Search Results

Search found 25547 results on 1022 pages for 'table locking'.

Page 578/1022 | < Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >

  • Rails 3 fields_for agressive loading?

    - by Seth
    Hi all, I'm trying to optimize (limit) queries in a view. I am using the fields_for function. I need to reference various properties of the object, such as username for display purposes. However, this is a rel table, so I need to join with my users table. The result is N sub-queries, 1 for each field in fields_for. It's difficult to explain, but I think you'll understand what I'm asking if I paste my code: <%= form_for @election do |f| %> <%= f.fields_for :voters do |voter| %> <%= voter.hidden_field :id %> <%= voter.object.user.preferred_name %> <% end %> <% end %> I have like 10,000 users, and many times each election will include all 10,000 users. That's 10,000 subqueries every time this view is loaded. I want fields_for to JOIN on users. Is this possible? I'd like to do something like: ... <%= f.fields_for :voters, :joins => :users do |voter| %> ... <% end %> ... But that, of course, doesn't work :(

    Read the article

  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

    Read the article

  • mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

    - by Mala
    I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

    Read the article

  • Choropleth mapping issue in R

    - by chasec
    I am trying to follow the tutorial described here: http://www.thisisthegreenroom.com/2009/choropleths-in-r/ The below code executes, but it is either not matching my dataset with the maps_counties data properly, or it isn't plotting it in the order I would expect. For example, the resulting areas for the greater NYC area show no density while random counties in PA show the highest density. The general format of my data table is: county state count fairfield connecticut 17 hartford connecticut 6 litchfield connecticut 3 new haven connecticut 12 ... ... westchester new york 70 yates new york 1 luzerne pennsylvania 1 Note this data is in order by state and then county and includes data for CT, NJ, NY, & PA. First, I read in my data set: library(maps) library(RColorBrewer) d <- read.table("gissum.txt", sep="\t", header=TRUE) #Concatenate state and county info to match maps library d$stcon <- paste(d$state, d$county, sep=",") #Color bins colors = brewer.pal(5, "PuBu") d$colorBuckets <- as.factor(as.numeric(cut(d$count,c(0,10,20,30,40,50,300)))) Here is my matching mapnames <- map("county",plot=FALSE)[4]$names colorsmatched <- d$colorBuckets [na.omit(match(mapnames ,d$stcon))] Plotting: map("county" ,c("new york","new jersey", "connecticut", "pennsylvania") ,col = colors[d$colorBuckets[na.omit(match(mapnames ,d$stcon))]] ,fill = TRUE ,resolution = 0 ,lty = 0 ,lwd= 0.5 ) map("state" ,c("new york","new jersey", "connecticut", "pennsylvania") ,col = "black" ,fill=FALSE ,add=TRUE ,lty=1 ,lwd=2 ) map("county" ,c("new york","new jersey", "connecticut", "pennsylvania") ,col = "black" ,fill=FALSE ,add=TRUE , lty=1 , lwd=.5 ) title(main="Respondent Home ZIP Codes by County") I am sure I am missing something basic re: the order in which the maps function plots items - but I can't seem to figure it out. Thanks for the help. Please let me know if you need any more information.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to load an entire SQL Server CE database into RAM?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table via a foreign key, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of the appeal of LinqToSql. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view.

    Read the article

  • Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in

    - by user1493540
    <html> <title>Title</title> <body> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap.css"/> </body> <center> <? mysql_connect ("localhost", "root","") or die (mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("dbname"); $term = $_POST['term']; $sql = mysql_query("select * from items where name like '%$term%'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql)){ echo '<table class="table - striped"> <theader> <tr> <th>ID</th> <th></br> Name</th></tr>'; echo ' <tbody><td>'.$row['id']; echo'</td>'; echo '<td>'; echo '</theader>' .$row['name']; echo '</td>'; echo ''; } ?> </center> <script src="js/bootsrap.js"> </script> </html> I'm, getting this error: Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in /home/runedev1/public_html/itemdb/search.php on line 19 When I run the code on localhost using Xampp, it works fine, when I upload it to the web-host, the error appears. Yes, I am changing the database name, user and password when putting it on the webhost.

