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  • Stubbing a before_filter with RSpec

    - by TheDelChop
    Guys, I'm having trouble understanding why I can't seem to stub this controller method :load_user, since all of my tests fail if I change the actual implementation of :load_user to not return and instance of @user. Can anybody see why my stub (controller.stub!(:load_user).and_return(@user)) seems to fail to actually get called when RSpec makes a request to the controller? require 'spec_helper' describe TasksController do before(:each) do @user = Factory(:user) sign_in @user @task = Factory(:task) User.stub_chain(:where, :first).and_return(@user) controller.stub!(:load_user).and_return(@user) end #GET Index describe "GET Index" do before(:each) do @tasks = 7.times{Factory(:task, :user = @user)} @user.stub!(:tasks).and_return(@tasks) end it "should should find all of the tasks owned by a user" do @user.should_receive(:tasks).and_return(@tasks) get :index, :user_id = @user.id end it "should assign all of the user's tasks to the view" do get :index, :user_id = @user.id assigns[:tasks].should be(@tasks) end end #GET New describe "GET New" do before(:each) do @user.stub_chain(:tasks, :new).and_return(@task) end it "should return a new Task" do @user.tasks.should_receive(:new).and_return(@task) get :new, :user_id = @user.id end end #POST Create describe "POST Create" do before(:each) do @user.stub_chain(:tasks, :new).and_return(@task) end it "should create a new task" do @user.tasks.should_receive(:new).and_return(@task) post :create, :user_id = @user.id, :task = @task.to_s end it "saves the task" do @task.should_receive(:save) post :create, :user_id = @user.id, :task = @task end context "when the task is saved successfully" do before(:each) do @task.stub!(:save).and_return(true) end it "should set the flash[:notice] message to 'Task Added Successfully'"do post :create, :user_id = @user.id, :task = @task flash[:notice].should == "Task Added Successfully!" end it "should redirect to the user's task page" do post :create, :user_id = @user.id, :task = @task response.should redirect_to(user_tasks_path(@user.id)) end end context "when the task isn't saved successfully" do before(:each) do @task.stub(:save).and_return(false) end it "should return to the 'Create New Task' page do" do post :create, :user_id = @user.id, :task = @task response.should render_template('new') end end end it "should attempt to authenticate and load the user who owns the tasks" do context "when the tasks belong to the currently logged in user" do it "should set the user instance variable to the currently logged in user" do pending end end context "when the tasks belong to another user" do it "should set the flash[:notice] to 'Sorry but you can't view other people's tasks.'" do pending end it "should redirect to the home page" do pending end end end end class TasksController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_user def index @tasks = @user.tasks end def new @task = @user.tasks.new end def create @task = @user.tasks.new if @task.save flash[:notice] = "Task Added Successfully!" redirect_to user_tasks_path(@user.id) else render :action => 'new' end end private def load_user if current_user.id == params[:user_id].to_i @user = User.where(:id => params[:user_id]).first else flash[:notice] = "Sorry but you can't view other people's tasks." redirect_to root_path end end end Can anybody see why my stub doesnt' work? Like I said, my tests only pass if I make sure that load_user works, if not, all my tests fail which makes my think that RSpec isn't using the stub I created. Thanks, Joe

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  • how to send parameters to a web Services via SOAP?

    - by Alejandra Meraz
    Before I start: I'm programming for Iphone, using objective C. I have already implemented a call to a web service function using NSURLRequest and NSURLConnection and SOAP. The function then returns a XML with the info I need. The code is as follows: NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body>\n" "<function xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\" />\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myHost.com/myWebService/service.asmx"]; //the url to the WSDL NsMutableURLRequest theRequest = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Lenght"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest addValue:@"myhost.com" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Host"]; [theRequest addValue:@"http://tempuri.org/function" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:[soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; I basically copy and modified the soap request the web service gave as an example. i also implemented the methods didRecieveResponse didRecieveAuthenticationChallenge didRecievedData didFailWithError connectionDidFinishLoading. And it works perfectly. Now I need to send 2 parameters to the function: "location" and "module". I tried modifying the soapMessage like this: NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\" />\n" "<m:GetMonitorList>\n" "<m:location>USA</m:location>\n" "<m:module>DEVELOPMENT</m:module>\n" "</m:GetMonitorList>\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n"]; But is not working...any thoughts how should I modify it? Extra info: it seems to be working... kind of. But the webservice return nothing. During the connection, the method didReceiveResponse execute once and the didFinishLoading method executes as well. But not even once the method didReceiveData. I wonder if, even though there is no USA locations, it will still send at least something? is there a way to know which are the parameters the function is waiting for? I don't have access to the source of the webservice but i can access the WSDL.

