Search Results

Search found 34893 results on 1396 pages for 'const method'.

Page 576/1396 | < Previous Page | 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583  | Next Page >

  • jQuery plugin design pattern for using `this` in private methods?

    - by thebossman
    I'm creating jQuery plugins using the pattern from the Plugins Authoring page: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { // element-specific code here }); return this; }; })(jQuery); My code calls for several private methods that manipulate this. I am calling these private methods using the apply(this, arguments) pattern. Is there a way of designing my plugin such that I don't have to call apply to pass this from method to method? My modified plugin code looks roughly like this: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { method1.apply(this); }); return this; }; function method1() { // do stuff with $(this) method2.apply(this); } function method2() { // do stuff with $(this), etc... } })(jQuery);

    Read the article

  • Getting rejected value null spring validation

    - by Shabarinath
    Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

  • Passing HTML form data in the URL on local machine (file://)

    - by atzz
    Hi, I'm building a small HTML/JS application for primary use on local machine (i.e. everything is accessed via file:// protocol, though maybe in the future it will be hosted on a server within intranet). I'm trying to make a form with method="get" and action="target.html", in the hope that the browser will put form data in the URL (like, file://<path>/target.html?param1=aaa&param2=bbb). However, it's not happening (target.html opens fine, but no parameters is passed). What am I doing wrong? Is it possible to use forms over file:// at all? I can always build the url manually (via JS), but being lazy I'd prefer the browser do it for me. ;) Here is my sample form: <form name='config' action="test_form.html" method="get" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded"> <input type="text" name="param1"> <input type="text" name="param2"> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

    Read the article

  • Prevent event from parent element to child element in jquery

    - by sonam
    I have binded event as below: $(document).delegate('.budget', 'click', function(e){ if ($(this).hasClass('collapsed')) { $(this).removeClass('collapsed'); $(this).addClass('expanded'); } else if ($(this).hasClass('expanded')) { $(this).removeClass('expanded'); $(this).addClass('collapsed'); } }); Basically this toggles between expand and collapse. I have another event binded as below: $('[id^="tree"]').delegate('.collapsed', 'click', function(e){ var elementId = $(this).attr('id'); hideChildElement(elementId); }); The elements binded by the second event binding are parents of elements binded by first event binding. What happens is that on clicking on the element from the first binding event method also triggers the event binded by second event binding. I want to prevent any events from binding from second event binding to 1st event binding method. If element A is binded to click event from first event binding and B is binded to second event binding (A is inside B or A is child of B), I dont want any event of B to propagate to A. Note I tried e.stopImmediatePropagation(); but did not worked

    Read the article

  • How to find out style of NSUserNotification during run-time? Or force close an alert?

    - by Dmitri Shuralyov
    According to "OS X Mountain Lion Release Notes" (https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/#releasenotes/Cocoa/Foundation.html), "The user has ultimate control over what notifications are displayed, and the style (banner, alert, etc). There is no mechanism to override the user preferences." Even though all I want to do is "downgrade" from alert style to banner style... Fine. But can I at least find out whether a notification is of alert or banner style inside the didActivateNotification method? The reason I want to do that is to respond differently according to notification.activationType. When the alert is a banner (which is what I want), clicking its contents is the only possible action, and this both triggers didActivateNotification method and closes the notification banner. When the user chooses alert-style notifications, clicking the alert contents also generates didActivateNotification with the same value of notification.activationType, but it stays on screen instead of going away (it only goes away when the Action button is pressed). I don't want my app to trigger an action repeatedly for the same alert notification, in case the user clicks the content area of an alert notification. An alternative solution would be to force the alert notification bubble to dismiss when the user clicks its contents. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Android - update widget text