    Read the article

  • Profile not loaded correctly (Cannot access registry)

    - by xaav
    Every so often, I log on and get the Following Message: User profile was not loaded correctly. You have been logged on with a temporary profile. Changes you make to this profile will be lost when you log off. Please see the event log for details or contact your administrator This almost always happens when somebody else has been on the computer for a while, and then I log on. This never used to happen, but now it happens pretty often. My profile is not permanently corrupted, all I have to do is restart my computer, but this annoys me, and I would like to fix it. I was curios about the reason of this cause, so I looked into the Event Log, and found the root of the problem was the ntuser.dat file in the profile that I was logging on to was locked at logon time. This resulted in the current users registry not being loaded, resulting in failure to load the profile. I just found a microsoft article that mentions this exact issue: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/960464/ The problem is that I do not want to delete this profile; and this issue does not come up every time that I log on, only when somebody else has been on a long time before me. What could be locking this file? Is there any way to get a process list without logging on so that I can identify which process has the file locked? Any other suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How to pass XML from C# to a stored procedure in SQL Server 2008?

    - by Geetha
    I want to pass xml document to sql server stored procedure such as this: CREATE PROCEDURE BookDetails_Insert (@xml xml) I want compare some field data with other table data and if it is matching that records has to inserted in to the table. Requirements: How do I pass XML to the stored procedure? I tried this, but it doesn’t work:[Working] command.Parameters.Add( new SqlParameter("@xml", SqlDbType.Xml) { Value = new SqlXml(new XmlTextReader(xmlToSave.InnerXml, XmlNodeType.Document, null)) }); How do I access the XML data within the stored procedure? Edit: [Working] String sql = "BookDetails_Insert"; XmlDocument xmlToSave = new XmlDocument(); xmlToSave.Load("C:\\Documents and Settings\\Desktop\\XML_Report\\Books_1.xml"); SqlConnection sqlCon = new SqlConnection("..."); using (DbCommand command = sqlCon.CreateCommand()) { **command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;** command.CommandText = sql; command.Parameters.Add( new SqlParameter("@xml", SqlDbType.Xml) { Value = new SqlXml(new XmlTextReader(xmlToSave.InnerXml , XmlNodeType.Document, null)) }); sqlCon.Open(); DbTransaction trans = sqlCon.BeginTransaction(); command.Transaction = trans; try { command.ExecuteNonQuery(); trans.Commit(); sqlCon.Close(); } catch (Exception) { trans.Rollback(); sqlCon.Close(); throw; } Edit 2: How to create a select query to select pages, description based on some conditions. <booksdetail> <isn_13>700001048</isbn_13> <isn_10>01048B</isbn_10> <Image_URL>http://www.landt.com/Books/large/00/7010000048.jpg</Image_URL> <title>QUICK AND FLUPKE</title> <Description> PRANKS AND JOKES QUICK AND FLUPKE </Description> </booksdetail>

    Read the article

  • MySQL query paralyzes site

    - by nute
    Once in a while, at random intervals, our website gets completely paralyzed. Looking at SHOW FULL PROCESSLIST;, I've noticed that when this happens, there is a specific query that is "Copying to tmp table" for a loooong time (sometimes 350 seconds), and almost all the other queries are "Locked". The part I don't understand is that 90% of the time, this query runs fine. I see it going through in the process list and it finishes pretty quickly most of the time. This query is being called by an ajax call on our homepage to display product recommendations based your browsing history (a la amazon). Just sometimes, randomly (but too often), it gets stuck at "copying to tmp table". Here is a caught instance of the query that was up 109 seconds when I looked: SELECT DISTINCT product_product.id, product_product.name, product_product.retailprice, product_product.imageurl, product_product.thumbnailurl, product_product.msrp FROM product_product, product_xref, product_viewhistory WHERE ( (product_viewhistory.productId = product_xref.product_id_1 AND product_xref.product_id_2 = product_product.id) OR (product_viewhistory.productId = product_xref.product_id_2 AND product_xref.product_id_1 = product_product.id) ) AND product_product.outofstock='N' AND product_viewhistory.cookieId = '188af1efad392c2adf82' AND product_viewhistory.productId IN (24976, 25873, 26067, 26073, 44949, 16209, 70528, 69784, 75171, 75172) ORDER BY product_xref.hits DESC LIMIT 10 Of course the "cookieId" and the list of "productId" changes dynamically depending on the request. I use php with PDO.

