with each request that may have side effects (POST's usually). Since this is only meant to protect from cross site attacks it is easy to craft up a response that would easily pass the test, but only if you had full access to the cookie. Since a cross site attacker is not going to have access to your user cookies you are protected. By using symmetric encryption, what is the advantage in checking the contents of the cookie? That is, if I already have sent an HttpOnly cookie the attacker cannot override it (unless a browser has a major security issue), so why do I then need to check it again? After having a think about it it appears to be one of those 'added layer of security' cases - but if your first line of defence has fallen (HttpOnly) then the attacker is going to get past the second layer anyway as they have full access to the users cookie collection, and could just impersonate them directly, instead of using an indirect XSS/CSRF attack. Of course I could be missing a major issue, but I haven't found it yet. If there are some obvious or subtle issues at play here then I would like to be aware of them.

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  • jQuery / javascript and nested if statements

    - by rayne
    I have a multi-lingual page where I want to display form validation error in the user's language. I use a hidden input to determine which language version the user is browsing like this: <input type="hidden" name="lang" id="lang" value="<?php echo $lang; ?>" /> The PHP side of the script works, but jQuery doesn't seem to realize which language is passed on. It displays the English error message no matter on which language site I am. Here's the code (I removed the other form fields for length): $(document).ready(function(){ $('#contact').submit(function() { $(".form_message").hide(); var emailReg = /^([\w-\.]+@([\w-]+\.)+[\w-]{2,4})?$/; var lang = $("#lang").val(); var name = $("#name").val(); var dataString = { 'lang': lang, 'name': name } if (name == '') { if (lang == 'de') { $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p><span class="error">Fehler:</span> Bitte gib deinen Namen an!</p></div>'); } else { $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p><span class="error">Error:</span> Please enter your name!</p></div>'); } $("#name").focus(); $("#name").addClass('req'); } else { $("#loading").show(); $("#loading").fadeIn(400).html('<img src="/img/loading.gif" />Loading...'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/contact-post.php", data: dataString, cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#loading").hide(); $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p>Thank you! Your contact request has been sent.</p></div>'); $("#contact input:submit").attr("disabled", "disabled").val("Success!"); } }); }return false; }); }); The problem seems to be somewhere in the nested if statement. Does jQuery / javascript even recognize nested ifs? And if yes, why is it not working?

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  • How to bind Lists of a custom view model to a dropDownList an get the selected value after POST in A

    - by user187220
    I have following problem. In my view model I defined some list properties as follows: public class BasketAndOrderSearchCriteriaViewModel { List<KeyValuePair> currencies; public ICollection<KeyValuePair> Currencies { get { if (this.currencies == null) this.currencies = new List<KeyValuePair>(); return this.currencies; } } List<KeyValuePair> deliverMethods; public ICollection<KeyValuePair> DeliveryMethods { get { if (this.deliverMethods == null) this.deliverMethods = new List<KeyValuePair>(); return this.deliverMethods; } } } This view model is embedded in another view model: public class BasketAndOrderSearchViewModel { public BasketAndOrderSearchCriteriaViewModel Criteria { [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThrough] get { return this.criteria; } } } I use 2 action methods; one is for the GET and the other for POST: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Search(BasketAndOrderSearchViewModel model){...} [HttpPost] public ActionResult SubmitSearch(BasketAndOrderSearchViewModel model){...} In the view I implement the whole view model by using the EditorFor-Html Helper which does not want to automatically display DropDownLists for List properties! 1. Question: How can you let EditorFor display DropDownLists? Since I could not figure out how to display DropDownLists by using EditorFor, I used the DropDownList Html helper and filled it through the view model as follows: public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> DeliveryMethodAsSelectListItem() { List<SelectListItem> list = new List<SelectListItem>(); list.Add(new SelectListItem() { Selected = true, Text = "<Choose Delivery method>", Value = "0" }); foreach (var item in this.DeliveryMethods) { list.Add(new SelectListItem() { Selected = false, Text = item.Value, Value = item.Key }); } return list; } My 2. question: As you can see I pass my view model to the action metho with POST attribute! Is there a way to get the selected value of a DropDownList get binded to the passed view model? At the moment all the DropDownList are empty and the selected value can only be fetched by the Request.Form which I definitely want to avoid! I would greatly appreciate some ideas or tips on this!