    - by david
    Hi, i have 2 questions about widgets update I have 2 buttons and i need to change one button text when i press the other one, how can i do this? The first time i open the widget it calls the onUpdate method, but it never calls it again. I need to update the widget every 2 seconds and i have this line in the xml. android:updatePeriodMillis="2000" Do i need a service or should it works just with the updatePeriodMillis tag? onUpdate method RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.newswidget); Intent intent = new Intent(context, DetalleConsulta.class); intent.putExtra(DetalleConsulta.CONSULTA_ID_NAME, "3"); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, intent, 0); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.btNews, pendingIntent); /* Inicializa variables para llamar el controlador */ this.imei = ((TelephonyManager)context.getSystemService(Context.TELEPHONY_SERVICE)).getDeviceId(); this.controlador = new Controlador(this.imei); try { this.respuestas = this.controlador.recuperarNuevasRespuestas(); if(this.respuestas != null &amp;&amp; this.respuestas.size() &gt; 0){ Iterator&lt;Consulta&gt; iterRespuestas = this.respuestas.iterator(); views.setTextViewText(R.id.btNews, ((Consulta)iterRespuestas.next()).getRespuesta()); } } catch (PersistenciaException e) { //TODO manejar error } appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetIds, views); thx a lot!!!

    Read the article

  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

    Read the article

  • $_POST Variable Detected in Chrome but not in Firefox

    - by user1707973
    I am using 2 images in a form to sort out query results from the database. The form is submitted using the POST method. When i click on the first image, the query results have to be sorted in ascending order, and when i click on the second, the results have to be sorted in the descending order. This is the code for the form: <form name="" action="" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="typep" value="price" /> <input type="image" name="sort" value="asc" src="images/asc-ar.png" /> <input type="image" name="sort" value="desc" src="images/dsc-ar.png" /> </form> Now this is the code for checking if the $_REQUEST['sort'] variable is set and therefore whether sorting is required or not. if ($_REQUEST['sort'] != "") { $sort = $_REQUEST['sort']; $typep = $_REQUEST['typep']; //query to be executed depending on values of $sort and $typep } Firefox does detect the $_REQUEST['typep'] variable but not the $_REQUEST['sort'] one. This works perfectly in Chrome though. When i test the site in Firefox, it doesn't detect the $_REQUEST['sort'] variable and therefore the if condition evaluates to false and the search results don't get sorted.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 caching issue?

    - by DavidS
    I am currently experiencing a weird caching problem it would seem. When I load my data intially, I return all the data within given dates and my graph looks as follows: Then I filter the data to return a subset of the original data for the same date range (not that it matters) and I get the following view of my data: However, I intermittently get the following when I refresh the same filterd view of the data: One can see that not all the data gets cached but only some of it i.e. for 12 Dec 2010 and 5 dec 2010(not shown here). I've looked at my queries and the correct data is getting pulled out. It is only on the presentation layer i.e. on Mainpage.xaml.cs that this erroneous data seems to exist. I've stepped through the code and the data is corect through all the layers except on the presentation layer. Has anyone experienced this before? Is there some sort of caching going in the background that is keeping that data in the background as I've got browser caching off? I am using the LoadOperation in the callback method within the Load method of the DomainContext if that helps...

    Read the article

  • Reporting Services Sum of Inner Group in Outer Group

    - by Spoonybard
    I have a report in Reporting Services 2008 using ASP.net 3.5 and SQL Server 2008. The report has 2 groupings and a detail row. This is the current format: Outer Group Inner Group Detail Row The Detail Row represents an item on a receipt and a receipt can have multiple items. Each receipt was paid with a certain payment method. So the Outer Group is grouped by payment type, the Inner Group is grouped by the receipt's ID, and the Detail Row is each item for the given receipt. My raw data result set has two important columns: The Amount Received and the Amount Applied. The Amount Received is how much money in total was collected for all the items on the receipt. The Amount Applied is how much money each item got from the total Amount Received. Sample Result Set: ReceiptID Item ItemID AmountReceived AmountApplied Payment Method ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 1 Book 1 $200.00 $40.00 Cash 1 CD 2 $200.00 $20.00 Cash 1 Software 3 $200.00 $100.00 Cash 1 Backpack 4 $200.00 $40.00 Cash The Inner Group displays the AmountReceived correctly as $200. However, the Outer Group displays the AmountReceived as $800, because I believe that it is going off each detail row which in this case is a count of 4 items. What I want is to see in the Outer Group that the Amount Received is $200. I tried restricting the scope in my SUM function to be the Inner Group, but I get the error "The scope parameter must be set to a string constant that is equal to either the name of a containing group, the name of a containing data region, or the name of a dataset." Does anyone have any suggestions on how to solve this issue? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Need help implementing this algorithm with map reduce(hadoop)

