Search Results

Search found 18729 results on 750 pages for 'edit'.

Page 581/750 | < Previous Page | 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588  | Next Page >

  • How can I display multiple django modelformset forms in a grouped fieldsets?

    - by JT
    I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results (after form validation) base_models = base_formset.save(commit=False) like_models = like_formset.save(commit=False) for base_model, likes_model in map(None, base_models, likes_models): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements. EDIT: Updated the problem statement to be more clear about what exactly I'm processing (I'm processing models not forms in the for loop)

    Read the article

  • How to open child forms positioned within MDI parent in VB.NET?

    - by user961627
    How do we arrange child forms in a parent MDI window? I'm able to call and display a child form from a menu on the parent, but the child pops up outside the parent - I want it to actually be inside the parent. I've checked in C# and VB.Net solutions but they all say pretty much the same, i.e. try to access LayoutMDI, such as here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/x9fhk181.aspx The problem is, where do I access this? When I'm in the code of my MDI parent, Me.LayoutMdi is not recognized. In which part of the application do I put the Me.LayoutMDI code? Edit The Me.LayoutMDI code worked in the parent after all. I'd been trying for a while but don't know where I was going wrong. However, the child continues to pop up out of the parent. Here's an image of how that happens. The broader form in the back is the parent, and the one with the gridview and two buttons is the new child that popped up. I want it to pop up "Docked" within the parent.

    Read the article

  • Do overlays work correctly in Emacs for Windows?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm using Flymake on C# code, emacs v22.2.1 on Windows. The Flymake stuff has been working well for me. For those who don't know, you can read an overview of flymake, but the quick story is that flymake repeatedly builds the source file you are currently working on in the background, for the purpose of doing syntax checking. It then highlights the compiler warnings and erros in the current buffer. Flymake didn't work for C# initially, but I "monkey-patched it" and it works nicely now. If you edit C# in emacs, I highly recommend using flymake. The only problem I have is with the UI. Flymake highlights the errors and warnings nicely, and then inserts "overlays" with the full error or warning text. IF I hover the mouse pointer over the highlighted line in code, the overlay pops up. But as you can see, the overlay is truncated, and it doesn't display correctly. Flymake seems to be doing the right thing, it's the overlay part that seems broken. Do overlays work correctly in emacs for Windows? Where do I look to fix this?

    Read the article

  • pass Validation error to UI element in WPF?

    - by Tony
    I am using IDataErrorInfo to validate my data in a form in WPF. I have the validation implemented in my presenter. The actual validation is happening, but the XAML that's supposed to update the UI and set the style isn't happening. Here it is: <Style x:Key="textBoxInError" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={x:Static RelativeSource.Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The problem is that my binding to Validation.Errors contains no data. How do I get this data from the Presenter class and pass it to this XAML so as to update the UI elements? EDIT: Textbox: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource textBoxInError}" Name="txtAge" Height="23" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="150"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="StrAge" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"/> </TextBox.Text> The validation occurs, but the style to be applied when data is invalid is not happening.

    Read the article

  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

    Read the article

  • jquery .submit live click runs more than once

    - by fxuser
    I use the following code to run my form ajax requests but when i use the live selector on a button i can see the ajax response fire 1 time, then if i re-try it 2 times, 3 times, 4 times and so on... I use .live because i also have a feature to add a post and that appears instantly so the user can remove it without refreshing the page... Then this leads to the above problem... using .click could solve this but it's not the ideal solution i'm looking for... jQuery.fn.postAjax = function(success_callback, show_confirm) { this.submit(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); if (show_confirm == true) { if (confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this item? You can\'t undo this.')) { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } } else { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } return false; }) return this; }; $(document).ready(function() { $(".delete_button").live('click', function() { $(this).parent().postAjax(function(data) { if (data.error == true) { } else { } }, true); }); });? EDIT: temporary solution is to change this.submit(function(e) { to this.unbind('submit').bind('submit',function(e) { the problem is how can i protect it for real because people who know how to use Firebug or the same tool on other browsers can easily alter my Javascript code and re-create the problem

