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  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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  • IUsable: controlling resources in a better way than IDisposable

    - by Ilya Ryzhenkov
    I wish we have "Usable" pattern in C#, when code block of using construct would be passed to a function as delegate: class Usable : IUsable { public void Use(Action action) // implements IUsable { // acquire resources action(); // release resources } } and in user code: using (new Usable()) { // this code block is converted to delegate and passed to Use method above } Pros: Controlled execution, exceptions The fact of using "Usable" is visible in call stack Cons: Cost of delegate Do you think it is feasible and useful, and if it doesn't have any problems from the language point of view? Are there any pitfalls you can see? EDIT: David Schmitt proposed the following using(new Usable(delegate() { // actions here }) {} It can work in the sample scenario like that, but usually you have resource already allocated and want it to look like this: using (Repository.GlobalResource) { // actions here } Where GlobalResource (yes, I know global resources are bad) implements IUsable. You can rewrite is as short as Repository.GlobalResource.Use(() => { // actions here }); But it looks a little bit weird (and more weird if you implement interface explicitly), and this is so often case in various flavours, that I thought it deserve to be new syntactic sugar in a language.

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  • How can I display multiple django modelformset forms in a grouped fieldsets?

    - by JT
    I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results (after form validation) base_models = base_formset.save(commit=False) like_models = like_formset.save(commit=False) for base_model, likes_model in map(None, base_models, likes_models): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements. EDIT: Updated the problem statement to be more clear about what exactly I'm processing (I'm processing models not forms in the for loop)

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  • Formatted text encoding in binary plist

    - by Sean
    I'm trying to do some scripting that edits a binary plist file. The plist describes the objects contained in a DVD studio pro file. It appears that a text box in DVD studio pro is encoded in the plist as hex data that describes the text string along with its formatting. I can't seem to figure out how to understand this data. Ideally, I'd like to be able to alter the text string but not the formatting. The following seems to describe a text box that says "Menu title here". There are two hex strings, one with the key called "dictionary" and the other called "string"; both are CFData. Any ideas how I can parse this or convert this into a format that I can edit directly? I've been playing around with writing a little converter in cocoa, but no luck yet. <dict> <key>Dictionary</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhAxOU0Rp Y3Rpb25hcnkA hIQITlNPYmpl Y3QAhYQBaQaS hISECE5TU3Ry aW5nAZSEASsG TlNGb250hpKE hIQGTlNGb250 HpSVJIQFWzM2 Y10GAAAAGgAA AP/+TAB1AGMA aQBkAGEARwBy AGEAbgBkAGUA AACEAWYVhAFj AJsBmwCbAIaS hJaXB05TQ29s b3KGkoSEhAdO U0NvbG9yAJSb AYQEZmZmZoPz 8nI/g/Dvbz+D 7OtrPwGGkoSW lwtOU0V4cGFu c2lvboaShISE CE5TTnVtYmVy AISEB05TVmFs dWUAlIQBKoSa moNHx9c9hpKE lpcNTlNPYmxp cXVlbmVzc4aS hJ6ghIQBZKEA hpKElpcQTlNQ YXJhZ3JhcGhT dHlsZYaShISE EE5TUGFyYWdy YXBoU3R5bGUA lIQEQ0NAUwAA hQCGkoSWlxFO U0JhY2tncm91 bmRDb2xvcoaS hJubA4QCZmYA AIaG </data> <key>String</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhBJOU0F0 dHJpYnV0ZWRT dHJpbmcAhIQI TlNPYmplY3QA hZKEhIQITlNT dHJpbmcBlIQB Kw9OZW51IFRp dGxlIEhlcmWG hAJpSQEPkoSE hAxOU0RpY3Rp b25hcnkAlIQB aQWShJaWDU5T T2JsaXF1ZW5l c3OGkoSEhAhO U051bWJlcgCE hAdOU1ZhbHVl AJSEASqEhAFk nQCGkoSWlgtO U0V4cGFuc2lv boaShJuchIQB Zp6DR8fXPYaS hJaWEE5TUGFy YWdyYXBoU3R5 bGWGkoSEhBBO U1BhcmFncmFw aFN0eWxlAJSE BENDQFMAAIUA hpKElpYGTlNG b250hpKEhIQG TlNGb250HpSZ JIQFWzM2Y10G AAAAGgAAAP/+ TAB1AGMAaQBk AGEARwByAGEA bgBkAGUAAACe FYQBYwCjAaMA owCGkoSWlgdO U0NvbG9yhpKE hIQHTlNDb2xv cgCUowGEBGZm ZmaD8/JyP4Pw 728/g+zraz8B hoaG </data> </dict>