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  • problem to create session of facebook

    - by khoyendra
    try { HttpClient http = new HttpClient(); http.setParams(new HttpClientParams()); //http.getHostConfiguration().setHost("http://www.facebook.com/"); http.setState(new HttpState()); String api_key = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; String secret = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; // String appId=124812364218050; //http://www.facebook.com/developers/editapp.php?app_id=124812364218050 FacebookRestClient client = new FacebookRestClient(api_key, secret); client.setIsDesktop(true); // String sessionKey = request.getParameter(FacebookParam.SESSION_KEY.toString()); // boolean b = client.users_setStatus("This is a test..."); // System.out.println("User Status RESULT : " + b); String token = client.auth_createToken(); final String loginId = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php"; GetMethod get = new GetMethod(loginId + "?api_key=" + api_key + "&v=1.0&auth_token=" +token); System.out.println("Get="+get); http.executeMethod(get); PostMethod post = new PostMethod(loginId); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("api_key", api_key)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("v", "1.0")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("auth_token", token)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("fbconnect","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("return_session","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("session_key_only","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("req_perms","read_stream,publish_stream")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("email", email)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("pass", password)); System.out.println("Token ="+token); int postStatus = http.executeMethod(post); System.out.println("Response : " + postStatus); session = client.auth_getSession(token); // Here I am getting error System.out.println("Session string: " + session); long userid = client.users_getLoggedInUser(); System.out.println("User Id is : " + userid); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } please solve my problem i cannot create session of facebook.

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  • Why won't C# accept a (seemingly) perfectly good Sql Server CE Query?

    - by VoidKing
    By perfectly good sql query, I mean to say that, inside WebMatrix, if I execute the following query, it works to perfection: SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%o%' Here i am using 'o' as a static search string to search upon. No problem, but not exeactly very dynamic. Now, when I write this query as a string in C# and as I think it should be (and even as I have done before) I get a server-side error indicating that the string was not in the correct format. Here is a pic of that error: And (although I am only testing the output, should I get it to quit erring), here is the actual C# (i.e., the .cshtml) page that queries the database: @{ Layout = "~/Layouts/_secondaryMainLayout.cshtml"; var db = Database.Open("Content"); string searchText = Request.Unvalidated["searchText"]; string selectQueryString = "SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%'"; @:beginning <br/> foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) { @:entry @:@row.location &nbsp; @:@row.occurences &nbsp; @:@row.tableName <br/> } } Since it is erring on the foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) line, that heavily suggests that something is wrong with my query, however, everything seems right to me about the syntax here and it even executes to perfection if I query the database (mind you, un-parameterized) directly. Logically, I would assume that I have erred somewhere with the syntax involved in parameterizing this query, however, my double and triple checking (as well as, my past experience at doing this) insists that everything looks fine here. Have I messed up the syntax involved with parameterizing this query, or is something else at play here that I am overlooking? I know I can tell you, for sure, as it has been previously tested, that the value I am getting from the query string is, indeed, what I would expect it to be, but as there really isn't much else on the .cshtml page yet, that is about all I can tell you.

