Search Results

Search found 42253 results on 1691 pages for 'value types'.

Page 579/1691 | < Previous Page | 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586  | Next Page >

  • Inner join and outer join options in Entity Framework 4.0

    - by bigb
    I am using EF 4.0 and I need to implement query with one inner join and with N outer joins I started to implement this using different approaches but get into trouble at some point. Here is two examples how I started of doing this using ObjectQuery<'T' and Linq to Entity 1)Using ObjectQuery<'T' I implement flexible outer join but I don't know how to perform inner join with entity Rules in that case (by default Include("Rules") doing outer join, but i need to inner join by Id). public static IEnumerable<Race> GetRace(List<string> includes, DateTime date) { IRepository repository = new Repository(new BEntities()); ObjectQuery<Race> result = (ObjectQuery<Race>)repository.AsQueryable<Race>(); //perform outer joins with related entities if (includes != null) foreach (string include in includes) result = result.Include(include); //here i need inner join insteard of default outer join result = result.Include("Rules"); return result.ToList(); } 2)Using Linq To Entity I need to have kind of outer join(somethin like in GetRace()) where i may pass a List with entities to include) and also i need to perform correct inner join with entity Rules public static IEnumerable<Race> GetRace2(List<string> includes, DateTime date) { IRepository repository = new Repository(new BEntities()); IEnumerable<Race> result = from o in repository.AsQueryable<Race>() from b in o.RaceBetRules select new { o }); //I need here: // 1. to perform the same way inner joins with related entities like with ObjectQuery above //here i getting List<AnonymousType> which i cant cast to //IEnumerable<Race> when i did try to cast like //(IEnumerable<Race>)result.ToList(); i did get error: //Unable to cast object of type //'System.Collections.Generic.List`1[<>f__AnonymousType0`1[BetsTipster.Entity.Tip.Types.Race]]' //to type //'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[BetsTipster.Entity.Tip.Types.Race]'. return result.ToList(); } May be someone have some ideas about that.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

    Read the article

  • how do I insert an hidden token in my form to prevent double posts? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit.

    Read the article

  • Using javascript to add form fields, but what will the new name be?

    - by user1322844
    After reading this post: using javascript to add form fields.. but below, not to the side? I've made the button work! But I don't know how to receive the output. This is what I entered. var counter = 0; function addNew() { // Get the main Div in which all the other divs will be added var mainContainer = document.getElementById('mainContainer'); // Create a new div for holding text and button input elements var newDiv = document.createElement('div'); // Create a new text input var newText = document.createElement('input'); newText.type = "input"; newText.maxlength = "50"; newText.maxlimit = "50"; newText.size = "60"; newText.value = counter; // Create a new button input var newDelButton = document.createElement('input'); newDelButton.type = "button"; newDelButton.value = "Delete"; // Append new text input to the newDiv newDiv.appendChild(newText); // Append new button input to the newDiv newDiv.appendChild(newDelButton); // Append newDiv input to the mainContainer div mainContainer.appendChild(newDiv); counter++; // Add a handler to button for deleting the newDiv from the mainContainer newDelButton.onclick = function() { mainContainer.removeChild(newDiv); } } </script> With this in the form: <input type="button" size="3" cols="30" value="Add" onClick="addNew()"> So, what will the new field names be? I don't understand enough of the coding to figure out what I'm telling it to. Good thing there are other smart folks out there for me to lean on! Thanks for any answers.

    Read the article

  • Adding a Taxonomy Filter to a Custom Post Type

    - by ken
    There is an amazing conversation from about two years ago on the Wordpress Answer site where a number of people came up with good solutions for adding a taxonomy filter to the admin screen for your custom post types (see URL for screen I'm referring to): http://[yoursite.com]/wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=[post-type] Anyway, I loved Michael's awesome contribution but in the end used Somatic's implementation with the hierarchy option from Manny. I wrapped it in a class - cuz that's how I like to do things -- and it ALMOST works. The dropdown appears but the values in the dropdown are all looking in the $_GET property for the taxonomies slug-name that you are filtering by. For some reason I don't get anything. I looked at the HTML of the dropdown and it appears ok to me. Here's a quick screen shot for some context: You can tell from this that my post-type is called "exercise" and that the Taxonomy I'm trying to use as a filter is "actions". Here then is the HTML surrounding the dropdown list: <select name="actions" id="actions" class="postform"> <option value="">Show all Actions</option> <option value="ate-dinner">Ate dinner(1)</option> <option value="went-running">Went running(1)</option> </select> I have also confirmed that all of the form elements are within the part of the DOM. And yet if I choose "Went running" and click on the filter button the URL query string comes back without ANY reference to what i've picked. More explicitly, the page first loads with the following URL: /wp-admin/edit.php?post_type=exercise and after pressing the filter button while having picked "Went Running" as an option from the actions filter: /wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=exercise&action=-1&m=0&actions&paged=1&mode=list&action2=-1 actually you can see a reference to an "actions" variable but it's set to nothing and as I now look in detail it appears that the moment I hit "filter" on the page it resets the filter dropdown to the default "Show All Actions". Can anyone help me with this?