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  • File upload progress

    - by Cornelius
    I've been trying to track the progress of a file upload but keep on ending up at dead ends (uploading from a C# application not a webpage). I tried using the WebClient as such: class Program { static volatile bool busy = true; static void Main(string[] args) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); // Add some custom header information client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); client.UploadProgressChanged += client_UploadProgressChanged; client.UploadFileCompleted += client_UploadFileCompleted; client.UploadFileAsync(new Uri("http://uploaduri/"), "filename"); while (busy) { Thread.Sleep(100); } Console.WriteLine("Done: press enter to exit"); Console.ReadLine(); } static void client_UploadFileCompleted(object sender, UploadFileCompletedEventArgs e) { busy = false; } static void client_UploadProgressChanged(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("Completed {0} of {1} bytes", e.BytesSent, e.TotalBytesToSend); } } The file does upload and progress is printed out but the progress is much faster than the actual upload and when uploading a large file the progress will reach the maximum within a few seconds but the actual upload takes a few minutes (it is not just waiting on a response, all the data have not yet arrived at the server). So I tried using HttpWebRequest to stream the data instead (I know this is not the exact equivalent of a file upload as it does not produce multipart/form-data content but it does serve to illustrate my problem). I set AllowWriteStreamBuffering to false and set the ContentLength as suggested by this question/answer: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo(args[0]); HttpWebRequest client = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(new Uri("http://uploadUri/")); // Add some custom header info client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); client.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; client.ContentLength = fileInfo.Length; client.Method = "POST"; long fileSize = fileInfo.Length; using (FileStream stream = fileInfo.OpenRead()) { using (Stream uploadStream = client.GetRequestStream()) { long totalWritten = 0; byte[] buffer = new byte[3000]; int bytesRead = 0; while ((bytesRead = stream.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) > 0) { uploadStream.Write(buffer, 0, bytesRead); uploadStream.Flush(); Console.WriteLine("{0} of {1} written", totalWritten += bytesRead, fileSize); } } } Console.WriteLine("Done: press enter to exit"); Console.ReadLine(); } } The request does not start until the entire file have been written to the stream and already shows full progress at the time it starts (I'm using fiddler to verify this). I also tried setting SendChunked to true (with and without setting the ContentLength as well). It seems like the data still gets cached before being sent over the network. Is there something wrong with one of these approaches or is there perhaps another way I can track the progress of file uploads from a windows application?

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  • SQL CLR Stored Procedure and Web Service

    - by Nathan
    I am current working on a task in which I am needing to call a method in a web service from a CLR stored procedure. A bit of background: Basically, I have a task that requires ALOT of crunching. If done strictly in SQL, it takes somewhere around 30-45 mins to process. If I pull the same process into code, I can get it complete in seconds due to being able to optimize the processing so much more efficiently. The only problem is that I have to have this process set as an automated task in SQL Server. In that vein, I have exposed the process as a web service (I use it for other things as well) and want the SQL CLR sproc to consume the service and execute the code. This allows me to have my automated task. The problem: I have read quite a few different topics regarding how to consume a web service in a CLR Sproc and have done so effectivly. Here is an example of what I have followed. http://blog.hoegaerden.be/2008/11/11/calling-a-web-service-from-sql-server-2005/ I can get this example working without any issues. However, whenever I pair this process w/ a Web Service method that involves a database call, I get the following exceptions (depending upon whether or not I wrap in a try / catch): Msg 10312, Level 16, State 49, Procedure usp_CLRRunDirectSimulationAndWriteResults, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. The UDP/UDF/UDT did not revert thread token. or Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure MyStoredProc , Line 0 A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyStoredProc': System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.EnvironmentPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. System.Security.SecurityException: at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.CredentialCache.get_DefaultCredentials() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean value) at MyStoredProc.localhost.MPWebService.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean Value) at MyStoredProclocalhost.MPWebService..ctor() at MyStoredProc.StoredProcedures.MyStoredProc(String FromPostCode, String ToPostCode) I am sure this is a permission issue, but I can't, for the life of me get it working. I have attempted using impersonation in the CLR sproc and a few other things. Any suggestions? What am I missing?