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  • WebServices does not interact with App

    - by daemonfire300
    I got a Silverlight App with-in a Web Project Web Silverlight The web contains a service: [WebService(Namespace = "svChat")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. //[System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class GetIPService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public GetIPService () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string GetIp() { return HttpContext.Current.Request.ServerVariables["HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR"]; } } And I got a class in my Silverlight App using the Service: public class Client { private string ip; private string created; #region Properties public string Ip { get { return ip; } set { ip = value; } } public string Created { get { return created; } set { created = value; } } #endregion public Client() { } public void SetIp() { ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoapClient scIpClient = new svChat.ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoapClient(); scIpClient.GetIpCompleted += new EventHandler<svChat.ServiceReference1.GetIpCompletedEventArgs>(IpService_Completed); scIpClient.GetIpAsync(); } private void IpService_Completed(object sender, ServiceReference1.GetIpCompletedEventArgs e) { this.ip = e.Result; } } After Client is created, SetIp() is called, and Client.Ip is added to a text box. Nothing happens. Ip = null. Service itselfs works, tested it. Getting Ip by the above code works. Gettings Ip via service through Silverlight App does not work. <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="GetIPServiceSoap" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:2090/svChat.Web/GetIPService.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="GetIPServiceSoap" contract="ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoap" name="GetIPServiceSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Any ideas? regards,

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  • HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

    - by pableu
    Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

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  • Use of text() function when using xPath in dom4j

    - by jlawless
    I have inherited an application that parses xml using dom4j and xPath: The xml being parsed is similar to the following: <cache> <content> <transaction> <page> <widget name="PAGE_ID">WRK_REGISTRATION</widget> <widget name="TRANS_DETAIL_ID">77145</widget> <widget name="GRD_ERRORS" /> </page> <page> <widget name="PAGE_ID">WRK_REGISTRATION</widget> <widget name="TRANS_DETAIL_ID">77147</widget> <widget name="GRD_ERRORS" /> </page> <page> <widget name="PAGE_ID">WRK_PROCESSING</widget> <widget name="TRANS_DETAIL_ID">77152</widget> <widget name="GRD_ERRORS" /> </page> </transaction> </content> </cache> Individual Nodes are being searched using the following: String xPathToGridErrorNode = "//cache/content/transaction/page/widget[@name='PAGE_ID'][text()='WRK_DNA_REGISTRATION']/../widget[@name='TRANS_DETAIL_ID'][text()='77147']/../widget[@name='GRD_ERRORS_TEMP']"; org.dom4j.Element root = null; SAXReader reader = new SAXReader(); Document document = reader.read(new BufferedInputStream(new ByteArrayInputStream(xmlToParse.getBytes()))); root = document.getRootElement(); Node gridNode = root.selectSingleNode(xPathToGridErrorNode); where xmlToParse is a String of xml similar to the excerpt provided above. The code is trying to obtain the GRD_ERROR node for the page with the PAGE_ID and TRANS_DETAIL_ID provided in the xPath. I am seeing an intermittent (~1-2%) failure (returned node is null) of this selectSingleNode request even though the requested node is in the xml being searched. I know there are some gotchas associated with using text()= in xPath and was wondering if there was a better way to format the xPath string for this type of search.

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  • The admob ads not dispaly, but no error in my logcat

    - by ???
    package com.admob.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; public class AdmobTestActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); } } <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.admob.test" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="4" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" > <activity android:name=".AdmobTestActivity" android:label="@string/app_name" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name="com.google.ads.AdActivity" android:configChanges="keyboard|keyboardHidden|orientation|screenLayout|uiMode|screenSize|s mallestScreenSize" /> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE" /> </manifest> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:ads="http://schemas.android.com/apk/lib/com.google.ads" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <com.google.ads.AdView android:id="@+id/adView" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" ads:adUnitId="xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx" ads:adSize="BANNER" ads:testDevices="C904358AFB272CDFA888A5C1CB914DA4" ads:loadAdOnCreate="true"/> </LinearLayout> I'd like to test my admob ads in my Android application, but the ads can't display. And no error can be found in the logcat. I also can find the success request for ads from Admob. I use "X" to indicate my publish id, could any expert kindly help me? thanks in advanse.