    Read the article

  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

    Read the article

  • What's the difference between an option type and a nullable type?

    - by Peter Olson
    In F# mantra there seems to be a visceral avoidance of null, Nullable<T> and its ilk. In exchange, we are supposed to instead use option types. To be honest, I don't really see the difference. My understanding of the F# option type is that it allows you to specify a type which can contain any of its normal values, or None. For example, an Option<int> allows all of the values that an int can have, in addition to None. My understanding of the C# nullable types is that it allows you to specify a type which can contain any of its normal values, or null. For example, a Nullable<int> a.k.a int? allows all of the values that an int can have, in addition to null. What's the difference? Do some vocabulary replacement with Nullable and Option, null and None, and you basically have the same thing. What's all the fuss over null about?

    Read the article

  • Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

    - by Syed Abdul Rahman
    Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Regular expression either/or not matching everything

    - by dwatransit
    I'm trying to parse an HTTP GET request to determine if the url contains any of a number of file types. If it does, I want to capture the entire request. There is something I don't understand about ORing. The following regular expression only captures part of it, and only if .flv is the first int the list of ORd values. (I've obscured the urls with spaces because Stackoverflow limits hyperlinks) regex: GET.?(.flv)|(.mp4)|(.avi).? test text: GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy match output: GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv I don't understand why the .*? at the end of the regex isnt callowing it to capture the entire text. If I get rid of the ORing of file types, then it works. Here is the test code in case my explanation doesn't make sense: public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub String sourcestring = "GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy"; Pattern re = Pattern.compile("GET .?\.flv."); // this works //output: // [0][0] = GET http :// foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy // the match from the following ends with the ".flv", not the entire url. // also it only works if .flv is the first of the 3 ORd options //Pattern re = Pattern.compile("GET .?(\.flv)|(\.mp4)|(\.avi).?"); // output: //[0][0] = GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv // [0][1] = .flv // [0][2] = null // [0][3] = null Matcher m = re.matcher(sourcestring); int mIdx = 0; while (m.find()){ for( int groupIdx = 0; groupIdx < m.groupCount()+1; groupIdx++ ){ System.out.println( "[" + mIdx + "][" + groupIdx + "] = " + m.group(groupIdx)); } mIdx++; } } }

    Read the article

  • How to get the actual address of a pointer in C?

    - by Airjoe
    BACKGROUND: I'm writing a single level cache simulator in C for a homework assignment, and I've been given code that I must work from. In our discussions of the cache, we were told that the way a small cache can hold large addresses is by splitting the large address into the position in the cache and an identifying tag. That is, if you had an 8 slot cache but wanted to store something with address larger than 8, you take the 3 (because 2^3=8) rightmost bits and put the data in that position; so if you had address 22 for example, binary 10110, you would take those 3 rightmost bits 110, which is decimal 5, and put it in slot 5 of the cache. You would also store in this position the tag, which is the remaining bits 10. One function, cache_load, takes a single argument, and integer pointer. So effectively, I'm being given this int* addr which is an actual address and points to some value. In order to store this value in the cache, I need to split the addr. However, the compiler doesn't like when I try to work with the pointer directly. So, for example, I try to get the position by doing: npos=addr%num_slots The compiler gets angry and gives me errors. I tried casting to an int, but this actually got me the value that the pointer was pointing to, not the numerical address itself. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

    Read the article

  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

    - by kwon
    Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Enforce strong type checking in C (type strictness for typedefs)

    - by quinmars
    Is there a way to enforce explicit cast for typedefs of the same type? I've to deal with utf8 and sometimes I get confused with the indices for the character count and the byte count. So it be nice to have some typedefs: typedef unsigned int char_idx_t; typedef unsigned int byte_idx_t; With the addition that you need an explicit cast between them: char_idx_t a = 0; byte_idx_t b; b = a; // compile warning b = (byte_idx_t) a; // ok I know that such a feature doesn't exist in C, but maybe you know a trick or a compiler extension (preferable gcc) that does that. EDIT: I still don't really like the Hungarian notation in general, I couldn't used it for this problem because of project coding conventions, but I used it now in another similar case, where also the types are the same and the meanings are very similar. And I have to admit: it helps. I never would go and declare every integer with a starting "i", but as in Joel's example for overlapping types, it can be life saving.

