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  • Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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  • wx_ref and custom wx_object's

    - by Iogann
    Hi! I am developing MDI application with help of wxErlang. I have a parent frame, implemented as wx_object: -module(main_frame). -export([new/0, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -behaviour(wx_object). .... And I have a child frame, implemented as wx_object too: module(child_frame). -export([new/2, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -export([save/1]). -behaviour(wx_object). % some public API method save(Frame) -> wx_object:call(Frame, save). .... I want to call save/1 for an active child frame from the parent frame. There is my code: ActiveChild = wxMDIParentFrame:getActiveChild(Frame), case wx:is_null(ActiveChild) of false - child_frame:save(ActiveChild); _ - ignore end This code fails because ActiveChild is #wx_ref{} with state=[], but wx_object:call/2 needs #wx_ref{} where state is set to the pid of the process which we call. What is the right method to do this? I thought only to store a list of all created child frames with its pids in the parent frame and search the pid in this list, but this is ugly.

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  • Java Generics error when implementing Hibernate message interpolator

    - by Jayaprakash
    Framework: Spring, Hibernate. O/S: Windows I am trying to implement hibernate's Custom message interpolator following the direction of this Link. When implementing the below class, it gives an error "Cannot make a static reference to the non-static type Locale". public class ClientLocaleThreadLocal<Locale> { private static ThreadLocal tLocal = new ThreadLocal(); public static void set(Locale locale) { tLocal.set(locale); } public static Locale get() { return tLocal.get(); } public static void remove() { tLocal.remove(); } } As I do not know generics enough, not sure how is being used by TimeFilter class below and the purpose of definition in the above class. public class TimerFilter implements Filter { public void destroy() { } public void doFilter(ServletRequest req, ServletResponse res, FilterChain filterChain) throws IOException, ServletException { try { ClientLocaleThreadLocal.set(req.getLocale()); filterChain.doFilter(req, res); }finally { ClientLocaleThreadLocal.remove(); } } public void init(FilterConfig arg0) throws ServletException { } } Will doing the following be okay? Change static method/field in ClientLocaleThreadLocal to non-static method/fields In TimeFilter, set locale by instantiating new object as below. new ClientLocaleThreadLocal().set(req.getLocale()) Thanks for your help in advance

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  • DRY jQuery for RESTful PUT/DELETE links

    - by Aupajo
    I'm putting together PUT/DELETE links, a la Rails, which when clicked create a POST form with an hidden input labelled _method that sends the intended request type. I want to make it DRYer, but my jQuery knowledge isn't up to it. HTML: <a href="/articles/1" class="delete">Destroy Article 1</a> <a href="/articles/1/publish" class="put">Publish Article 1</a> jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('.delete').click(function() { if(confirm('Are you sure?')) { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="DELETE" />')); $(f).submit(); } return false; }); $('.put').click(function() { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="PUT" />')); $(f).submit(); return false; }); });

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  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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  • Devise password reset issue (new_user?)

    - by rabid_zombie
    When a user's email is inputted into the forgot password form and submitted, I am receiving an error saying login can't be blank. I looked around devise.en.yml for this error message, but can't seem to find it anywhere. Here is my views/devise/passwords/new.html.haml: %div.registration_page %h2 Forgot your password? = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => user_password_path, :html => { :method => :post, :id => 'forgot_pw_form', :class => 'forgot_pw' }) do |f| %div = f.email_field :email, :placeholder => 'Email', :autofocus => true, :autocomplete => 'off' %div.email_error.error %input.btn.btn-success{:type => 'submit', :value => 'Send Instructions'} = render "devise/shared/links" The form is posting to users/password like it should, but I noticed that my forgot password form attaches class = 'new_user'. Here is what my form displays: <form accept-charset='UTF-8' action='/users/password' class='new_user' id='forgot_pw_form' method='post' novalidate='novalidate'></form> My routes for devise (I have custom sessions and registrations controllers): devise_for :users, :controllers => {:sessions => 'sessions', :registrations => 'registrations'} How can I setup devise's forgot password functionality? Why am I receiving this error message and why is that class being added there? I've tried: Adding my own passwords controller and adding new routes for my custom controller. Same error Adding my own class and id to the form. This successfully changes the id and class of the form, but reverts back to class and id of new_user Thanks.