    - by Julia
    Hi all! i have algorithm that will go through a large data set read some text files and search for specific terms in those lines. I have it implemented in Java, but I didnt want to post code so that it doesnt look i am searching for someone to implement it for me, but it is true i really need a lot of help!!! This was not planned for my project, but data set turned out to be huge, so teacher told me I have to do it like this. I was reading about MapReduce and thaught that i first do the standard implementation and then it will be more/less easier to do it with mapreduce. But didnt happen, since algorithm is quite stupid and nothing special, and map reduce...i cant wrap my mind around it. So here is shortly pseudo code of my algorithm LIST termList (there is method that creates this list from lucene index) FOLDER topFolder INPUT topFolder IF it is folder and not empty list files (there are 30 sub folders inside) FOR EACH sub folder GET file "CheckedFile.txt" analyze(CheckedFile) ENDFOR END IF Method ANALYZE(CheckedFile) read CheckedFile WHILE CheckedFile has next line GET line FOR(loops through termList) GET third word from line IF third word = term from list append whole line to string buffer ENDIF ENDFOR END WHILE OUTPUT string buffer to file Also, as you can see, each time when "analyze" is called, new file has to be created, i understood that map reduce is difficult to write to many outputs??? I understand mapreduce intuition, and my example seems perfectly suited for mapreduce, but when it comes to do this, obviously I do not know enough and i am STUCK! Please please help.

    Read the article

  • C# XML Documentation Compiler Warning

    - by ImperialLion
    I am curious as to why I get a compiler warning in the following situation. /// <summary>This is class A /// </summary> public class A { /// <summary>This is the documentation for Method A /// </summary> public void MethodA() { //Do something } } /// <summary>This is class B /// </summary> public class B : A { /// <summary>This does something that I want to /// reference <see cref="MethodA"/> /// </summary> public void MethodB() { //Do something } } The warning states that "XML comment on 'B.MethodB()' has cref attribute 'MethodA' that could not be resolved." If B inherits from A shouldn't the compiler be able to see that method when generating the documentation without me specifying the parent class in the cref? If I change the cref to be cref="A.MethodA()" it works fine, but it seems like that's unnecessary and is a pain to do, especially if I have to go up more than one level. As a note to anyone testing this you have to be sure to "XML documentation file" checked in the Properties - Build in order to see the warning.

    Read the article

  • jquery pagination plugin doesn't quite work right for me...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    My page has the following jquery statements, <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); }); </script> It works fine but how to add callback function to my pagination( callback://)? function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".pager").pagination(strarr[1], { // callback function call to this method current_page: curPage-1, items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); } }); } On the initial page load i get all divs with page numbers generated but when i click the next page number nothing happens because callback is not configured....Because my callback function has to call the same method with the current anchor tag which is clicked... Any suggestion how to get this done.......

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to make sure classes implementing an Interface implement static methods?

    - by Tobias Kienzler
    Frist of all, I read erickson's usefull reply to "Why can’t I define a static method in a Java interface?". This question is not about the "why" but about the "how then?". So basically I want one Interface to provide both usual methods and e.g. a getSimilarObject method. For (a made up) example public interface ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) using the parameters */ static abstract public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters); /** @return The function's name */ static abstract public String getName(); } and then public class Parabola implements ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) = parameters[0] * x² + parameters[1] * x + parameters[2] */ static public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters) { return ( parameters[2] + x*(parameters[1] + x*parameters[0])); } static public String getName() { return "Parabola"; } } Since this is not allowed in the current Java standard, what is the closest thing to this? The idea behind this is putting several ParametricFunction's in a package and use Reflection to list them all, allowing the user to pick e.g. which one to plot. Obviously one could provide a loader class containing an array of the available ParametricFunction's, but every time a new one is implemented one has to remember adding it there, too.