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  • Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

    - by Doug Chamberlain
    Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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  • Primary language - C++/Qt, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

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  • Catching error caused by InitialContext.lookup

    - by Martin Schröder
    I'm developing a command line client (Java SE6) that now needs to talk to a Glassfish 2.1 server. The code for setting up this connection is try { final InitialContext context = new InitialContext(); final String ejbName = GeneratorCancelledRemote.class.getName(); generatorCancelled = (GeneratorCancelledRemote) context.lookup(ejbName); } catch (Throwable t) { System.err.println("--> Could not call server:"); t.printStackTrace(System.err); runWithOutEJB = true; } I'm now testing it without a running server and the client (when run from Eclipse 4.2) just bombs with 31.10.2012 10:40:09 com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl WARNUNG: "IOP00410201: (COMM_FAILURE) Connection failure: socketType: IIOP_CLEAR_TEXT; hostname: localhost; port: 3700" org.omg.CORBA.COMM_FAILURE: vmcid: SUN minor code: 201 completed: No at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.logging.ORBUtilSystemException.connectFailure(ORBUtilSystemException.java:2783) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.logging.ORBUtilSystemException.connectFailure(ORBUtilSystemException.java:2804) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:261) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:274) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelContactInfoImpl.createConnection(SocketOrChannelContactInfoImpl.java:130) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.beginRequest(CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.java:192) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.request(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:184) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.is_a(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:328) at org.omg.CORBA.portable.ObjectImpl._is_a(ObjectImpl.java:112) at org.omg.CosNaming.NamingContextHelper.narrow(NamingContextHelper.java:69) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.narrowProvider(SerialContext.java:134) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getCachedProvider(SerialContext.java:259) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getRemoteProvider(SerialContext.java:204) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getProvider(SerialContext.java:159) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:409) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at com.werkii.latex.generator.Generator.main(Generator.java:344) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at com.sun.enterprise.iiop.IIOPSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(IIOPSSLSocketFactory.java:347) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:244) ... 14 more Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at sun.nio.ch.Net.connect(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.SocketChannelImpl.connect(SocketChannelImpl.java:532) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.orbutil.ORBUtility.openSocketChannel(ORBUtility.java:105) at com.sun.enterprise.iiop.IIOPSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(IIOPSSLSocketFactory.java:332) ... 15 more It's o.k. for now (while I'm still in development) that it bombs, but it does this repeatedly and the catch clause is never reached (even though I'm catching Throwable) - the message is not printed. So how can I handle connection errors during lookup in my program?

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  • AFNetworking PostPath php Parameters are null

    - by Alejandro Escobar
    I am trying to send a username and password from an iOS app using AFNetworking framework to a php script. The iOS app continues to receive status code 401 which I defined to be "not enough parameters". I have tried returning the "username" from the php script to the iOS app and receive . Based on what I've been investigating so far, it seems as though: 1) The php script is not decoding the POST parameters properly 2) The iOS app is not sending the POST parameters properly The following is the iOS function - (IBAction)startLoginProcess:(id)sender { NSString *usernameField = usernameTextField.text; NSString *passwordField = passwordTextField.text; NSDictionary *parameters = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:usernameField, @"username", passwordField, @"password", nil]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost/~alejandroe1790/edella_admin/"]; AFHTTPClient *httpClient = [[AFHTTPClient alloc] initWithBaseURL:url]; [httpClient defaultValueForHeader:@"Accept"]; [httpClient setParameterEncoding:AFJSONParameterEncoding]; [httpClient postPath:@"login.php" parameters:parameters success:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, id response) { NSLog(@"operation hasAcceptableStatusCode: %d", [operation.response statusCode]); } failure:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, NSError *error) { NSLog(@"Error with request"); NSLog(@"%@",[error localizedDescription]); }]; } The following is the php script function checkLogin() { // Check for required parameters if (isset($_POST["username"]) && isset($_POST["password"])) { //Put parameters into local variables $username = $_POST["username"]; $password = $_POST["password"]; $stmt = $this->db->prepare("SELECT Password FROM Admin WHERE Username=?"); $stmt->bind_param('s', $username); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($resultpassword); while ($stmt->fetch()) { break; } $stmt->close(); // Username or password invalid if ($password == $resultpassword) { sendResponse(100, 'Login successful'); return true; } else { sendResponse(400, 'Invalid Username or Password'); return false; } } sendResponse(401, 'Not enough parameters'); return false; } I feel like I may be missing something. Any assistance would be great.