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  • SVN directories not showing up in localhost when using WAMP

    - by JsusSalv
    Hi: I recently installed WAMP for actual local use. I've worked on live development servers but now am working on localhost. I've managed to get multiple virtual hosts setup on my WAMP/Vista 64-bit box but am having difficulty with directories pulled from SVN. I have four vhosts setup. Two work well and they are not tied to any SVN just yet. I'm also using TortoiseSVN in case it makes any difference. However, the other projects are coming from SVN repositories. When I view these two projects I get the following error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, admin@localhost and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. The way I setup the vhosts is as follows: httpd.conf # Multiple Virtual Hosts <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1> ServerName localhost DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.1.0> ServerName testone.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectone/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.2.0> ServerName testtwo.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projecttwo/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.3.0> ServerName testthree.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectthree/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.3.1> ServerName testfour.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectfour/" </VirtualHost> And here's the 'hosts' file: # Localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost ::1 localhost # Project One 127.0.1.0 testone.local # Project Two 127.0.2.0 testtwo.local # Project Three 127.0.3.0 testthree.local # Project Four 127.0.3.1 testfour.local Everything works just fine. So if you want to tell me I'm doing something wrong then by all means point out a few things. But as it stands, it works and I'm content using different IPs and/or named-based vhosts. The problem comes in not being able to see the directories and files in the projects that are tied to an SVN. Whenever I visit http://testxxxx.local I get the error message at the top of this post. Please provide some suggestions. Thank you!

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  • Rails: Passing new child object placeholder (build) to parent view

    - by Meltemi
    I've got 2 classes of objects... Magician has_many Rabbits and Rabbit belongs_to Magician. When viewing a Magician (show.html) I'd like to list all the associated Rabbits and then have some blank fields with a submit button to add a new Rabbit. To do so I build a new rabbit (associated to the current magician) in the Magician's show method (below). Edit2: found way to make it work but not sure if it's the "Rails way"? see comments inline (below): If I build the rabbit in Magician's show method then when show is rendered an empty (and invalid) rabbit ends the list before the new rabbit form fields are then shown. If I build it in the view itself then everything works & renders correctly. I was led to believe that we should not be doing this type of stuff in the view...if so, what's the proper way to address this? #/app/controllers/magicians_controller.rb class MagiciansController < ApplicationController respond_to :html, :json def show @magician = Magician.find(params[:id]) @rabbit = @magician.rabbits.build # <=== build here and empty rabbit gets # included in @magician.rabbits when they're rendered... # but is NOT included in @magician.rabbits.count for some reason?!?!? respond_with(@magician) end ... end #view/magicians/show.html.haml %p %b Name: = @magician.name %h2 Rabbits = "There are #{pluralize(@magician.rabbits.count, "rabbit")}" = render @magician.rabbits, :target => @magician %h2 Add a rabbit: - @rabbit = @clown.rabbits.build -# <=== build here and everything SEEMS to work = render :partial =>"rabbits/form", :locals => { :parent => @magician, :foreign_key => :magician_id, :flash => flash } Edit1: Adding generated html from partial as per request: <p> <b>Rabbit:</b> <b>Color:</b> | <b>ID:</b> <a href="/magicians/2/rabbits" data-confirm="Sure? A bunny will die" data-method="delete" rel="nofollow">Kill Rabbit</a> </p> And I suppose you probably want to see the partial that generates this: %p %b Rabbit: = rabbit.name %b Color: = rabbit.color | %b ID: = rabbit.id = link_to("Kill Rabbit", [target, rabbit], :method => :delete, :confirm => "Sure? A bunny will die")

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  • Can't setup Facebook Login on my website..