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  • Same random numbers from instantiated class

    - by user1797202
    I'm learning C# and created a class within my program that holds a random number generator: class RandomNumberGenerator { Random RNG = new Random(); // A bunch of methods that use random numbers are in here } Inside this class are a few methods that use the RNG. Data gets sent here from other parts of the program, gets processed, then gets returned. One of the methods does the following: // Method works something like this int Value1 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value2 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value3 = RNG.Next(x, y); The x, y values are to be sent here from another class. So, I have to create an instance of the RandomNumberGenerator within that class so I can call its methods and pass the x and y values to it. class DoStuff { RandomNumberGenerator Randomizer = new RandomNumberGenerator // Here I call a bunch of Randomizer methods that give me values I need } The problem in the above method is that I get the same numbers every time for all three values. I'm not sure if it's because they're so close together and Randomizer's seed value hasn't had time to change or if I'm doing something wrong when I create a new instance of the RandomNumberGenerator class. I've gone through a bunch of answers on here already and typically problems like this are due to people creating many new Random objects when they run methods (thus setting the seed for all of them to the same value), but the only new Random object I create is within the RandomNumberGenerator class. I then instantiate that once within the other class so I can pass it data and use its methods. Why is this happening and how would I fix this?

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  • Django Save Incomplete Progress on Form

    - by jimbob
    I have a django webapp with multiple users logging in and fill in a form. Some users may start filling in a form and lack some required data (e.g., a grant #) needed to validate the form (and before we can start working on it). I want them to be able to fill out the form and have an option to save the partial info (so another day they can log back in and complete it) or submit the full info undergoing validation. Currently I'm using ModelForm for all the forms I use, and the Model has constraints to ensure valid data (e.g., the grant # has to be unique). However, I want them to be able to save this intermediary data without undergoing any validation. The solution I've thought of seems rather inelegant and un-django-ey: create a "Save Partial Form" button that saves the POST dictionary converts it to a shelf file and create a "SavedPartialForm" model connecting the user to partial forms saved in the shelf. Does this seem sensible? Is there a better way to save the POST dict directly into the db? Or is an add-on module that does this partial-save of a form (which seems to be a fairly common activity with webforms)? My biggest concern with my method is I want to eventually be able to do this form-autosave automatically (say every 10 minutes) in some ajax/jquery method without actually pressing a button and sending the POST request (e.g., so the user isn't redirected off the page when autosave is triggered). I'm not that familiar with jquery and am wondering if it would be possible to do this.

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  • Multiple forms + HAML + jQuery + Javascript submit

    - by Jay Godse
    Hi. I have a HAML page that lists some links to delete "things" that looks like this %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 1 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_1', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'1'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 22 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_22', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'22'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} The intention is to have a link "Delete XX" which will delete something specific. A page could have a number of these links, and each link is for a specific "thing". I also have a piece of (unobtrusive) jQuery javascript that adds a click handler to each form as follows: $('a.form_submit').click(function(event) { $('form').submit(); event.preventDefauilt(); }); This works when there is one form on a page. However, if I have more than one form on a page, how do I ensure that clicking "Delete Thing 1" will trigger a submit() event only on the form with id='comment_1'?