    Read the article

  • Invalid iPhone Application Binary

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I'm trying to upload an application to the iPhone App Store, but I get this error message from iTunes Connect: The binary you uploaded was invalid. The signature was invalid, or it was not signed with an Apple submission certificate. My guess is that it is not properly signed. I have downloaded my App Store distribution certficate, but I can't figure out how to "sign" my application with it. The SDK's documentation about code signing is not very helpful. (FWIW, I can install the app on my iPhone just fine using the development provisioning profile.) However, it is possible that I screwed things up on a more basic level. Here's what I did to try to prepare it for upload: In Xcode, select the Device|Release target Select the target and click the Info button. Change "Code Signing Identity" to "iPhone Distribution", and change "Code Signing Provisioning Profile" to my App Store distribution profile. Build Go to the directory where the built MyApp.app bundle is, control-click and choose "Compress" to create MyApp.zip Upload MyApp.zip to the App Store via iTunes Connect (which resulted in the above error message). Can anybody give me any hints? Edit: Found someone with the same problem. Unfortunately, he won't tell us how he fixed it. http://www.rhonabwy.com/wp/2008/07/18/seattlebus-diary-ongoing-update-saga/#comments http://www.rhonabwy.com/wp/2008/07/22/seattlebus-diary-update-is-pending-review/ (Note: For general information on submitting iPhone applications to the App Store, see Steps to upload an iPhone application to the AppStore.)

    Read the article

  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

    Read the article

  • My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

    - by matdumsa
    Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

    Read the article

  • Need help choosing database server

    - by The Pretender
    Good day everyone. Recently I was given a task to develop an application to automate some aspects of stocks trading. While working on initial architecture, the database dilemma emerged. What I need is a fast database engine which can process huge amounts of data coming in very fast. I'm fairly experienced in general programming, but I never faced a task of developing a high-load database architecture. I developed a simple MSSQL database schema with several many-to-many relationships during one of my projects, but that's it. What I'm looking for is some advice on choosing the most suitable database engine and some pointers to various manuals or books which describe high-load database development. Specifics of the project are as follows: OS: Windows NT family (Server 2008 / 7) Primary platform: .NET with C# Database structure: one table to hold primary items and two or three tables with foreign keys to the first table to hold additional information. Database SELECT requirements: Need super-fast selection by foreign keys and by combination of foreign key and one of the columns (presumably DATETIME) Database INSERT requirements: The faster the better :) If there'll be significant performance gain, some parts can be written in C++ with managed interfaces to the rest of the system. So once again: given all that stuff I just typed, please give me some advice on what the best database for my project is. Links or references to some manuals and books on the subject are also greatly appreciated. EDIT: I'll need to insert 3-5 rows in 2 tables approximately once in 30-50 milliseconds and I'll need to do SELECT with 0-2 WHERE clauses queries with similar rate.

    Read the article

  • Why would some $_POST variables go missing for a form with PHP?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Sometimes, multiple times a day in fact, users of my web application are submitting a certain form which has about a dozen form fields, half of which are hidden fields, and half of the $_POST data is simply not present in the processing script. Note that the fields that are not present are at the very bottom of the form. I know this because this raises a fatal error, and an email is dispatched to me which includes the post data. And of course, neither I nor any of the developers on my team can reproduce the problem. Flash is involved in the process, as I'm using a library called Uploadify to display a progress meter. Here is the flow...does anyone have ANY ideas at all why some of the post data would be getting wiped out? User visits edit screen for a page in the CMS I am using. Record id for the page is put into a form as a hidden value. User clicks the Uploadify browse button and selects a file (only single file selection is allowed). User clicks Submit button for my form. jQuery intercepts the form submit action, triggers Uploadify to start uploading, and returns false for the submit action (manually cancelling the form submit event so that Uploadify can take over). Uploadify uploads to a custom process script. Uploadify finishes uploading and triggers the Javascript completion callback. The Javascript callback calls $('#myForm').submit() to submit the form. This happens on multiple browsers (Firefox 3.5, 3.6, Safari, Internet Explorer 7, 8) and multiple platforms (Mac OS 10.5, 10.6 and Windows XP, 7).

    Read the article

  • Adivce on Method overloads.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

    Read the article

  • In Netbeans, how do I avoid wsimport rebuilding web service clients every build?

    - by gustafc
    I'm on a project where we use NetBeans (6.8). We use several different web services, which we have added as web service references, and Netbeans auto-generates the Ant wsimport scripts for us. Very handy, with one drawback: The web service clients are recompiled every time ant is invoked. This slows down the build process considerably and has caused the number of sword-related injuries, maimings and deaths to skyrocket. Normally, I'd fix this by changing the wsimport element from <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"/> to <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"> <produces dir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" /> </wsimport> But I can't, 'cause this part of the Ant script is auto-generated. If I right-click the PonyService web service reference and select Edit Web Service Attributes ⇒ wsimport options, I can add attributes to the wsimport element, but not child elements. So: How do I add the produces child element to wsimport other than hacking the auto-generated Ant script? Or more generally: How do I make the NetBeans-generated wsimport not recompile the web service clients every time I build?

    Read the article

  • IUsable: controlling resources in a better way than IDisposable

    - by Ilya Ryzhenkov
    I wish we have "Usable" pattern in C#, when code block of using construct would be passed to a function as delegate: class Usable : IUsable { public void Use(Action action) // implements IUsable { // acquire resources action(); // release resources } } and in user code: using (new Usable()) { // this code block is converted to delegate and passed to Use method above } Pros: Controlled execution, exceptions The fact of using "Usable" is visible in call stack Cons: Cost of delegate Do you think it is feasible and useful, and if it doesn't have any problems from the language point of view? Are there any pitfalls you can see? EDIT: David Schmitt proposed the following using(new Usable(delegate() { // actions here }) {} It can work in the sample scenario like that, but usually you have resource already allocated and want it to look like this: using (Repository.GlobalResource) { // actions here } Where GlobalResource (yes, I know global resources are bad) implements IUsable. You can rewrite is as short as Repository.GlobalResource.Use(() => { // actions here }); But it looks a little bit weird (and more weird if you implement interface explicitly), and this is so often case in various flavours, that I thought it deserve to be new syntactic sugar in a language.

    Read the article

  • C# : changing listbox row color?

    - by Meko
    HI. I am trying to changing backround colorof some rows on listbox.I have 2 list that one has all names and it shown on listbox.And second list has some same value with first list.I want to show that when clicking button it will search in listbox and in second list then will change color where found value. I may search in list box like for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < students.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(students[j].ToString())) { } } But I don't know which method to change appearances of row.Any help? *EDIT: * HI I made my code like private void ListBox1_DrawItem(object sender, DrawItemEventArgs e) { e.DrawBackground(); Graphics g = e.Graphics; Brush myBrush = Brushes.Black; Brush myBrush2 = Brushes.Red; g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.Silver), e.Bounds); e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[e.Index].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < existingStudents.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(existingStudents[j])) { e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[i].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush2, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); } } e.DrawFocusRectangle(); } Now it draws my list on listbox.But when I click button first it shows only student that in list with red color but when I click on listbox it again draws all elements.I want that it will show all element ,when I click button it will show all elements and founded element in list with red color.Whre is my mistake?

    Read the article

  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

    Read the article

  • how can I convert String to SecretKey

    - by Alaa
    I want to convert String to secretKey public void generateCode(String keyStr){ KeyGenerator kgen = KeyGenerator.getInstance("AES"); kgen.init(128); // 192 and 256 bits may not be available // Generate the secret key specs. secretKey skey=keyStr; //How can I make the casting here //SecretKey skey = kgen.generateKey(); byte[] raw = skey.getEncoded(); } I try to use BASE64Decoder instead of secretKey, but I face a porblem which is I cannot specify key length. EDIT: I want to call this function from another place static public String encrypt(String message , String key , int keyLength) throws Exception { // Get the KeyGenerator KeyGenerator kgen = KeyGenerator.getInstance("AES"); kgen.init(keyLength); // 192 and 256 bits may not be available // Generate the secret key specs. //decode the BASE64 coded message SecretKey skey = key; //here is the error raw = skey.getEncoded(); SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec(raw, "AES"); // Instantiate the cipher Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); System.out.println("msg is" + message + "\n raw is" + raw); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal(message.getBytes()); String cryptedValue = new String(encrypted); System.out.println("encrypted string: " + cryptedValue); return cryptedValue; } Any one can help, i'll be very thankful.

    Read the article

  • Why does the Combo.SelectedValue get lost after some time

    - by tzup
    So I have this asp:DropDownList on a page. It renders like this (in IE7): <select name="ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista\',\'\')', 0)" id="ctl00_cphFilter_cbLista" class="agsSelect"> <option selected="selected" value="4350">A</option> <option value="4352">B</option> <option value="4349">C</option> <option value="4348">D</option> And then I have a grid and a button on the same page. When the user clicks the button the selected item of the dropdown is read (well a datasource object reads it) and the grid does a databind after a trip to a DB where it gets some data based on that selected value. This works fine most of the time. However sometimes, the selection in the dropdownlist seems to get lost even though the rendered page says the A is the selected item. The datasource object is defined like this: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsVM" runat="server" EnablePaging="False" SelectMethod="Select" SortParameterName="sort" TypeName="X.Business.Entities.LPVM.BE"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter Name="listaId" Type="Int32" ControlID="cphFilter$cbLista" PropertyName="SelectedValue" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Any ideas why the grid would reload its data with a select parameter that is 0 instead of the selected value of the dropdownlist? EDIT Suppose the dropdownlist is bound, the user selected B and the grid is bound as well and shows the right data. Now, I wait 2 minutes and I click the Refresh button. Surprisingly, at this particular moment the dropdownlist.SelectedValue (which I already know it was 4352 before I clicked because that's how it looks in the rendered page) is actually an empty string. Where did the value go?

    Read the article

  • Making HTTP POST request

    - by infrared
    I'm trying to make a POST request to retrieve information about a book. Here is the code that returns HTTP code: 302, Moved import httplib, urllib params = urllib.urlencode({ 'isbn' : '9780131185838', 'catalogId' : '10001', 'schoolStoreId' : '15828', 'search' : 'Search' }) headers = {"Content-type": "application/x-www-form-urlencoded", "Accept": "text/plain"} conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("bkstr.com:80") conn.request("POST", "/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch", params, headers) response = conn.getresponse() print response.status, response.reason data = response.read() conn.close() When I try from a browser, from this page: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackMaterialsView?langId=-1&catalogId=10001&storeId=10051&schoolStoreId=15828 , it works. What am I missing in my code? Thanks EDIT: Here's what I get when I call print response.msg 302 Moved Date: Tue, 07 Sep 2010 16:54:29 GMT Vary: Host,Accept-Encoding,User-Agent Location: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch X-UA-Compatible: IE=EmulateIE7 Content-Length: 0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Seems that the location points to the same url I'm trying to access in the first place? EDIT2: I've tried using urllib2 as suggested here. Here is the code: import urllib, urllib2 url = 'http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch' values = {'isbn' : '9780131185838', 'catalogId' : '10001', 'schoolStoreId' : '15828', 'search' : 'Search' } data = urllib.urlencode(values) req = urllib2.Request(url, data) response = urllib2.urlopen(req) print response.geturl() print response.info() the_page = response.read() print the_page And here is the output: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch Date: Tue, 07 Sep 2010 16:58:35 GMT Pragma: No-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Expires: Thu, 01 Jan 1970 00:00:00 GMT Set-Cookie: JSESSIONID=0001REjqgX2axkzlR6SvIJlgJkt:1311s25dm; Path=/ Vary: Accept-Encoding,User-Agent X-UA-Compatible: IE=EmulateIE7 Content-Length: 0 Connection: close Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Language: en-US Set-Cookie: TSde3575=225ec58bcb0fdddfad7332c2816f1f152224db2f71e1b0474c866f3b; Path=/

    Read the article

  • Not possible to load DropDownList on FormView from code behind??

    - by tbone
    I have a UserControl, containing a FormView, containing a DropDownList. The FormView is bound to a data control. Like so: <asp:FormView ID="frmEdit" DataKeyNames="MetricCode" runat="server" DefaultMode="Edit" DataSourceID="llbDataSource" Cellpadding="0" > <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="ParentMetricCode" runat="server" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("ParentMetricCode") %>' /> etc, etc I am trying to populate the DropDownList from the codebehind. If this was not contained in a FormView, I would normally just do it in the Page_Load event. However, that does not work within a FormView, as as soon as I try to do it, accessing the dropdownlist in code, ie: theListcontrol = CType(formView.FindControl(listControlName), System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListControl) ...the data binding mechansim of the FormView is invoked, which, of course, tries to bind the DropDownList to the underlying datasource, causing a *'ParentMetricCode' has a SelectedValue which is invalid because it does not exist in the list of items. Parameter name: value * error, since the DropDownList has not yet been populated. I tried performing the load in the DataBinding() event of the FormView, but then: theListcontrol = CType(formView.FindControl(listControlName), System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListControl) ...fails, as the FormView.Controls.Count = 0 at that point. Is this impossible? (I do not want to have to use a secondary ObjectDataSource to bind the dropdownlist to)

    Read the article

  • Troubles with PyDev and external libraries in OS X

    - by Davide Gualano
    I've successfully installed the latest version of PyDev in my Eclipse (3.5.1) under OS X 10.6.3, with python 2.6.1 I have troubles in making the libraries I have installed work. For example, I'm trying to use the cx_Oracle library, which is perfectly working if called from the python interpeter of from simple scripts made with some text editor. But I cant make it work inside Eclipse: I have this small piece of code: import cx_Oracle conn = cx_Oracle.connect(CONN_STRING) sql = "select field from mytable" cursor = conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) for row in cursor: field = row[0] print field If I execute it from Eclipse, I get the following error: import cx_Oracle File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 7, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 6, in __bootstrap__ ImportError: dlopen(/Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so, 2): Library not loaded: /b/227/rdbms/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1 Referenced from: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so Reason: no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/dave/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1: mach-o, but wrong architecture Same snippet works perfectly from the python shell I have configured the interpeter in Eclipse in preferences - PyDev -- Interpreter - Python, using the Auto Config option and selecting all the libs found. What am I doing wrong here? Edit: launching file /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so from the command line tells this: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O bundle ppc /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to combine transparency and "ajax usability" with HTML templates

    - by Sam
    I'm using HTML_Template_Flexy in PHP but the question should apply to any language or template library. I am outputting a list of relatively complex objects. In the beginning I just iterated over a list of the objects and called a toHtml method on them. When I was about to have my layout designer look over the template I noticed that it was too opaque and that he would have ended up looking through and/or editing many additional php source files to see what really gets generated by the toHtml method. So I extracted most of the HTML strings in the php classes up to the template which made for one clear file where you can see the whole page structure at once. However this causes problems when you want to add an object to the list using javascript. Then I have to keep the old toHtml method and maintain both the main template and the html strings at the same time, so I can output just the HTML for a new object that should be added to the page. So I'm back to the idea of using smaller templates for the objects that make up the page, but I was wondering if there was some easy way of having my cake and eating it too by having one template that shows the whole page but also the mini-templates for smaller objects on the page. Edit: Yes, updating the page is not a problem at all. My concern is with having both maintainability and transparency of the template files. If I have one single template for the whole page, then I must maintain mini-templates of the objects that are shown on the page. If I just have the mini-templates and include them from the higher-level template it becomes more difficult to look at the top-level html and imagine what the end result will look like.

    Read the article

  • Why does my DataTemplate break the WPF designer?

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

    Read the article

  • Internal bug tracking tickets - Redmine, Trac, or JIRA

    - by Tai Squared
    I've been looking at setting up Redmine, Trac, or JIRA to track issues. I want to be able to have my development team create internal tickets that are never seen by clients, while clients can create/edit tickets that are seen by the internal team. From the Trac documentation, you can set permissions to create or view tickets, but it doesn't seem to allow for viewing only certain tickets. It may be possible with Trac Fine Grained Permissions, but doesn't appear so. The Redmine documentation mentions: Define your own roles and set their permissions in a click but doesn't appear to have the level of granularity. From the JIRA documentation: At the moment JIRA is only able to support security at a project level or issue level. Currently there is no field level security available. According to this question, Redmine doesn't support internal tickets, so you would have to use multiple projects. I don't want a situation where I would have to create multiple projects - one internal, one external and have the external tickets brought into the internal repository. It seems as this would lead to unnecessary overhead and inevitably, the projects wouldn't be in sync. Is there any way with any of these products (possibly through a plug-in if not in the core product itself) to specify these permissions, or simplify having two projects with different users and permissions that must still share information?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588  | Next Page >