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  • Why does my DataTemplate break the WPF designer?

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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  • JSP Document/JSPX: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are removed in the output?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've got a "JSP Document" ("JSP in XML") nicely formatted and when the webpage is generated and sent to the user, some linebreaks are removed. Now the really weird part: apparently the "main" .jsp always gets all its linebreak removed but for any subsequent .jsp included from the main .jsp, linebreaks seems to be randomly removed (some are there, others aren't). For example, if I'm looking at the webpage served from Firefox and ask to "view source", I get to see what is generated. So, what determines when/how linebreaks are kept/removed? This is just an example I made up... Can you force a .jsp to serve this: <body><div id="page"><div id="header"><div class="title">... or this: <body> <div id="page"> <div id="header"> <div class="title">... ? I take it that linebreaks are removed to save on bandwidth, but what if I want to keep them? And what if I want to keep the same XML indentation as in my .jsp file? Is this doable? EDIT Following skaffman's advice, I took a look at the generated .java files and the "main" one doesn't have lots of out.write but not a single one writing tabs nor newlines. Contrary to that file, all the ones that I'm including from that main .jsp have lots of lines like: out.write("\t...\n"); So I guess my question stays exactly the same: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are included/removed in the output?

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  • making java SingleFrameApplication to appear second

    - by Karel Bílek
    Sorry if this question will sound too chaotic, feel free to edit it. I have an application made entirely in netbeans, which uses SingleFrameApplication and auto-generated the GUI code, named "MyApp", and FrameView, named "MyView". Now, the MyApp somehow has the main() function, but the MyView has all the graphic elements.. I don't entirely understand how that happens, so used it as black box (it somehow created the window, I didn't have to care why). But now, I need the window to be only a window, opened by another JFrame. I don't know, how to accomplish that. MyApp, which is extending SingleFrameApplication, have these methods: public class MyApp extends SingleFrameApplication { @Override protected void startup() { show(new MyView(this)); } @Override protected void configureWindow(java.awt.Window root) { } public static MyApp getApplication() { return Application.getInstance(MyApp.class); } public static void main(String[] args) { launch(MyApp.class, args); } } MyView has these methods: public class MyView extends FrameView { public MyView(SingleFrameApplication app) { super(app); initComponents(); } private void initComponents() { //all the GUI stuff is somehow defined here } } Now, I have no clue how the two classes work, I just want this window, defined in MyView, to appear after another window, "ordinary" JFrame. How can I call this MyApp/MyView?

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  • Is There a Time at which to ignore IDisposable.Dispose?

    - by Mystagogue
    Certainly we should call Dipose() on IDisposable objects as soon as we don't need them (which is often merely the scope of a "using" statement). If we don't take that precaution then bad things, from subtle to show-stopping, might happen. But what about "the last moment" before process termination? If your IDisposables have not been explicitly disposed by that point in time, isn't it true that it no longer matters? I ask because unmanaged resources, beneath the CLR, are represented by kernel objects - and the win32 process termination will free all unmanaged resources / kernel objects anyway. Said differently, no resources will remain "leaked" after the process terminates (regardless if Dispose() was called on lingering IDisposables). Can anyone think of a case where process termination would still leave a leaked resource, simply because Dispose() was not explicitly called on one or more IDisposables? Please do not misunderstand this question: I am not trying to justify ignoring IDisposables. The question is just technical-theoretical. EDIT: And what about mono running on Linux? Is process termination there just as "reliable" at cleaning up unmanaged "leaks?"