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  • Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

    - by Alex
    I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

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  • Log4j: Issues about the FallbackErrorHandler

    - by rdogpink
    I am working on a client-server-application and wanted to implement a flexible Loggingframework, so I chose log4j, which doesn´t really evolve anymore, but it is still handy framework. Because the Logging happens along the network, i wanted a solution for the case, that the network drive isn´t available, so the Logger has to change its destination file(s). Now I wanted to use the FallbackErrorHandler (configured with a XML-File) from the Log4j-library and the implementation worked: When my network drive isn´t available, it switches to a local Logfile, so no logging should be lost. But I headded two problems since yesterday and couldn´t figure or find out, how to solve it. No return to initial Logging Configuration: When the network drive is on again and the Logger could write to the old destinations, log4j still logs at the local drive and I can´t figure out, how to notify the original (primary) Logger to start again. I also tried to attach a second Appender to the ErrorHandler, which should mirror the failed primary Logger, that it tries to write on the network destination and when the network is on again, it logs in both files, on the local and on the network drive. But unfortunately it didn´t work out, I only got a failure message that the ErrorHandler-content doesn´t fit. log4j:WARN The content of element type "errorHandler" must match "(param*,root-ref?,logger-ref*,appender-ref?)". This is the responsible code. <appender name="TraceAppender" class="org.apache.log4j.DailyRollingFileAppender"> <!-- The second appender-ref "TestAppender" leads to the error. --> <errorHandler class="org.apache.log4j.varia.FallbackErrorHandler"> <logger-ref ref="com.idoh"/> <appender-ref ref="TraceFallbackAppender"/> <appender-ref ref="TestAppender"/> </errorHandler> <param name="datePattern" value=".yyyy-MM-dd" /> <param name="file" value="logs/Trace.txt" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-6r %d{HH:mm:ss,SSS} [%t] %-5p - %m%n"/> </layout> </appender> So, how could I trigger log4j to reset to initial configuration or hold a second appender parallel to the "Local-Logger". My Application should work by itself and shouldn´t have to be restarted often. First Error message is swallowed: I recognized, that the first message, which leads to the switching between the primary logger and the FallbackErrorHandler (for example a logging-request to a readonly-File), is swallowed, so neither the primary logger logs it (because it can´t) nor the backup-Logger knows what it missed. So anybody else ran in this problem and could solve it? Or has any suggestions?

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  • BULK INSERT from one table to another all on the server

    - by steve_d
    I have to copy a bunch of data from one database table into another. I can't use SELECT ... INTO because one of the columns is an identity column. Also, I have some changes to make to the schema. I was able to use the export data wizard to create an SSIS package, which I then edited in Visual Studio 2005 to make the changes desired and whatnot. It's certainly faster than an INSERT INTO, but it seems silly to me to download the data to a different computer just to upload it back again. (Assuming that I am correct that that's what the SSIS package is doing). Is there an equivalent to BULK INSERT that runs directly on the server, allows keeping identity values, and pulls data from a table? (as far as I can tell, BULK INSERT can only pull data from a file) Edit: I do know about IDENTITY_INSERT, but because there is a fair amount of data involved, INSERT INTO ... SELECT is kinda of slow. SSIS/BULK INSERT dumps the data into the table without regards to indexes and logging and whatnot, so it's faster. (Of course creating the clustered index on the table once it's populated is not fast, but it's still faster than the INSERT INTO...SELECT that I tried in my first attempt) Edit 2: The schema changes include (but are not limited to) the following: 1. Splitting one table into two new tables. In the future each will have its own IDENTITY column, but for the migration I think it will be simplest to use the identity from the original table as the identity for the both new tables. Once the migration is over one of the tables will have a one-to-many relationship to the other. 2. Moving columns from one table to another. 3. Deleting some cross reference tables that only cross referenced 1-to-1. Instead the reference will be a foreign key in one of the two tables. 4. Some new columns will be created with default values. 5. Some tables aren’t changing at all, but I have to copy them over due to the "put it all in a new DB" request.

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  • How do I pass the value of the previous form element into an "onchange" javascript function?