    - by Mark
    I am trying to experiment with the new facebook authentication system, and I can't getthe login to work. I'm getting the following error message: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. The url that is being sent to facebook is: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?app_id=444444444444444&next=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df357eceb0361a8a%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx&display=popup&channel=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.mysite.com%2Ffbtester.php&cancel=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df6095a98598be8%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx&locale=en_US&return_session=1&session_version=3&fbconnect=1&canvas=0&legacy_return=1&method=permissions.request Note that the 'Next' variable in the url is: next=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df357eceb0361a8a%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx Any ideas what could be going wrong? All I've done is copy and paste the facebook login demo code from facebook's website: define('FACEBOOK_APP_ID', 'your application id'); define('FACEBOOK_SECRET', 'your application secret'); function get_facebook_cookie($app_id, $application_secret) { $args = array(); parse_str(trim($COOKIE['fbs' . $app_id], '\"'), $args); ksort($args); $payload = ''; foreach ($args as $key = $value) { if ($key != 'sig') { $payload .= $key . '=' . $value; } } if (md5($payload . $application_secret) != $args['sig']) { return null; } return $args; } $cookie = get_facebook_cookie(FACEBOOK_APP_ID, FACEBOOK_SECRET); ? Your user ID is <div id="fb-root"></div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: '<?= FACEBOOK_APP_ID ?>', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.login', function(response) { window.location.reload(); }); </script> Thanks for the help!

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  • Htaccess rewrite rule .aspx to .php

    - by Markus Ossi
    Background: I have a website that has been built with ASP.NET 2.0 and is on Windows hosting. I now have to rewrite my site in PHP and move it into Linux hosting. I have a lot of incoming links to my site from around the web that point directly into the old .aspx-pages. The site itself is very simple, one dynamic page and five static ones. I saved the static .aspx pages as .php-pages and rewrote the dynamic page in PHP. The dynamic page is called City.aspx and I have written it in PHP and it is now called City.php. On my old Windows hosting, I used ASP.NET's URL mapping for friendly URL. For example, incoming URL request for Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx was mapped into City.aspx?CityID=981. My goal: To redirect all human visitors and search engines looking for the old .aspx pages into the new .php pages. I am thinking that the easiest way to redirect visitors into new pages will be by making a redirect, where all requests for .aspx-files will be redirected into .php filetypes. So, if someone asks for MYSITE/City.aspx?CityID=5, they will be taken into MYSITE/City.php?CityID=5 instead. However, I am having a lot of trouble getting this to work. So far this is what I have found: rewriterule ^([.]+)\.aspx$ http://www.example.com/$1.php [R=301,L] However, I think this can not handle the parameters after the filetype and I am also not quite sure what to put on front. To make things a bit more complicated, at my previous site I used friendly URL's so that I had a huge mapping file with mappings like this: <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=981" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aetsa.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=988" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ahtari.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=989" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=992" /> I tried to make a simple redirect like this: Redirect 301 Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx City.php?CityID=992 but was not able to get it to work. I ended up with an internal server error and a 50k .htaccess-file... Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • error working with wsdl files in visual studio 2008