    Read the article

  • Cross-Application User Authentication

    - by Chris Lieb
    We have a webapp written in .NET that uses NTLM for SSO. We are writing a new webapp in Java that will tightly integrate with the original application. Unfortunately, Java has no support for performing the server portion of NTLM authentication and the only library that I can find requires too much setup to be allowed by IT. To work around this, I came up with a remote authentication scheme to work across applications and would like your opinions on it. It does not need to be extremely secure, but at the same time not easily be broken. User is authenticated into .NET application using NTLM User clicks link that leaves .NET application .NET application generates random number and stores it in the user table along with the user's full username (domain\username) Insecure token is formed as random number:username Insecure token is run through secure cipher (likely AES-256) using pre-shared key stored within the application to produce a secure token The secure token is passed as part of the query string to the Java application The Java application decrypts the secure key using the same pre-shared key stored within its own code to get the insecure token The random number and username are split apart The username is used to retrieve the user's information from the user table and the stored random number is checked against the one pulled from the insecure token If the numbers match, the username is put into the session for the user and they are now authenticated If the numbers do not match, the user is redirected to the .NET application's home page The random number is removed from the database

    Read the article

  • Connecting a django application to a drupal database?

    - by Hans
    I have a 3 - 4000 nodes in a drupal 6 installation on mysql and want to access these data through my django application. I have used manage.py inspectdb to get a skeleton of a model structure. I guess that there are good/historical reasons for drupal's database schemes, but find that there are some hard to understand structure and that there are some challenges in applying django models on the database. Some experiences this far are: node and node revision are intertwined and I solved this by using a OneToOneField (don't need the versions). This meens that the node's body gets accessible through node.vid.body, but it works. Foreign keys need to define the proper db_column to sort out the primary keys. Terms need to use an intermediary table with ManyToManyField.through. Drupal stores both the original and the thumbnailed/resized versions of any image as files in the files table. Does anyone have experiences in accessing drupal data in django? Are there better solution to for example the node <- node revision relationship? Drupal stores time/dates as unix-style timestamps in integerfields. Any recommendations? How about time zones?

    Read the article

  • C++: Declare static variable in function argument list

    - by MDC
    Is there any way at all in C++ to declare a static variable while passing it to a function? I'm looking to use a macro to expand to the expression passed to the function. The expression needs to declare and initialize a static variable on that particular line (based on the filename and line number using FILE and LINE). int foo(int b) { int c = b + 2; return c; } int main() { int a = 3; a = foo(static int h = 2); //<---- see this! cout << a; return 0; } The problem I'm trying to solve is getting the filename and line number with the FILE and LINE macros provided by the preprocessor, but then creating a lookup table with integer keys leading to the FILE, LINE pairs. For example, the key 89 may map to file foo.cpp, line 20. To get this to work, I'm trying to use local static variables, so that they are initialized only once per line execution. The static variable will be initialized by calling a function that calculates the integer key and adds an entry to the lookup table if it is not there. Right now the program uses a message class to send exception information. I'm writing a macro to wrap this class into a new class: WRAPPER_MACRO(old_class_object) will expand to NewClass(old_class_object, key_value). If I add the static variable declaration as a second line right before this, it should work. The problem is that in most places in the code, the old class object is passed as an argument to a function. So the problem becomes declaring and initializing the static variable somehow with the macro, while keeping the existing function calls.