    Read the article

  • Why is it possible to enumerate a LinqToSql query after calling Dispose() on the DataContext?

    - by DanM
    I'm using the Repository Pattern with some LinqToSql objects. My repository objects all implement IDisposable, and the Dispose() method does only thing--calls Dispose() on the DataContext. Whenever I use a repository, I wrap it in a using person, like this: public IEnumerable<Person> SelectPersons() { using (var repository = _repositorySource.GetNew<Person>(dc => dc.Person)) { return repository.GetAll(); } } This method returns an IEnumerable<Person>, so if my understanding is correct, no querying of the database actually takes place until Enumerable<Person> is traversed (e.g., by converting it to a list or array or by using it in a foreach loop), as in this example: var persons = gateway.SelectPersons(); // Dispose() is fired here var personViewModels = ( from b in persons select new PersonViewModel { Id = b.Id, Name = b.Name, Age = b.Age, OrdersCount = b.Order.Count() }).ToList(); // executes queries In this example, Dispose() gets called immediately after setting persons, which is an IEnumerable<Person>, and that's the only time it gets called. So, a couple questions: How does this work? How can a disposed DataContext still query the database for results when I walk the IEnumerable<Person>? What does Dispose() actually do? I've heard that it is not necessary (e.g., see this question) to dispose of a DataContext, but my impression was that it's not a bad idea. Is there any reason not to dispose of it?

    Read the article

  • populating an nsarray

    - by MoKaM
    I intend to make a program that does the following: Create an NSArray populated with numbers from 1 to 100,000. Loop over some code that deletes certain elements of the NSArray when certain conditions are met. Store the resultant NSArray. However the above steps will also be looped over many times and so I need a fast way of making this NSArray that has 100,000 number elements. So what is the fastest way of doing it? Is there an alternative to iteratively populating an Array using a for loop? Such as an NSArray method that could do this quickly for me? Or perhaps I could make the NSArray with the 100,000 numbers by any means the first time. And then create every new NSArray (for step 1) by using method arraywithArray? (is it quicker way of doing it?) Or perhaps you have something completely different in mind that will achieve what I want. edit: Replace NSArray with NSMutableArray in this post.

    Read the article

  • passing xml to a webservice

    - by Neale
    I have a simple web service that will have one method: DoTransactions(xlm) Now the reason that i am using XML as a parameter is due to the fact that the parameters will often change. So for example it could be: <payload> <userId>1234</userid> <partnerId>ptn654</partnerId> </payload> OR <payload> <partnerId>ptn654</partnerId> <items> <item1> <cost>10</cost> <description>This is item 1</description> </item1> </items> </payload> As you can see the XML string will always change (this is due to a client request) Would it be better to rather pass in a string and parse the XML in the method or should is there a better way to do it. This web service will be used for varios different code languages.

    Read the article

  • How to queue and call actual methods (rather than immediately eval) in java?

    - by alleywayjack
    There are a list of tasks that are time sensitive (but "time" in this case is arbitrary to what another program tells me - it's more like "ticks" rather than time). However, I do NOT want said methods to evaluate immediately. I want one to execute after the other finished. I'm using a linked list for my queue, but I'm not really sure how/if I can access the actual methods in a class without evaluating them immediate. The code would look something like... LinkedList<Method> l = new LinkedList<Method>(); l.add( this.move(4) ); l.add( this.read() ); l.removeFirst().call(); //wait 80 ticks l.removeFirst().call(); move(4) would execute immediately, then 80 ticks later, I would remove it from the list and call this.read() which would then be executed. I'm assuming this has to do with the reflection classes, and I've poked around a bit, but I can't seem to get anything to work, or do what I want. If only I could use pointers...