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  • Job queueing and execute Mechanism

    - by Calm Storm
    In my webservice all method calls submits jobs to a queue. Basically these operations take long time to execute, so all these operations submit a Job to a queue and return a status saying "Submitted". Then the client keeps polling using another service method to check for the status of the job. Presently, what I do is create my own Queue, Job classes that are Serializable and persist these jobs (i.e, their serialized byte stream format) into the database. So an UpdateLogistics operation just queues up a "UpdateLogisticsJob" to the queue and returns. I have written my own JobExecutor which wakes up every N seconds, scans the database table for any existing jobs, and executes them. Note the jobs have to persisted because these jobs have to survive app-server crashes. This was done a long time ago, and I used bespoke classes for my Queues, Jobs, Executors etc. But now, I would like to know has someone done something similar before? In particular, Are there frameworks available for this ? Something in Spring/Apache etc Any framework that is easy to adapt/debug and plays well along with libraries like Spring will be great.

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • Error in Android's clearCheck() for RadioGroup?

    - by Manuel R. Ciosici
    I'm having an issue with RadioGroup's clearChecked(). I'm displaying a multiple choice question to the user and after the user selects an answer I check the answer, give him some feedback and then move to the next question. In the process of moving to the next question I clearCheck on the RadioGroup. Can anyone explain to me why the onCheckedChanged method is called 3 times? Once when the change actually occurs (with the user changes), once when I clearCheck(with -1 as the selected id) and once in between (with the user changes again)? As far as I could tell the second trigger is provoked by clearCheck. Code below: private void checkAnswer(RadioGroup group, int checkedId){ // this makes sure it doesn't blow up when the check is cleared // also we don't check the answer when there is no answer if (checkedId == -1) return; if (group.getCheckedRadioButtonId() == -1) return; // check if correct answer if (checkedId == validAnswerId){ score++; this.giveFeedBack(feedBackType.GOOD); } else { this.giveFeedBack(feedBackType.BAD); } // allow for user to see feedback and move to next question h.postDelayed(this, 800); } private void changeToQuestion(int questionNumber){ if (questionNumber >= this.questionSet.size()){ // means we are past the question set // we're going to the score activity this.goToScoreActivity(); return; } //clearing the check gr.clearCheck(); // give change the feedback back to question imgFeedback.setImageResource(R.drawable.question_mark); //OTHER CODE HERE } and the run method looks like this public void run() { questionNumber++; changeToQuestion(questionNumber); }

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  • MemoryStream instance timing help

    - by rod
    Hi All, Is it ok to instance a MemoryStream at the top of my method, do a bunch of stuff to it, and then use it? For instance: public static byte[] TestCode() { MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream(); ... ... whole bunch of stuff in between ... ... //finally using(m) { return m.ToArray(); } } Updated code public static byte[] GetSamplePDF() { using (MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream()) { Document document = new Document(); PdfWriter.GetInstance(document, m); document.Open(); PopulateTheDocument(document); document.Close(); return m.ToArray(); } } private static void PopulateTheDocument(Document document) { Table aTable = new Table(2, 2); aTable.AddCell("0.0"); aTable.AddCell("0.1"); aTable.AddCell("1.0"); aTable.AddCell("1.1"); document.Add(aTable); for (int i = 0; i < 20; i++) { document.Add(new Phrase("Hello World, Hello Sun, Hello Moon, Hello Stars, Hello Sea, Hello Land, Hello People. ")); } } My point was to try to reuse building the byte code. In other words, build up any kind of document and then send it to TestCode() method.

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  • Objective C Naming Convention for an object that owns itself

    - by Ed Marty
    With the latest releases of XCode that contain static analyzers, some of my objects are throwing getting analyzer issues reported. Specifically, I have an object that owns itself and is responsible for releasing itself, but should also be returned to the caller and possibly retained there manually. If I have a method like + (Foo) newFoo the analyzer sees the word New and reports an issue in the caller saying that newFoo is expected to return an object with retain +1, and it isn't being released anywhere. If I name it + (Foo) getFoo the analyzer reports an issue in that method, saying there's a potential leak because it's not deallocated before returning. My class basically looks like this: + (Foo *) newFoo { Foo *myFoo = [[[Foo new] retain] autorelease]; [myFoo performSelectorInBackground:@selector(bar) withObject:nil]; return myFoo; } - (void) bar { //Do something that might take awhile [self release]; } The object owns itself and when its done, will release itself, but there's nowhere that it's being stored, so the static analyzer sees it as a leak somewhere. Is there some naming or coding convention to help?