    Read the article

  • Separating Javascript functions

    - by msharma
    I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • problem on running script on different operating system

    - by Praveen kalal
    i run use a javascript code for getting browser information it run fine on microsoft windows xp but it not working on microsoft windows server 2003. my code is folowing. plz help. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function F() { var today = new Date(); var the_date = new Date("December 31, 2012"); var the_cookie_date = the_date.toGMTString(); var the_cookie = screen.width +"x"+ screen.height; var the_cookie = "Screen Resolution:"+the_cookie + ";\nExpires:" + the_cookie_date+";\n Browser CodeName:"+navigator.appCodeName+";\n Browser Name: " + navigator.appName+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+"; \n Cookies Enabled: " + navigator.cookieEnabled +";\n Platform: " + navigator.platform+";\n User-agent header: " + navigator.userAgent; / document.getElementById('box-content').value=the_cookie; } </script> </head> <body> <textarea name="box-content" id="box-content" rows="10" cols="70"> </textarea> <br /><br /> <p><input type="button" id="copy" name="copy" value="Copy to Clipboard" /></p> </body> </html> <script type="text/javascript"> //set path ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath('http://192.168.101.135:471/browserinfo/zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.swf'); //create client var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); //event clip.addEventListener('mousedown',function() { clip.setText(document.getElementById('box-content').value); }); clip.addEventListener('complete',function(client,text) { alert('text is copied'); }); //glue it to the button clip.glue('copy'); </script>

    Read the article

  • Why does implementing ObservableCollection crash my silverlight application?

    - by Sudeep
    Hi, I have a combobox whose ItemsSource property is bound to an ObservableCollection property and its SelectedIndex property is bound to an integer property respectively. <ComboBox Name="cmbDealt" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=DealList, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedIndex="{Binding Mode=TwoWay, Path=DealIndex}"></ComboBox> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding Mode=TwoWay, Path=SomeCondition}" Content="Some Condition"></CheckBox> My data structure looks like private ObservableCollection<string> m_DealList = null; private int m_DealIndex = 0; private bool m_SomeCondition = false; public ObservableCollection<string> DealList { get { if (m_DealList == null) m_DealList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); else m_DealList.Clear(); if (m_SomeCondition) { m_DealList.Add("ABC"); m_DealList.Add("DEF"); } else { m_DealList.Add("UVW"); m_DealList.Add("XYZ"); } return m_DealList; } } public int DealIndex { get { return m_DealIndex; } set { if (value != -1) { m_DealIndex = value; } } } public bool SomeCondition { get { return m_SomeCondition; } set { m_SomeCondition = value; OnPropertyChanged("DealList"); OnPropertyChanged("DealIndex"); } } Now the application loads successfully. However, when the user changes the SelectedIndex of the ComboBox to 1 from 0 and then checks the checkbox (so as to call the "DealIndex" property changed event), the application crashes. I am not sure why this could be happening. Can someone shed some light and propose a solution? TIA... Sudeep

    Read the article

  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

    Read the article

  • Unable to store NSNumber in core data

    - by Kamlesh
    Hi all, I am using Core Data in my application.I have an attribute named PINCode which has property Int64. Now,in my app I take the PIN code from a text field,convert it into NSNumber and try to store as an attribute value for an entity.But I am unable to do so.The exception that it shows on the console is:- Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Unacceptable type of value for attribute: property = "PINCode"; desired type = NSNumber; given type = NSCFString; value = 121.' Here is the code:- (Conversion to NSNumber):- NSString *str= txtPINCode.text; NSNumber *num = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; int tempNum = [str intValue]; num = [NSNumber numberWithInt:tempNum]; (Storing in core data entity):- NSManagedObjectContext *context = [appDelegate managedObjectContext]; NSManagedObject *newContact; newContact = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MemberTable" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newContact setValue:num forKey:@"PINCode"]; The app crashes at this point.I am unable to find the reason of crash.I have also tried to check the conversion by the following code:- NSNumber *testNumber = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; id test = num; BOOL testMe = [test isKindOfClass:(Class)testNumber]; Can anybody help me with this?? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Volatile fields in C#

    - by Danny Chen
    From the specification 10.5.3 Volatile fields: The type of a volatile field must be one of the following: A reference-type. The type byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, uint, char, float, bool, System.IntPtr, or System.UIntPtr. An enum-type having an enum base type of byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, or uint. First I want to confirm my understanding is correct: I guess the above types can be volatile because they are stored as a 4-bytes unit in memory(for reference types because of its address), which guarantees the read/write operation is atomic. A double/long/etc type can't be volatile because they are not atomic reading/writing since they are more than 4 bytes in memory. Is my understanding correct? And the second, if the first guess is correct, why a user defined struct with only one int field in it(or something similar, 4 bytes is ok) can't be volatile? Theoretically it's atomic right? Or it's not allowed simply because that all user defined structs(which is possibly more than 4 bytes) are not allowed to volatile by design?