    Read the article

  • jquery suspected naving convention problem

    - by donfigga
    Hi all im having provlem with this jquery function, the protion of the function that renames the id, class and name of the dropdown only works for the first dropdown, susequest ones do not work , any ideas, i suspect it may have something to do with naming convention as in cat.parent_id but it is required for asp.net mvc model binding. $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { //problematic portion $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>").attr("value", "-1").text("-please select item-")); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); sel.name = 'cat.parent_id'; sel.id = 'cat.parent_id'; } }); } }); });

    Read the article

  • jQuery slideToggle jump on close

    - by spankmaster79
    Hi, I'm trying to slideToggle a in a table with jQuery and it works in FF, OP, CHrome. Only IE (6,7,8) is giving me problems. It slides down perfectly down and up, but after the slide up animation is finished. The hidden pops up in full height and then closes. So I guess it must be somwhere inbetween when it switches from a minimal height to "display:none" that it appears for a short second. The code is built dynamically but I'll try to give an example: <table> <tr> <td> <script type="text/javascript"> function toggleTr_{$dynamicID}() { $('#content_{$dynamicID}').slideToggle('slow'); /* DO SOME OTHER STOFF LIKE COLOR CHANGES CSS CLASS CHANGES */ } </script> </td> </tr> <tr id="list_{$dynamicID}" onclick="toggleTr_{$dynamicID}();" style="cursor:pointer;"> <td> <!-- INFO HEADER --> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <div id="content_{$dynamicID}" style="display:none;"> <!-- INFO BODY HIDDEN --> </div </td> </tr> Other problems here with slideToggle only descibed problems with padding, margin, or problems with the animation, but that all works. Help is appreciated. Thx, Spanky

    Read the article

  • Get value of selected field from a dropdown list

    - by 47
    I have this class in my model: class ServiceCharge(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30) amount = models.PositiveIntegerField() extends_membership = models.BooleanField(default=False) def __unicode__(self): return str(self.name) What I want to have is in the form for charging users a service charge, when a charge is selected from the dropdown menu, the two values for amount and extends_membership are updated on the form depending on the selected charge. My forms.py: class vModelChoiceField(forms.ModelChoiceField): def label_from_instance(self, obj): return "%s" % obj.name class PayServiceChargeForm(PaymentsForm): service_charge = vModelChoiceField(queryset=ServiceCharge.objects.all(), empty_label=" ") class Meta(PaymentsForm.Meta): exclude = ('member', 'payment_type', 'transacted_by', 'description') Then the form template: <table border="0"> <tr> <td><strong>{% trans "Service Charge" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.service_charge }}</td> <td><strong>{% trans "Extends Membership" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.extends_membership }}</td> </tr> <tr> <td valign="top"><strong>{% trans "Expiry Date" %}</strong></td> <td valign="top">{{ form.expiry_date }}</td> <td valign="top"><strong>{% trans "Amount" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.amount }}</td> </tr> </table> I was trying out some jQuery but I got stuck after getting the currently selected charge: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#id_service_charge").change(onSelectChange); }); function onSelectChange(){ var selected = $("#id_service_charge option:selected"); var output = ""; if(selected.val() != 0){ charge = selected.val(); .... (update values) .... } } </script>

    Read the article

  • SQL Query to separate data into two fields

    - by Phillip
    I have data in one column that I want to separate into two columns. The data is separated by a comma if present. This field can have no data, only one set of data or two sets of data saperated by the comma. Currently I pull the data and save as a comma delimited file then use an FoxPro to load the data into a table then process the data as needed then I re-insert the data back into a different SQL table for my use. I would like to drop the FoxPro portion and have the SQL query saperate the data for me. Below is a sample of what the data looks like. Store Amount Discount 1 5.95 1 5.95 PO^-479^2 1 5.95 PO^-479^2 2 5.95 2 5.95 PO^-479^2 2 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 3 5.95 3 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 3 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 In the data above I want to sum the data in the amount field to get a gross amount. Then pull out the specific discount amount which is located between the carat characters and sum it to get the total discount amount. Then add the two together and get the total net amount. The query I want to write will separate the discount field as needed, see store 2 line 3 for two discounts being applied, then pull out the value between carat characters.