    - by Jen
    Hello, I want to make some UI improvements to a page I am developing. Specifically, I need to add another drop down menu to allow the user to filter results. This is my current code: HTML file: <select name="test_id" onchange="showGrid(this.name, this.value, 'gettestgrid')"> <option selected>Select a test--></option> <option value=1>Test 1</option> <option value=2>Test 2</option> <option value=3>Test 3</option> </select> This is pseudo code for what I want to happen: <select name="test_id"> <option selected>Select a test--></option> <option value=1>Test 1</option> <option value=2>Test 2</option> <option value=3>Test 3</option> </select> <select name="statistics" onchange="showGrid(PREVIOUS.name, PREVIOUS.VALUE, THIS.value)"> <option selected>Select a data display --></option> <option value='gettestgrid'>Show averages by student</option> <option value='gethomeroomgrid'>Show averages by homeroom</option> <option value='getschoolgrid'>Show averages by school</option> </select> How do I access the previous field's name and value? Any help much appreciated, thx! Also, JS function for reference: function showGrid(name, value, phpfile) { xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp==null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url=phpfile+".php"; url=url+"?"+name+"="+value; url=url+"&sid="+Math.random(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); }

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  • JSP to Bean to Java class Validation

    - by littlevahn
    I have a rather simple form in JSP that looks like this: <form action="response.jsp" method="POST"> <label>First Name:</label><input type="text" name="firstName" /><br> <label>Last Name:</label><input type="text" name="lastName" /><br> <label>Email:</label><input type="text" name="email" /><br> <label>Re-enter Email:</label><input type="text" name="emailRe" /><br> <label>Address:</label><input type="text" name="address" /><br> <label>Address 2:</label><input type="text" name="address2" /><br> <label>City:</label><input type="text" name="city" /><br> <label>Country:</label> <select name="country"> <option value="0">--Country--</option> <option value="1">United States</option> <option value="2">Canada</option> <option value="3">Mexico</option> </select><br> <label>Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phone" /><br> <label>Alt Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phoneAlt" /><br> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> But when I try and access the value of the select box in my Java class I get null. Ive tried reading it in as a String and an Array of strings neither though seems to be grabbing the right value. The response.jsp looks like this: <%@ page language="java" %> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%! %> <jsp:useBean id="formHandler" class="validation.RegHandler" scope="request"> <jsp:setProperty name="formHandler" property="*" /> </jsp:useBean> <% if (formHandler.validate()) { %> <jsp:forward page="success.jsp"/> <% } else { %> <jsp:forward page="retryReg.jsp"/> <% } %> I already have Java script validation in place but I wanted to make sure I covered validation and checking for non-JS users. The RegHandler just uses the name field to refer to the value in the form. Any Idea how I could access the select box's value?

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  • How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

    - by scott jarvis
    I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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  • Hibernate @Transactional not starting transaction

    - by rhinds
    I have a web app using Hibernate, and I am attempting to persist some data, but it is failing to persist within a Transaction despite using the @Transactional annotation. My service class is as follows: @Service("profileService") public class ProfileService { private EntityManager entityManager; @Autowired private AccountService accountService; @Autowired private ProfileDAOImpl profileDao; @PersistenceContext public void setEntityManager(EntityManager em) { this.entityManager = em; } @Transactional public void addConnectionToAccount(SocialConnection sc) { entityManager.persist(sc); } } The addConnectionToAccount() method is being called from another Spring bean in a normal method, and the ProfileService class is currently being injected there: public class HibernateConnectionRepository implements ConnectionRepository { @Inject private ProfileService profileService; @Override @Transactional public void addConnection(SocialConnection sc) { try { profileService.addConnectionToAccount(accountId, sc); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I tried putting the @Transactional annotation on the calling method in the vain hope that it might make a difference but nothing. Previously I have experienced problems like this its been because the object being persisted does not satisfy table restrictions (such as non-nullable columns as null) or because the method is being called from within the same class and the calling method is not Transactional, but neither of those are the case here.. Any ideas? it just fails silently, the logs are as follows: 2012-03-26 22:25:04,702 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,710 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - select SEQ_COUNT from SEQUENCE where SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' for update 2012-03-26 22:25:04,711 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - update SEQUENCE set SEQ_COUNT = ? where SEQ_COUNT = ? and SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.event.internal.AbstractSaveEventListener - Generated identifier: 2200, using strategy: org.hibernate.id.MultipleHiLoPerTableGenerator UPDATE Also wanted to mention that the HibernateConnectionRepository bean is not annotated and is actually being configured in an @Configuration class (if this makes any difference? not used @Configuration classes much). The method to create the bean is as follows: @Bean @Scope(value = "request", proxyMode = ScopedProxyMode.INTERFACES) public ConnectionRepository connectionRepository() { Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); if (authentication == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Unable to get a ConnectionRepository: no user signed in"); } ApplicationUser user = (ApplicationUser) authentication.getPrincipal(); return usersConnectionRepository().createConnectionRepository(String.valueOf(user.getAccountId())); } The bean is scoped to the logged in user, but may also be created multiple times for each user..