    Read the article

  • Jquery plugin seems to leak memory no matter what I do

    - by ddombrow
    I've recently been tasked with ferreting out some memory leaks in an application for my work. I've narrowed down one of the big leaks to a jquery plugin. It appears we're using a modified version of a popular context menu jquery plugin. It looks like one of the developers before me attempted to add a destroy method. I noticed it wasn't very well written and attempted to rewrite. Here's the meat of my destroy method: if (menu.childMenus) { for (var i = 0; i < menu.childMenus.length; i++) { $(menu.childMenus[i]).destroy(menu.childMenus[i], 'contextmenu'); } } var recursiveUnbind = function(node) { $(node).unbind(); //$(node).empty().remove(); $.each(node, function(obj) { recursiveUnbind(obj); }); }; $.each(menu, function() { recursiveUnbind(menu); }); $(menu).empty().remove(); In my mind this code should blow away all the jquery event binding and remove the dom elements, yet still the plugin leaks gobs of memory in IE7. The modified plugin with a test page can be found here: http://www.olduglyhead.com/jquery/leaks/ Clicking the button repeatedly will cause IE7 to leak a bunch of memory.

    Read the article

  • Generics Java and Shadowing of type parameters

    - by rubixibuc
    This code seems to work fine class Rule<T> { public <T>Rule(T t) { } public <T> void Foo(T t) { } } Does the method type parameter shadow the class type parameter? Also when you create an object does it use the type parameter of the class? example Rule<String> r = new Rule<String>(); Does this normally apply to the type parameter of the class, in the situation where they do not conflict? I mean when only the class has a type parameter, not the constructor, or does this look for a type parameter in the constructor? If they do conflict how does this change? SEE DISCUSSION BELOW if I have a function call x = <Type Parameter>method(); // this is a syntax error even inside the function or class ; I must place a this before it, why is this, and does everything still hold true. Why don't I need to prefix anything for the constructor call. Shouldn't Oracle fix this.

    Read the article

  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

    Read the article

  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

    Read the article

  • Question about singleton property

    - by Jack
    I'm reading the java tutorial for enums located here and have a question: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/enums.html#Card The part i'm confused about is as follows: "The Card class, above, contains a static factory that returns a deck, but there is no way to get an individual card from its rank and suit. Merely exposing the constructor would destroy the singleton property (that only a single instance of each card is allowed to exist). Here is how to write a static factory that preserves the singleton property, using a nested EnumMap: " Now as I understand, changing the original private "Card" constructor to public would allow us to instantiate an unlimited number of copies of a "Card" object with a given suit+rank. The solution as proposed was to create an EnumMap which would store four Maps (one for each suit), which themselves contained 13 Card objects with the rank as their keys. And so now if you wanted to retrieve a specific Card object from the deck, you would just call the "valueOf" method. My question now is, what's the prevent you with calling the valueOf method as many times as you like? Wouldn't that lead to the same problem as making the original private constructor public? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Display TableViews corresponding to segmentedControl in a single tableview without pushing a new view

    - by user1727927
    I have a tableViewController where I have used the Interface Builder to insert a Segmented Controller having two segments. Since by default, first segment is always selected, I am not facing any problem in displaying the tableview corresponding to first segment. However, when I click on the second segment, I want to display another tableView. Here goes the problem. I am calling newTableViewController class on clicking the second segment. Hence, this view is getting pushed instead. Please suggest me a method to have these two tableViews in the main tableView upon clicking the segments. I have used switch case for switching between the segments. Here's the relevant part of the code: This method is in the FirstTableViewController since first segment is by default selected. -(IBAction) segmentedControlChanged { switch(segmentedControl.selectedSegmnentIndex) { case 0: //default first index selected. [tableView setHidden:NO]; break; case 1: NewViewController *controller=[[NewViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"NewViewController" bundle:nil]; self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; break; default: break; } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583  | Next Page >