    Read the article

  • Multiple column sorting (SQL SERVER 2005)

    - by Newbie
    I have a table which looks like Col1 col2 col3 col4 col5 1 5 1 4 6 1 4 0 3 7 0 1 5 6 3 1 8 2 1 5 4 3 2 1 4 The script is declare @t table(col1 int, col2 int, col3 int,col4 int,col5 int) insert into @t select 1,5,1,4,6 union all select 1,4,0,3,7 union all select 0,1,5,6,3 union all select 1,8,2,1,5 union all select 4,3,2,1,4 I want the output to be every column being sorted in ascending order i.e. Col1 col2 col3 col4 col5 0 1 0 1 3 1 3 1 1 4 1 4 2 3 5 1 5 2 4 6 4 8 5 6 7 I already solved tye problem by the folowing program Select x1.col1 ,x2.col2 ,x3.col3 ,x4.col4 ,x5.col5 From (Select Row_Number() Over(Order By col1) rn1, col1 From @t)x1 Join(Select Row_Number() Over(Order By col2) rn2, col2 From @t)x2 On x1.rn1=x2.rn2 Join(Select Row_Number() Over(Order By col3) rn3, col3 From @t)x3 On x1.rn1=x3.rn3 Join(Select Row_Number() Over(Order By col4) rn4, col4 From @t)x4 On x1.rn1=x4.rn4 Join(Select Row_Number() Over(Order By col5) rn5, col5 From @t)x5 On x1.rn1=x5.rn5 But I am not happy with this solution. Is there any better way to achieve the same? (Using set based approach) If so, could any one please show an example. Thanks

    Read the article

  • data ownership and performance

    - by Ami
    We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to lay out elements in GWT?

    - by KutaBeach
    What is the best practice to specify the positions of elements in GWT widget? Imagine you have a task: place a set of widgets in page layout. What would you use to position all your buttons and inputs in some order? standart HTML markup with tables/divs + CSS styles for positioning GWT widgets: panels, grids, tables + CSS styles for positioning GWT widgets: panels, grids, tables + their native properties for positioning If 2 or 3 - what would you use to reproduce a standart HTML table with colspans, fixed width columns and paddings? ps UIBinder and XML markup. GWT 2.4 My opinion: one of the biggest advantages of GWT is the ability to prevent programmer from writing HTML markup and add cross-browser support for interfaces. We shouldn't drop these points so its better to choose p.3 and try to use CSS ONLY for decoration - i.e. colors, fonts etc. Another point of view: its a bad idea to place any styles inline. By specifying properties of the widgets in XML markup we are literally doing exactly this. Also, GWT doesn't have enough widgets to produce a normal layout. For example you need to create a simple table with collspans and fixed column width. How would you go about this? Looks like you have to embed several HorizontalPanels into VerticalPanels, specify width/height in everyone of them and produce a great paper of XML by this. So whats your opinion?

    Read the article

  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

    Read the article

  • C# SQL Data Adapter Fill on existing typed Dataset

    - by René
    I have an option to choose between local based data storing (xml file) or SQL Server based. I already created a long time ago a typed dataset for my application to save data local in the xml file. Now, I have a bool that changes between Server based version and local version. If true my application get the data from the SQL Server. I'm not sure but It seems that Sql Adapter's Fill Method can't fill the Data in my existing schema SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("Select * FROM dbo.Categories WHERE CatUserId = 1", _connection); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; _sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); _sqlAdapter.TableMappings.Add("Categories", "dbo.Categories"); _sqlAdapter.Fill(Program.Dataset); This should fill my data from dbo.Categories to Categories (in my local, typed dataset). but it doesn't. It creates a new table with the name "Table". It looks like it can't handle the existing schema. I can't figure it out. Where is the problem? btw. of course the database request I do isn't very useful that way. It's just a simplified version for testing...