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  • displaying data from database in to text box

    - by srinayak
    I have 2 JSP pages as below: projectcategory.jsp <% Connection con = DbConnect.connect(); Statement s = con.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = s.executeQuery("select * from projectcategory"); %> <DIV class="TabbedPanelsContent" align="center"> <TABLE border="1"> <TR> <TH>CATEGORY ID</TH> <TH>CATEGORY NAME</TH> <TH>Edit/Update</TH> </TR> <% while (rs.next()) { %> <%String p=rs.getString(1);%> <TR> <TD><%=rs.getString(1)%></TD> <TD><%=rs.getString(2)%></TD> <TD> <FORM action="EditPcat.jsp?pcatid=p"><INPUT type="submit" value='edit/update'></INPUT> </FORM> </TD> </TR> <% } %> </TABLE> </DIV> another is Editpcat.jsp: </head> <body> <%String s=request.getParameter("p"); %> <form action="ProjCatServlet" method="post"> <div align="right"><a href="projectcategory.jsp">view</a></div> <fieldset> <legend>Edit category</legend> <table cellspacing="2" cellpadding="2" border="0"> <tr> <td align="left">Category Id</td> <td><input type="text" name="pcatid" value="<%=s%>" ></td> </tr> <tr> <td align="right">Category Name</td> <td><input type="text" name="pcatname"></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="submit" value="submit"></td> </tr> </table> <input type="hidden" name="FUNCTION_ID" value="UPDATE"> </fieldset> </form> How to display value from one JSP page which we get from database in to text box of another JSP?

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • jQuery ajax multiline "script" response

    - by Rendrik
    I'm designing a template creation tool, which uses a jQuery Ajax request that posts parameters to a PHP file. The PHP does the actual generation of the template's HTML. // Send for processing. Expect JS back to execute. function generate() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "generate.php", data: $('#genform :input').serialize(), dataType: "script", beforeSend: function() { $("#loading").html("<img src='images/loadbar.gif' />"); $("#loading") .dialog({ height: 80, width: 256, autoOpen: true, modal: true }); }, success: function(data) { $("#loading").dialog('close'); } }); } My trouble is that I have the ajax dataType: set to "script". Using this, the PHP file generates some jQuery dialogs for any errors which works nicely. However, after I generate the HTML, i'm having trouble passing it back. So I have probably 100 lines of generated HTML and javascript which i'd like to work with. In the PHP file, i've tried: echo('$("#result").html("'.$html.'");'); This does actually work if there are NO line breaks in $html. As soon as there are any line breaks, the Chrome debugger reports "gen.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL". It's obvious that it's trying to eval the returned response headers, but is stopping at any line break. So, to be clear, when I pass $html back, if the contents are this: $html = "<div>hi there</div>"; It works fine (all of my error message dialogs are one line). But if it's: $html = "<div> hi there </div>"; It blows up. I'm really not sure how to get around this, or if there's a better way to go about it. It's important to me to keep the formatting so people can copy the HTML template. I may just break down and display the template file on the PHP page if I can't solve this, but I was really hoping to keep everything within the confines of the HTML page.

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