    - by deostroll
    Hi. I got a wsdl file in email. At first I didn't know how to use it. I've simply saved the file to my disk. Opened visual studio...added a service reference...provided path to file, and service was discovered. I opened the object browser to see the types and methods that got imported. I figure anything that ends with the name 'Client' is a good place to start using the web service. I've tried using a simple method to get data but it has run into and expception. Need help in resolving it. System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="The XML element 'ListsRequest' from namespace 'http://www.asd.org/MGMMIRAGE.MDM.WS/Customer' references a method and a type. Change the method's message name using WebMethodAttribute or change the type's root element using the XmlRootAttribute." Source="System.Xml" StackTrace: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlReflectionImporter.ReconcileAccessor(Accessor accessor, NameTable accessors) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlReflectionImporter.ImportMembersMapping(String elementName, String ns, XmlReflectionMember[] members, Boolean hasWrapperElement, Boolean rpc, Boolean openModel, XmlMappingAccess access) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlReflectionImporter.ImportMembersMapping(String elementName, String ns, XmlReflectionMember[] members, Boolean hasWrapperElement, Boolean rpc, Boolean openModel) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlReflectionImporter.ImportMembersMapping(String elementName, String ns, XmlReflectionMember[] members, Boolean hasWrapperElement, Boolean rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.XmlSerializerImporter.ImportMembersMapping(XmlName elementName, String ns, XmlReflectionMember[] members, Boolean hasWrapperElement, Boolean rpc, Boolean isEncoded, String mappingKey) at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.OperationReflector.ImportMembersMapping(String elementName, String ns, XmlReflectionMember[] members, Boolean hasWrapperElement, Boolean rpc, String mappingKey) at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.OperationReflector.LoadBodyMapping(MessageDescription message, String mappingKey, MessagePartDescriptionCollection& rpcEncodedTypedMessageBodyParts) at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.OperationReflector.CreateMessageInfo(MessageDescription message, String key) at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.OperationReflector.EnsureMessageInfos() at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.EnsureMessageInfos() at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.Reflector.OperationReflector.get_Request() at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.CreateFormatter() at System.ServiceModel.Description.XmlSerializerOperationBehavior.System.ServiceModel.Description.IOperationBehavior.ApplyClientBehavior(OperationDescription description, ClientOperation proxy) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.BindOperations(ContractDescription contract, ClientRuntime proxy, DispatchRuntime dispatch) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.ApplyClientBehavior(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint, ClientRuntime clientRuntime) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.BuildProxyBehavior(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint, BindingParameterCollection& parameters) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelFactory.BuildChannelFactory(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.CreateFactory() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.OnOpening() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.EnsureOpened() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel() at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.CreateChannel() at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.CreateChannelInternal() at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.get_Channel() at MDMWSDemo.MDMWebSrvc.MGMCustomerSoapPortTypeClient.MDMWSDemo.MDMWebSrvc.MGMCustomerSoapPortType.CountryCodeGet(CountryCodeGetRequest request) in C:\Documents and Settings\tbhagava01\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\MDMWSDemo\MDMWSDemo\Service References\MDMWebSrvc\Reference.cs:line 2983 at MDMWSDemo.MDMWebSrvc.MGMCustomerSoapPortTypeClient.CountryCodeGet(String countryCode) in C:\Documents and Settings\tbhagava01\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\MDMWSDemo\MDMWSDemo\Service References\MDMWebSrvc\Reference.cs:line 2989 at MDMWSDemo.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Documents and Settings\tbhagava01\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\MDMWSDemo\MDMWSDemo\Program.cs:line 15 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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  • Consuming Web Services requiring Authentication from behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about Proxy Authentication, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a SharePoint Web Service consuming desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. It's almost as if the authentication I provide is going to the proxy rather than the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • Using XStream to deserialize an XML response with separate "success" and "failure" forms?

    - by Chris Markle
    I am planning on using XStream with Java to convert between objects and XML requests and XML responses and objects, where the XML is flowing over HTTP/HTTPS. On the response side, I can get a "successful" response, which seems like it would map to one Java class, or a "failure" response, which seems like it would map to another Java class. For example, for a "file list" request, I could get an affirmative response e.g., <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <success>true</success> <files> <file>[...]</file> <file>[...]</file> <file>[...]</file> </files> </response> or I could get a negative response e.g., <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <success>false</success> <error> <errorCode>-502</errorCode> <systemMessage>[...]AuthenticationException</systemMessage> <userMessage>Not authenticated</userMessage> </error> </response> To handle this, should I include fields in one class for both cases or should I somehow use XStream to "conditionally" create one of the two potential classes? The case with fields from both response cases in the same object would look something like this: Class Response { boolean success; ArrayList<File> files; ResponseError error; [...] } Class File { String name; long size; [...] } Class ResponseError { int errorCode; String systemMessage; String userMessage; [...] } I don't know what the "use XStream and create different objects in case of success or error" looks like. Is it possible to do that somehow? Is it better or worse way to go? Anyway, any advice on how to handle using XStream to deal with this success vs. failure response case would be appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • What is the best workaround for the WCF client `using` block issue?