    Read the article

  • Setting javascript prototype function within object class declaration

    - by Tauren
    Normally, I've seen prototype functions declared outside the class definition, like this: function Container(param) { this.member = param; } Container.prototype.stamp = function (string) { return this.member + string; } var container1 = new Container('A'); alert(container1.member); alert(container1.stamp('X')); This code produces two alerts with the values "A" and "AX". I'd like to define the prototype function INSIDE of the class definition. Is there anything wrong with doing something like this? function Container(param) { this.member = param; if (!Container.prototype.stamp) { Container.prototype.stamp = function() { return this.member + string; } } } I was trying this so that I could access a private variable in the class. But I've discovered that if my prototype function references a private var, the value of the private var is always the value that was used when the prototype function was INITIALLY created, not the value in the object instance: Container = function(param) { this.member = param; var privateVar = param; if (!Container.prototype.stamp) { Container.prototype.stamp = function(string) { return privateVar + this.member + string; } } } var container1 = new Container('A'); var container2 = new Container('B'); alert(container1.stamp('X')); alert(container2.stamp('X')); This code produces two alerts with the values "AAX" and "ABX". I was hoping the output would be "AAX" and "BBX". I'm curious why this doesn't work, and if there is some other pattern that I could use instead.

    Read the article

  • Prolog check if

    - by NickLee
    I'm creating a text adventure game on SWI-Prolog and I want to include (some kind of) dialogs. What I have so far is: dialog1(1):- nl,write('blah blah'),nl write('a: this is answer a'),nl, write('b: this is answer b'),nl. a:- write('respond to answer a'),nl. b:- write('respond to answer b'),nl. That's pretty much the first dialog. Now I want to create a second dialog similar to the first one. dialog1(2):- nl,write('blah blah'),nl, write('a: this is answer a'),nl, write('b: this is answer b'),nl. a:- write('respond to answer a'),nl. b:- write('respond to answer b'),nl. How can I check if the dialog is the first or the second one? I want to do that because when the user types a., I need the right answer a to be shown. I thought I could use something like a(1):- write('respond to answer a'),nl. b(1):- write('respond to answer b'),nl. /* and on the second dialog*/ a(2):- write('respond to answer a'),nl. b(2):- write('respond to answer b'),nl. But still, if the user is on dialog 2 and he types a(1),the first answer will appear.

    Read the article

  • Cross browser's probelm to highlight option item as bold in form element "select".

    - by Vivek
    Hello All , I am facing one weird cross browsers problem i.e. I want to highlight some of the option items as bold by using CSS class in my form element "select". This all is working fine in firefox only but not in other browsers like safari , chrome and IE .Given below is the code. <html> <head> <title>MAke Heading Bold</title> <style type="text/css"> .mycss {font-weight:bold;} </style> </head> <body> <form name="myform"> <select name="myselect"> <option value="one">one</option> <option value="two" class="mycss">two</option> <option value="three" >Three </option> </select> </form> </body> </html> Please suggest me best possible solution for this . Thanks Vivek

    Read the article

  • R - removing rows and replacing values using conditions from multiple columns

    - by lecodesportif
    I want to filter out all values of var3 < 5 while keeping at least one occurrence of each value of var1. > foo <- data.frame(var1= c(1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5), var2=c(9, 5, 13, 9, 12, 11, 13, 9), var3=c(6, 8, 3, 6, 4, 7, 2, 9)) > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 13 3 4 3 9 6 5 3 12 4 6 4 11 7 7 4 13 2 8 5 9 9 subset(foo, (foo$var3>=5)) would remove row 3, 5 and 7 and I would have lost var1==2. I want to remove the row if there is another value of var1 that fulfills the condition foo$var3 = 5. See row 5. I want to keep the row, assiging NA to var2 and var3 if all occurrences of a value var1 do not fulfill the condition foo$var3 = 5. This is the result I expect: var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 6 4 11 7 8 5 9 9 This is the closest I got: > foo$var3[ foo$var3 < 5 ] = NA > foo$var2[ is.na(foo$var3) ] = NA > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 5 3 NA NA 6 4 11 7 7 4 NA NA 8 5 9 9 So I guess I just need to know how to conditionally remove the row.

    Read the article

  • $.ajax not loading data data everytime from server

    - by Ted
    I have written a simple jQuery.ajax function which loads a user control from the server on click of a button. The first time I click the button, it goes to the server and gets me the user control. But each subsequent click of the same button does not goes to the server to fetch me the user control. Since my user control fetches data from db, I need to reload the user control everytime i hit the button. But if anyhow I get my user control to unload from the page, and re-click the button, it goes to the server and fetches me the user control. Here's the code: $("#btnLoad").click(function() { if ($(this).attr("value") == "Load Control") { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "loadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Unload Control"); } else { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "unloadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Load Control"); } }); Please let me know if there is any other way I can get my user control loaded from server everytime I click the button.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586  | Next Page >