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  • ApplicationDispatcher exception

    - by JFB
    Whenever I try to redirect to a certain page using this dispatch method that is called from my doGet method, I get the following exception. I have no idea why! account controller servlet protected void dispatch(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, String page) throws javax.servlet.ServletException, java.io.IOException { RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext() .getRequestDispatcher(page); try { dispatcher.forward(request, response); } catch (java.lang.NullPointerException e) { System.out.println("NullPointerException: attribute expected in view"); } } Error msg java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.JasperException: java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:502) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:430) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jsp.content.edit_jsp._jspService(edit_jsp.java:109) org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:70) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:388) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717)

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  • Detect modification of variable at runtime in C/C++

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello, I am developing a library in C++ where users/programmer will extend a class BaseClass that has a method initArray. This method should be implemented by the user/programmer and it should normally initialize all elements of the array m_arr. Here is a snipplet, modified to this example: class BaseClass { public: BaseClass(int n) { m_arr = new double[n]; size = n; }; virtual ~BaseClass(); int size; double* m_arr; virtual int initArray(); }; Sometimes, the user/programmer implements a initArray that does not initialize some elements of m_arr. What I would like is to create a function in my library that checks if initArray did initialize all elements of m_arr. This function should be called by a sanity-check rutine at runtime. My question: is it possible to detect changes on this array? I can only think of initializing the array with some invalid values (like NaN or Inf), call initArray and check that all values have changed. Thanks for your ideas, David

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  • Interpreting item click in ListView

    - by Matt Huggins
    I'm working on my first Android project, and I created a menu via the XML method. My activity is pretty basic, in that it loads the main layout (containing a ListView with my String array of options). Here's the code inside my Activity: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // allow stuff to happen when a list item is clicked ListView ls = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.menu); ls.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { // @todo } }); } Within the onItemClick callback handler, I'd like to check which item was clicked, and load a new menu based upon that. Question 1: How do I go about figuring out which item was clicked? I can't find any straightforward examples on retrieving/testing the id value of the clicked item. Question 2: Once I have the id value, I assume I can just call the setContentView method again to change to another layout containing my new menu. Is that correct?

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  • C++ Dynamic object construction

    - by Rajesh Subramanian
    I have a base class, class Msg { ParseMsg() { ParseMsgData(); ParseTrailer(); } virtual void ParseMsgData() = 0; ParseTrailer(); }; and derived classes, class InitiateMsg { void ParseMsgData() { ... } }; class ReadOperationMsg { void ParseMsgData() { ... } }; class WriteOperationMsg { void ParseMsgData() { ... } }; and the scenario is below, void UsageFunction(string data) { Msg* msg = ParseHeader(data); ParseMsg } Msg* ParseHeader(string data) { Msg *msg = NULL; .... switch() { case 1: msg = new InitiateMsg(); break; case 2: msg = new ReadOperationMsg{(); break; case 3: msg = new WriteOperationMsg{(); break; .... } return msg; } based on the data ParseHeader method will decide which object has to be created, So I have implemented ParseHeader function outside the class where I am using. How can I make the ParseHeader function inside the Msg class and then use it? In C# the same is achieved by defining ParseHeader method as static with in class and use it from outside,

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  • In Safari, using jQuery a Form Input Text Field does not receive focus after alert is displayed. Why

    - by Rob
    I have an ASPX web form. I use jQuery to simply my Javascript. I use a Javascript validation script to validate each of the form fields' values. If an error occurs, I popup an alert with an error message. Then I transfer focus to the underlying element. Here are examples I have tried. Using jQuery: var Form_FieldDef = function(name) { this.name = name; this.SetFocus = function() { $('#' + this.name)[0].focus(); } this.Validate = function() { var isvalid = true; if ( $.trim($('#' + this.name).val()) == '') { alert("Your entry is empty"); this.SetFocus(); isvalid = false; } return isvalid; } } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I don't have a Mac. So I changed the SetFocus method to this. this.SetFocus = function() { var fld = document.getElementById(this.name); if (fld != null) fld.focus(); } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I stepped through the code with VS 2008 debugger, and I'm calling the focus method on the underlying element.