    - by Eric King
    I like instantiating my WCF service clients within a using block as it's pretty much the standard way to use resources that implement IDisposable: using (var client = new SomeWCFServiceClient()) { //Do something with the client } But, as noted in this MSDN article, wrapping a WCF client in a using block could mask any errors that result in the client being left in a faulted state (like a timeout or communication problem). Long story short, when Dispose() is called, the client's Close() method fires, but throws and error because it's in a faulted state. The original exception is then masked by the second exception. Not good. The suggested workaround in the MSDN article is to completely avoid using a using block, and to instead instantiate your clients and use them something like this: try { ... client.Close(); } catch (CommunicationException e) { ... client.Abort(); } catch (TimeoutException e) { ... client.Abort(); } catch (Exception e) { ... client.Abort(); throw; } Compared to the using block, I think that's ugly. And a lot of code to write each time you need a client. Luckily, I found a few other workarounds, such as this one on IServiceOriented. You start with: public delegate void UseServiceDelegate<T>(T proxy); public static class Service<T> { public static ChannelFactory<T> _channelFactory = new ChannelFactory<T>(""); public static void Use(UseServiceDelegate<T> codeBlock) { IClientChannel proxy = (IClientChannel)_channelFactory.CreateChannel(); bool success = false; try { codeBlock((T)proxy); proxy.Close(); success = true; } finally { if (!success) { proxy.Abort(); } } } } Which then allows: Service<IOrderService>.Use(orderService => { orderService.PlaceOrder(request); } That's not bad, but I don't think it's as expressive and easily understandable as the using block. The workaround I'm currently trying to use I first read about on blog.davidbarret.net. Basically you override the client's Dispose() method wherever you use it. Something like: public partial class SomeWCFServiceClient : IDisposable { void IDisposable.Dispose() { if (this.State == CommunicationState.Faulted) { this.Abort(); } else { this.Close(); } } } This appears to be able to allow the using block again without the danger of masking a faulted state exception. So, are there any other gotchas I have to look out for using these workarounds? Has anybody come up with anything better?

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  • How do I access SourceGear Web services using SOAP::Lite?

    - by user565793
    For some reason SourceGear provide an undocumented Web service on their installations. They actually ask developers to use the API instead because the Web service is kinda messy, but this is a problem in my case because I cannot use this API on a Perl environment, so their solution for my specific case is to use the Web service. This shouldn't be a problem. Using SOAP::Lite I have connected to several Web services in the past in the same way. But the lack of documentation is a major chaos if you don't know where the SOAP calls can be made. I only have an XML to decipher where to and how to make these calls. It would be great if a real SOAP genius could help me out in this. This is an example of the login call and the expected response: Request POST /fortress/dragnetwebservice.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: velecloudserver Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://www.sourcegear.com/schemas/dragnet/LoginPlainText" <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <LoginPlainText xmlns="http://www.sourcegear.com/schemas/dragnet"> <strLogin>string</strLogin> <strPassword>string</strPassword> </LoginPlainText> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> Response HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <LoginPlainTextResponse xmlns="http://www.sourcegear.com/schemas/dragnet"> <LoginPlainTextResult>int</LoginPlainTextResult> <strAuthTicket>string</strAuthTicket> </LoginPlainTextResponse> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> I'm looking for a way to be able to assemble this somehow. This is my Perl example: my $soap = SOAP::Lite -> uri ('http://velecloudserver/fortress/dragnetwebservice.asmx') -> proxy('http://velecloudserver/fortress/dragnetwebservice.asmx/LoginPlainText'); my $som = $soap->call('LoginPlainText', SOAP::Data->name('LoginPlainText')->value( \SOAP::Data->value([ SOAP::Data->name('strLogin')->value( 'admin' ), SOAP::Data->name('strPassword')->value('Adm1234'), ])) ); Any tip would be appreciated.

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  • TcpListener is queuing connections faster than I can clear them

    - by Matthew Brindley
    As I understand it, TcpListener will queue connections once you call Start(). Each time you call AcceptTcpClient (or BeginAcceptTcpClient), it will dequeue one item from the queue. If we load test our TcpListener app by sending 1,000 connections to it at once, the queue builds far faster than we can clear it, leading (eventually) to timeouts from the client because it didn't get a response because its connection was still in the queue. However, the server doesn't appear to be under much pressure, our app isn't consuming much CPU time and the other monitored resources on the machine aren't breaking a sweat. It feels like we're not running efficiently enough right now. We're calling BeginAcceptTcpListener and then immediately handing over to a ThreadPool thread to actually do the work, then calling BeginAcceptTcpClient again. The work involved doesn't seem to put any pressure on the machine, it's basically just a 3 second sleep followed by a dictionary lookup and then a 100 byte write to the TcpClient's stream. Here's the TcpListener code we're using: // Thread signal. private static ManualResetEvent tcpClientConnected = new ManualResetEvent(false); public void DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(TcpListener listener) { // Set the event to nonsignaled state. tcpClientConnected.Reset(); listener.BeginAcceptTcpClient( new AsyncCallback(DoAcceptTcpClientCallback), listener); // Wait for signal tcpClientConnected.WaitOne(); } public void DoAcceptTcpClientCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // Get the listener that handles the client request, and the TcpClient TcpListener listener = (TcpListener)ar.AsyncState; TcpClient client = listener.EndAcceptTcpClient(ar); if (inProduction) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client, serverCertificate)); // With SSL else ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client)); // Without SSL // Signal the calling thread to continue. tcpClientConnected.Set(); } public void Start() { currentHandledRequests = 0; tcpListener = new TcpListener(IPAddress.Any, 10000); try { tcpListener.Start(); while (true) DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(tcpListener); } catch (SocketException) { // The TcpListener is shutting down, exit gracefully CheckBuffer(); return; } } I'm assuming the answer will be related to using Sockets instead of TcpListener, or at least using TcpListener.AcceptSocket, but I wondered how we'd go about doing that? One idea we had was to call AcceptTcpClient and immediately Enqueue the TcpClient into one of multiple Queue<TcpClient> objects. That way, we could poll those queues on separate threads (one queue per thread), without running into monitors that might block the thread while waiting for other Dequeue operations. Each queue thread could then use ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem to have the work done in a ThreadPool thread and then move onto dequeuing the next TcpClient in its queue. Would you recommend this approach, or is our problem that we're using TcpListener and no amount of rapid dequeueing is going to fix that?

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  • jPlayer widget created with static error as result

    - by goldengel
    I've created a widged with Orchard. Unfortunately I've used the same "Title" for a jPlayer widget twice. Now I receive an error: Server Error in '/wgk' Application. Sequence contains more than one element Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element Source Error: Line 2: <fieldset> Line 3: <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> Line 4: @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { Line 5: <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> Line 6: } Source File: x:\Intepub\wgk\Modules\Orchard.jPlayer\Views\EditorTemplates\Parts\MediaGallery.cshtml Line: 4 Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element] System.Linq.Enumerable.SingleOrDefault(IEnumerable`1 source) +4206966 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.HandleSingleOrDefaultCall(MethodCallExpression call) +51 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.VisitMethodCall(MethodCallExpression call) +411 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) +371 In MediaGallery.cshtml (found in error description above) is written: @model Orchard.jPlayer.Models.MediaGalleryPart <fieldset> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> } else { <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedGallery, Model.AvailableGalleries)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.SelectedType, @T("Media gallery type"))</div> <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedType, Model.AvailableTypes)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.AutoPlay, @T("Auto play"))</div> <div>@Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.AutoPlay)</div> } </fieldset> My problem is now, I cannot find or edit the widget with double used name. I would love to replace it to another name. But I do not know where to do this. Please advice.

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