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 misses keystrokes from internal keyboard after hibernation (on Acer Aspire 5820)

    - by ron
    I face a very strange symptom on my Acer Aspire laptop (with the factory default Win7 install and divers. Windows update running). After waking the computer from hibernation, it is a pain to type, since on average 5-10 keypresses are missing per 100 presses, using the laptop's keyboard. Steps to reproduce: 1) Power off 2) Power on, wait for system to become usable 3) Open notepad, for 5 times do hit 10x the same character. This gives a similar pattern of 50 chars total: xxxxxxxxxxyyyyyyyyyyaaaaaaaaaassssssssssdddddddddd 4) Optionally repeat. Everything is fine this far. 5) Hibernate. 6) Power on and resume. 7) Repeat steps 3)-4). This time approximately 3-5 character will be missing from each 50 characters. What I ruled out: putting to Sleep or just Locking and resuming from there does not cause problem battery / AC usage does not matter net connection does not matter running processes seem to be the same before and after hibernation key press speed doesn't really matter. For the test I use a nominal 3-5 strokes/second beat. plugging in an external USB keyboard works fine, but the built-in one still misbehaves What could be the problem? How could I diagnose if the keypresses arrive in, but get swallowed at some point? (maybe some nasty keyboard handler hook misbehaves?). Update: It seems that pushing the PowerSmart button and toggling to power saving state fixes the problem. Also, toggling it again back to the original state keeps it fixed. So this may be a fine workaround, but is not a conforming solution.

    Read the article

  • Shell replacement for kiosk environment with desktop icons

    - by tuesprem
    I have to deploy around 80 touch-screen terminals for my company. We're going to run several Windows applications on those terminals and they'll be operated by touch input only. I basically want those machines to run in a kiosk mode, so employees won't be able to launch any programs than the ones they're supposed to (also, this will hide the task bar/start menu, which will give it a much nicer, corporate look). There's usually one app that should automatically launch on startup and other apps that can be launched from the desktop. I've tried to accomplish this (under Windows 7 Pro) with a custom shell replacement. This removes the task bar/start menu like I described earlier. I used an AutoHotKey script for this, because it's easy to, for instance, define hotkeys so admins will still be able to launch stuff like Windows Explorer (okay, I know I could just launch it from the task manager [Ctrl+Shift+Esc] but I'm considering locking that as well). So far so good. Some problems though: No desktop icons. Needed to launch apps from the desktop. No wallpaper. Required for CI. Is there any way around this? I wouldn't mind using another shell replacement, as long as it's reasonably lightweight. I'd love to get the wallpaper and desktop icons to show with something like AutoHotKey though. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I create a rules engine without using eval() or exec()?

    - by Angela
    I have a simple rules/conditions table in my database which is used to generate alerts for one of our systems. I want to create a rules engine or a domain specific language. A simple rule stored in this table would be..(omitting the relationships here) if temp > 40 send email Please note there would be many more such rules. A script runs once daily to evaluate these rules and perform the necessary actions. At the beginning, there was only one rule, so we had the script in place to only support that rule. However we now need to make it more scalable to support different conditions/rules. I have looked into rules engines , but I hope to achieve this in some simple pythonic way. At the moment, I have only come up with eval/exec and I know that is not the most recommended approach. So, what would be the best way to accomplish this?? ( The rules are stored as data in database so each object like "temperature", condition like "/=..etc" , value like "40,50..etc" and action like "email, sms, etc.." are stored in the database, i retrieve this to form the condition...if temp 50 send email, that was my idea to then use exec or eval on them to make it live code..but not sure if this is the right approach )

    Read the article

  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >