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  • Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

    - by Rio
    OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

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  • strict aliasing and alignment

    - by cooky451
    I need a safe way to alias between arbitrary POD types, conforming to ISO-C++11 explicitly considering 3.10/10 and 3.11 of n3242 or later. There are a lot of questions about strict aliasing here, most of them regarding C and not C++. I found a "solution" for C which uses unions, probably using this section union type that includes one of the aforementioned types among its elements or nonstatic data members From that I built this. #include <iostream> template <typename T, typename U> T& access_as(U* p) { union dummy_union { U dummy; T destination; }; dummy_union* u = (dummy_union*)p; return u->destination; } struct test { short s; int i; }; int main() { int buf[2]; static_assert(sizeof(buf) >= sizeof(double), ""); static_assert(sizeof(buf) >= sizeof(test), ""); access_as<double>(buf) = 42.1337; std::cout << access_as<double>(buf) << '\n'; access_as<test>(buf).s = 42; access_as<test>(buf).i = 1234; std::cout << access_as<test>(buf).s << '\n'; std::cout << access_as<test>(buf).i << '\n'; } My question is, just to be sure, is this program legal according to the standard?* It doesn't give any warnings whatsoever and works fine when compiling with MinGW/GCC 4.6.2 using: g++ -std=c++0x -Wall -Wextra -O3 -fstrict-aliasing -o alias.exe alias.cpp * Edit: And if not, how could one modify this to be legal?

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  • How set accessory type when tabel view is enbled to editing?

    - by Madan Mohan
    Hi Guys, I am using the UITableView properties to edit it. theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; It is working fine, the row is selected and I am getting into the next controller but I need to display the the accessoryType in the row. I am using below line for that but even though it is not working. Is there any property or any thing missing to display the indiactor. cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; I am using the below code for table view. theTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableRect style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; theTableView.delegate = self; theTableView.dataSource = self; theTableView.scrollEnabled=YES; theTableView.separatorColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; theTableView.autoresizingMask=YES; theTableView.allowsSelection=YES; theTableView.sectionHeaderHeight=5; theTableView.sectionFooterHeight=5; [myView addSubview:theTableView]; Please help me. THank You, Madan Mohan

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  • NMock2.0 - how to stub a non interface call?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I have a class API which has full code coverage and uses DI to mock out all the logic in the main class function (Job.Run) which does all the work. I found a bug in production where we werent doing some validation on one of the data input fields. So, I added a stub function called ValidateFoo()... Wrote a unit test against this function to Expect a JobFailedException, ran the test - it failed obviously because that function was empty. I added the validation logic, and now the test passes. Great, now we know the validation works. Problem is - how do I write the test to make sure that ValidateFoo() is actually called inside Job.Run()? ValidateFoo() is a private method of the Job class - so it's not an interface... Is there anyway to do this with NMock2.0? I know TypeMock supports fakes of non interface types. But changing mock libs right now is not an option. At this point if NMock can't support it, I will simply just add the ValidateFoo() call to the Run() method and test things manually - which obviously I'd prefer not to do considering my Job.Run() method has 100% coverage right now. Any Advice? Thanks very much it is appreciated. EDIT: the other option I have in mind is to just create an integration test for my Job.Run functionality (injecting to it true implementations of the composite objects instead of mocks). I will give it a bad input value for that field and then validate that the job failed. This works and covers my test - but it's not really a unit test but instead an integration test that tests one unit of functionality.... hmm.. EDIT2: IS there any way to do tihs? Anyone have ideas? Maybe TypeMock - or a better design?

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  • Updating a Foreign Key constraint with ON DELETE CASCADE not updating?

    - by Alastair Pitts
    We've realised in our SQL Server 2005 DB that some Foreign Keys don't have the On Delete Cascade property set, which is giving us a couple of referential errors when we try and delete some records. Use the Management Studio I scripted the DROP and CREATESQL's, but it seems that the CREATE isn't working correctly. The DROP: USE [FootprintReports] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports]') AND parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS]')) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] DROP CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] and the CREATE USE [FootprintReports] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] FOREIGN KEY([PARAMETER_ReportID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Reports] ([ID]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] If I manually change the value of the On Delete in the GUI, after dropping and recreating, the On Delete isn't correctly updated. As a test, I set the Delete rule in the GUI to Set Null. It dropped correctly, and recreated without error. If I got back into the GUI, it is still showing the Set Null as the Delete Rule. Have I done something wrong? or is there another way to edit a constraint to add the ON DELETE CASCADE rule?

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  • making java SingleFrameApplication to appear second

    - by Karel Bílek
    Sorry if this question will sound too chaotic, feel free to edit it. I have an application made entirely in netbeans, which uses SingleFrameApplication and auto-generated the GUI code, named "MyApp", and FrameView, named "MyView". Now, the MyApp somehow has the main() function, but the MyView has all the graphic elements.. I don't entirely understand how that happens, so used it as black box (it somehow created the window, I didn't have to care why). But now, I need the window to be only a window, opened by another JFrame. I don't know, how to accomplish that. MyApp, which is extending SingleFrameApplication, have these methods: public class MyApp extends SingleFrameApplication { @Override protected void startup() { show(new MyView(this)); } @Override protected void configureWindow(java.awt.Window root) { } public static MyApp getApplication() { return Application.getInstance(MyApp.class); } public static void main(String[] args) { launch(MyApp.class, args); } } MyView has these methods: public class MyView extends FrameView { public MyView(SingleFrameApplication app) { super(app); initComponents(); } private void initComponents() { //all the GUI stuff is somehow defined here } } Now, I have no clue how the two classes work, I just want this window, defined in MyView, to appear after another window, "ordinary" JFrame. How can I call this MyApp/MyView?

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  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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  • IUsable: controlling resources in a better way than IDisposable

    - by Ilya Ryzhenkov
    I wish we have "Usable" pattern in C#, when code block of using construct would be passed to a function as delegate: class Usable : IUsable { public void Use(Action action) // implements IUsable { // acquire resources action(); // release resources } } and in user code: using (new Usable()) { // this code block is converted to delegate and passed to Use method above } Pros: Controlled execution, exceptions The fact of using "Usable" is visible in call stack Cons: Cost of delegate Do you think it is feasible and useful, and if it doesn't have any problems from the language point of view? Are there any pitfalls you can see? EDIT: David Schmitt proposed the following using(new Usable(delegate() { // actions here }) {} It can work in the sample scenario like that, but usually you have resource already allocated and want it to look like this: using (Repository.GlobalResource) { // actions here } Where GlobalResource (yes, I know global resources are bad) implements IUsable. You can rewrite is as short as Repository.GlobalResource.Use(() => { // actions here }); But it looks a little bit weird (and more weird if you implement interface explicitly), and this is so often case in various flavours, that I thought it deserve to be new syntactic sugar in a language.

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  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

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  • RelativeLayout differences between 1.5 and 2.1

    - by Kilnr
    I've got a ListView with items composed of RelativeLayouts. This is the relevant XML from the list items: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TextView android:id="@+id/xx" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_centerInParent="true" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/title" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/xx" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/tag" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/xx" android:layout_below="@id/title" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/subtitle" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/tag" android:layout_below="@id/title" /> </RelativeLayout> On Android 2.1 (tested on a Nexus One), this shows the desired behavior: On Android 1.5 however (tested on a HTC Hero), it shows up like this: [edit] On 1.6 (emulator), it works as expected as well. The small grey line on the top left is what shows up in the first pic as "xx", so that should be vertically centered. As far as I can see, the XML dictates this, but for some reason, 1.5 ignores it. Why is this? I can't find anything about this difference, and I've been brute forcing any combination of layout_center, center, alignParent*, but to no avail... Can anyone shed some light on this? Thanks!

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  • Script working with mysql and php into a textarea and back

    - by Tribalcomm
    I am trying to write a custom script that will keep a list of strings in a textarea. Each line of the textarea will be a row from a table. The problem I have is how to work the script to allow for adding, updating, or deleting rows based on a submit. So, for instance, I currently have 3 rows in the database: john sue mark I want to be able to delete sue and add richard and it will delete the row with sue and insert a row for richard. My code so far is as follows: To query the db and list it in the textarea: $basearray = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM mytable ORDER BY name"); <textarea name="names" cols=6 rows=12>'); <?php foreach($basearray as $base){ echo $base->name."\n"; } ?> </textarea> After the submit, I have: <?php $namelist = $_REQUEST[names]; $newarray = explode("\n", $namelist); foreach($newarray as $name) { if (!in_array($name, $basearray)) { mysql_query(DELETE FROM mytable WHERE word='$name'"); } elseif (in_array($name, $basearray)) { ; } else { mysql_query("INSERT INTO mytable (name) VALUES ("$name")"); } } ?> Please tell me what I am doing wrong. I am not getting any functions to work when I edit the contents of the textarea. Thanks!

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • How much business logic belongs in RIA services layer?

    - by jkohlhepp
    I have been experimenting recently with Silverlight, RIA Services, and Entity Framework using .NET 4.0. I'm trying to figure out if that stack makes sense for use in any of my upcoming projects. It certainly seems like these technologies can be very productive for developing applications, but I'm struggling to decide how an application on top of this stack should be architected. The main issue I have is that in most of the demos I've seen most of the business logic ends up as DataAnnotations and custom validations in the RIA Services domain service class. This seems inappropriate to me. I view the domain service as basically a glorified web service that happens to make it easy to push information to the client. But most of what I've seen seems to orient the domain service as the main source of business logic in the application. So, my questions: What is the best location for business logic (rules, validations, behaviors, authorization) in an application using this stack? Are there any guidelines published at an architectural level for using this stack? My questions pertain to large, complex, and long-lived applications. Obviously for an application of only a few screens this is less of a concern. Edit: Another thing I meant to mention is that obviously you can make the domain service class stupid, but then you lose a lot of the automagic entity information (e.g. validations) being pushed to the client. And then if you lose that is there any point to using RIA services?

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  • Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server error '80040e14' Could not find stored procedure

    - by BBlake
    I am migrating a classic ASP web app to new servers. The database back end is migrating from SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008, and the app is moving from Win2000 x86 to Win2003R2 x64. I am getting the above error on every single stored procedure call within the application. I have verified: Yes, the SQL user is set up, using correct username and password Yes, the SQL user has execute permissions on the stored procedures in the database Yes, I have updated the TypeLib references to the new UUID Yes, I have logged into the database via SSMS with the SQL user id and it can see and execute the stored procedures just fine in SSMS, but not from the web app. Yes, the SQL user has the database set as its default database. The most frustrating thing is it works fine on the DEV server, but not on the production server. I have gone through every IIS setting 5 or 6 times and the web app is set up precisely the same in both environments. The only difference is the database server name in the connection string (DEV vs prod) EDIT: I have also tried pointing the prod web box at the dev database server and get the same error so I'm fairly sure the issue isn't on the database side.

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  • Photoshop CS5 not recognising activeDocument

    - by Max Kielland
    I wrote a quite big script for Photoshop CS5.1 on my 64bit Vista machine. Now when I run the very same script on my new 64bit Windows 7 machine, Adobe ExtendScript Tool complains about activeDocument (no such element) in this simple script: #target photoshop var pDoc = app.activeDocument; alert("Done!"); I have tried both and without #target and choosing the target in the ExtendedScript Tool. Is there something I have missed, or do I need to install something more. I only installed the 64bit version of Photoshop. Is it so that the 32bit Photoshop has the script extensions? I don't see why I need to install both 32bit and 64bit versions if I'm only going to use the 64bit version. EDIT I installed the 32bit version as well. Tried the same script against 32 and 64 bit, still no difference. SOLVED The mystery is solved. It is embarrassing simple if you interpret the error message more careful. Of course I can't get an activeDocument if there are no documents in Photoshop, duh!?! I interpreted it as the statement activeDocument wasn't recognised, but of course if I have no document there is no such element (as a photoshop document) to give me. I'm used to C++ and would expect the reuslt to be a NULL value or similar if there is a problem to get the document... excuses, excuses ;) Well, if someone else should get into the same problem, here is the answer on my expense :D

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  • Do overlays work correctly in Emacs for Windows?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm using Flymake on C# code, emacs v22.2.1 on Windows. The Flymake stuff has been working well for me. For those who don't know, you can read an overview of flymake, but the quick story is that flymake repeatedly builds the source file you are currently working on in the background, for the purpose of doing syntax checking. It then highlights the compiler warnings and erros in the current buffer. Flymake didn't work for C# initially, but I "monkey-patched it" and it works nicely now. If you edit C# in emacs, I highly recommend using flymake. The only problem I have is with the UI. Flymake highlights the errors and warnings nicely, and then inserts "overlays" with the full error or warning text. IF I hover the mouse pointer over the highlighted line in code, the overlay pops up. But as you can see, the overlay is truncated, and it doesn't display correctly. Flymake seems to be doing the right thing, it's the overlay part that seems broken. Do overlays work correctly in emacs for Windows? Where do I look to fix this?

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  • #Error showing up in multiple LEFT JOIN statement Access query when value should be NULL

    - by lar
    I'm trying to return an ID's last 4 years of data, if existing. The table (call it A_TABLE) looks like this: ID, Year, Val The idea behind the query is this: for each ID/Year in the table, LEFT JOIN with Year-1, Year-2, and Year-3 (to get 4 years of data) and then return Val for each year. Here's the SQL: SELECT a.ID, a.year AS [Year], a.Val AS VAL, a1.year AS [Year-1], a1.Val AS [VAL-1], a2.year AS [Year-2], a2.Val AS [VAL-2], a3.year AS [Year-3], a3.Val AS [VAL-3] FROM ( ([A_TABLE] AS a LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a1 ON (a.ID = a1.ID) AND (a.year = a1.year+1)) LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a2 ON (a.ID = a2.ID) AND (a.year = a2.year+2)) LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a3 ON (a.ID = a3.ID) AND (a.year = a3.year+3) The problem is that, for past years where there is no data (eg, Year-1), I see "#Error" in the appropriate VAL column (eg, [VAL-1]). The weird thing is, I see the expected "null" in the Year column (eg, [YEAR-1]). Some sample data: ID YEAR VAL Dave 2004 1 Dave 2006 2 Dave 2007 3 Dave 2008 5 Dave 2009 0 outputs like this: ID YEAR VAL YEAR-1 VAL-1 YEAR-2 VAL-2 YEAR-3 VAL-3 Dave 2004 1 #Error #Error #Error Dave 2006 2 #Error 2004 1 #Error Dave 2007 3 2006 2 #Error 2004 1 Dave 2008 5 2007 3 2006 2 #Error Dave 2009 0 2008 5 2007 3 2006 2 Does that make sense? Why am I getting the appropriate NULL val for the non-existent YEARs, but an #Error for the non-existent VALs? (This is Access 2000. Conditional statements like "IIf(a1.val is null, -999, a1.val)" do not seem to do anything.) EDIT: It turns out that the errors are somehow caused by the fact that A_TABLE is actually a query. When I put all the data into an actual table and run the same query, everything shows up as it should. Thanks for the help, everyone.

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  • Troubles with PyDev and external libraries in OS X

    - by Davide Gualano
    I've successfully installed the latest version of PyDev in my Eclipse (3.5.1) under OS X 10.6.3, with python 2.6.1 I have troubles in making the libraries I have installed work. For example, I'm trying to use the cx_Oracle library, which is perfectly working if called from the python interpeter of from simple scripts made with some text editor. But I cant make it work inside Eclipse: I have this small piece of code: import cx_Oracle conn = cx_Oracle.connect(CONN_STRING) sql = "select field from mytable" cursor = conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) for row in cursor: field = row[0] print field If I execute it from Eclipse, I get the following error: import cx_Oracle File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 7, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 6, in __bootstrap__ ImportError: dlopen(/Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so, 2): Library not loaded: /b/227/rdbms/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1 Referenced from: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so Reason: no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/dave/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1: mach-o, but wrong architecture Same snippet works perfectly from the python shell I have configured the interpeter in Eclipse in preferences - PyDev -- Interpreter - Python, using the Auto Config option and selecting all the libs found. What am I doing wrong here? Edit: launching file /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so from the command line tells this: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O bundle ppc /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64

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  • Make sure <a href="local file"> is opened outside of browser

    - by Heinzi
    For an Intranet web application (document management), I want to show a list of files associated with a certain customer. The resulting HTML is like this: <a href="file:///server/share/dir/somefile.docx">somefile.docx</a> <a href="file:///server/share/dir/someotherfile.pdf">somefile.pdf</a> <a href="file:///server/share/dir/yetanotherfile.txt">yetanotherfile.txt</a> This works fine. Unfortunetly, when clicking on a text file (or image file), Internet Explorer (and I guess most other browsers as well) insist on showing it in the browser instead of opening the file with the associated application (e.g. Notepad). In our case, this is undesired behavior, since it does not allow the user to edit the file. Is there some workaround to this behavior (e.g. something like <a href="file:///..." open="external">)? I'm aware that this is a browser-specific thing, and an IE-only solution would be fine (it's an Intranet application after all).

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  • Proper use of the IDisposable interface

    - by cwick
    I know from reading the MSDN documentation that the "primary" use of the IDisposable interface is to clean up unmanaged resources http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.idisposable.aspx. To me, "unmanaged" means things like database connections, sockets, window handles, etc. But, I've seen code where the Dispose method is implemented to free managed resources, which seems redundant to me, since the garbage collector should take care of that for you. For example: public class MyCollection : IDisposable { private List<String> _theList = new List<String>(); private Dictionary<String, Point> _theDict = new Dictionary<String, Point>(); // Die, you gravy sucking pig dog! public void Dispose() { _theList.clear(); _theDict.clear(); _theList = null; _theDict = null; } My question is, does this make the garbage collector free memory used by MyCollection any faster than it normally would? edit: So far people have posted some good examples of using IDisposable to clean up unmanaged resources such as database connections and bitmaps. But suppose that _theList in the above code contained a million strings, and you wanted to free that memory now, rather than waiting for the garbage collector. Would the above code accomplish that?

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  • MVC UI with Mock Controllers?

    - by Jaimal Chohan
    I'm working with Aspnet MVC 2 (R2) and at the same time playing about with the whole alt.net stack. One of this things I would like to be able todo is basically write my Views, and be able to interact with them without having to write the controller logic. E.g. I have a view that displays a list of orders and I can click on an order which redirects to another view where I can edit it, but I don't want to get into the nitty gritty of writing the code to actually get a list of orders, or update an existing ordes. I want to do so I can write UI tests in WaitN/AOT/Selenium without having to worry about whats happening underneath, and also It would help drive my controller logic on a need basis as opposed to guess work based of of the supplied screenshots How do you guys accomplish this atm? Can you provide links ot useful blog posts/tools/framework/articles with information on how to accomplish this p.s. I primarly use Rhino Mocks & NUnit but can happliy change to other tools if they support the above better.

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  • java RMI connection to server

    - by user85116
    I have a very simple rmi client / server application. I don't use the "rmiregistry" application though, I use this to create the server: server = new RemoteServer(); registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(PORT); registry.bind("RemoteServer", server); The client part is: registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(IPADDRESS, PORT); remote = (IRemoteServer) registry.lookup("RemoteServer"); Here is the fascinating problem: The application works perfectly when both server and client are running in my (private) local network. As soon as I put the server on a public server, the application hangs for a minute, then gives me the following error: java.rmi.ServerException: RemoteException occurred in server thread; nested exception is: java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: 192.168.x.y; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(Unknown Source ... (the rest is truncated) The key I think is that the client (running on my private network) cannot connect to myself (my address is 192.168.x.y where x.y is some other numbers, but the real error message shows my ip address listed there) If I kill the rmi server on the public internet, then I instantly get a "connection refused to host: a.b.c.d") message, so I know that something at the server end is at least working. Any suggestions? EDIT: just to make this a little more clear: 192.168.x.y is the client address, a.b.c.d is the server address. The stacktrace shows the client cannot connect to the client.

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Why does my DataTemplate break the WPF designer?

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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  • thread reaches end but isn't removed

    - by pstanton
    I create a bunch of threads to do some processing: new Thread("upd-" + id){ @Override public void run(){ try{ doSomething(); } catch (Throwable e){ LOG.error("error", e); } finally{ LOG.debug("thread death"); } } }.start(); I know i should be using a threadPool but i need to understand the following problem before i change it: I'm using eclipse's debugger and looking at the threads in the debug pane which lists active threads. Many of them complete as you would expect, and are removed from the debug pane, however some seem to stay in the list of active threads even though the log shows the "thread death" entry for these. When i attempt to debug these threads, they either do not pause for debugging or show an error dialog: "A timeout occurred while retrieving stack frames for thread: upd-...". there is some synchronization going on within the doSomething() call but i'm fairly sure it's ok and since the "thread death" log is being called i'm assuming these threads aren't deadlocked in that method. i don't do any Thread.join()s, however i do call a third party API but doubt they do either. Can anyone think of another reason these threads are lingering? Thanks. EDIT: I created this test to check the Garbage Collection theory: Thread thread = new Thread("!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!") { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("running"); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(5000); System.out.println("finished"); // <-- thread removed from list here } }; thread.start(); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); System.out.println(thread.isAlive()); // <-- thread already removed from list but hasn't been GC'd ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); this proves that it is nothing to do with garbage collection as eclipse removes the thread from the thread list as soon as it completes and isn't waiting for the object to be de-referenced/GC'd.

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