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  • Why does my SQL database not work in Android?

    - by user1426967
    In my app a click on an image button brings you to the gallery. After clicking on an image I want to call onActivityResult to store the image path. But it does not work. In my LogCat it always tells me that it crashes when it tries to save the image path. Can you find the problem? My onActivityResult method: mImageRowId = savedInstanceState != null ? savedInstanceState.getLong(ImageAdapter.KEY_ROWID) : null; @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if(requestCode == PICK_FROM_FILE && data != null && data.getData() != null) { Uri uri = data.getData(); if(uri != null) { Cursor cursor = getContentResolver().query(uri, new String[] { android.provider.MediaStore.Images.ImageColumns.DATA}, null, null, null); cursor.moveToFirst(); String image = cursor.getString(0); cursor.close(); if(image != null) { // HERE IS WHERE I WANT TO SAVE THE IMAGE. HERE MUST BE THE ERROR! if (mImageRowId == null) { long id = mImageHelper.createImage(image); if (id > 0) { mImageRowId = id; } } // Set the image and display it in the edit activity Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeFile(image); mImageButton.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } } } } This is my onSaveInstanceState method: private static final Long DEF_ROW_ID = 0L; @Override protected void onSaveInstanceState(Bundle outState) { outState.putLong(ImageAdapter.KEY_ROWID, mImageRowId != null ? mImageRowId : DEF_ROW_ID); super.onSaveInstanceState(outState); } This is a part from my DbAdapter: public long createImage(String image) { ContentValues cv = new ContentValues(); cv.put(KEY_IMAGE, image); return mImageDb.insert(DATABASE_TABLE, null, cv); }

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  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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  • Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

    - by Tom
    Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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  • Objective C iPhone performance issue

    - by Asad Khan
    Ok guys I am developing an iPhone app I have a Model class which follows a Singleton design pattern. Now I have an NSArray in it which is initialized to around some 1000 NSStrings in the init method. Now I need to use this data in some view controller. so I import Model.h, I create an array of NSString objects in view controller & set the data to it. But now the problem is that now I have 2000 NSStrings currently allocated, which I believe is not a good thing on iPhone due to memory considerations. releasing model object wont help because I've overrided release method to release nothing according to the pattern & I cannot change the design now because now a lot of code works on the assumption of model being a singleton. & in future maybe the initial NSStrings may grow to 2000 or even more & then I'll have 4000 NSStrings allocated at one time .... I am a little confused on how to go about it any suggestions

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  • C++ creating generic template function specialisations

    - by Fire Lancer
    I know how to specialise a template function, however what I want to do here is specialise a function for all types which have a given method, eg: template<typename T> void foo(){...} template<typename T, if_exists(T::bar)>void foo(){...}//always use this one if the method T::bar exists T::bar in my classes is static and has different return types. I tried doing this by having an empty base class ("class HasBar{};") for my classes to derive from and using boost::enable_if with boost::is_base_of on my "specialised" version. However the problem then is that for classes that do have bar, the compiler cant resolve which one to use :(. template<typename T> typename boost::enable_if<boost::is_base_of(HasBar, T>, void>::type f() {...} I know that I could use boost::disable_if on the "normal" version, however I do not control the normal version (its provided by a third party library and its expected for specialisations to be made, I just don't really want to make explicit specialisations for my 20 or so classes), nor do I have that much control over the code using these functions, just the classes implementing T::bar and the function that uses it. Is there some way to tell the compiler to "always use this version if possible no matter what" without altering the other versions?

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