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  • How to print the address an ada access variable points to?

    - by georg
    I want to print the address of an access variable (pointer) for debugging purposes. type Node is private; type Node_Ptr is access Node; procedure foo(n: in out Node_Ptr) is package Address_Node is new System.Address_To_Access_Conversions(Node); use Address_Node; begin Put_Line("node at address " & System.Address_Image(To_Address(n))); end foo; Address_Image returns the string representation of an address. System.Address_To_Access_Conversions is a generic package to convert between addresses and access types (see ARM 13.7.2), defined as follows: generic type Object(<>) is limited private; package System.Address_To_Access_Conversions is -- [...] type Object_Pointer is access all Object; -- [...] function To_Address(Value : Object_Pointer) return Address; -- [...] end System.Address_To_Access_Conversions; gnat gives me the following errors for procedure foo defined above: expected type "System.Address_To_Access_Conversions.Object_Pointer" from instance at line... found type "Node_Ptr" defined at ... Object_Pointer ist definied as access all Object. From my understanding the type Object is Node, therefore Object_Ptr is access all Node. What is gnat complaining about? I guess my understanding of Ada generics is flawed and I am not using System.Address_To_Access_Conversions correctly. EDIT: I compiled my code with "gnatmake -gnatG" to see the generic instantiation: package address_node is subtype btree__clear__address_node__object__2 is btree__node; type btree__clear__address_node__object_pointer__2 is access all btree__clear__address_node__object__2; function to_address (value : btree__clear__address_node__object_pointer__2) return system__address; end address_node; btree__node is the mangled name of the type Node as defined above, so I really think the parameter type for to_address() is correct, yet gnat is complaining (see above).

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  • CakePHP: email validate action doesn't work when clicking on the email link

    - by bakerjr
    Hi, We've created the email validation part of our site. We built the site using CakePHP BTW. The problem is that it doesn't work when we click on the link in the email. The email is sent as plain text. A weird thing is that when we paste the link on the address bar, it works. Also when clicking on the link using Gmail and desktop email clients, it works as well. Other email providers doesn't work. EDIT: Additional info: Example link for the validation: http://localhost/users/validate/validatecodeblah12c023 When it's working it should login the user and redirect to the user dashboard. It goes to the front page when it's not working (see description above). Additional info 2: I did compare the results using Live HTTP headers and I found out that the only time it doesn't push through (goes to the login page for some reason) is when there's a 'Referrer: h ttp://mail.yahooblahblah...' Gmail for some reason doesn't have a 'Referer' line in it's headers.

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  • Java JSTL / EL: nesting

    - by NoozNooz42
    I really don't know how to name this question, it's great if anyone with 2K+ rep can edit this title to better reflect my question (the fact that I can't name this easily is probably why I can't Google the solution). I've got this, which is working: <c:choose> <c:when test="${sometest}"> Hello, world! </c:when> <c:otherwise> <fmt:message key="${page.title}" /> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And I want to change it to this: <c:choose> <c:when test="${sometest}"> <c:set var="somevar" scope="page" value="Hello, world!"/> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <c:set var="somevar" scope="page" value="<fmt:message key="${page.title}">" </c:otherwise> </c:choose But of course the following line ain't correct: <c:set var="somevar" scope="page" value="<fmt:message key="${page.title}">" How can I assign to the somevar variable the string resulting from a call?

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  • JLabel not greyed out when disabled, when HTML text displayed

    - by bguiz
    How do I get a JLabel displaying a HTML string to appear greyed out (which is the behaviour of JLabels that don't display HTML text)? Is there another way than actually changing the colour myself by modifying the foreground property? JLabel label1 = new JLabel("Normal text"); JLabel label2 = new JLabel("<html>HTML <b>text</b>"); // Both labels are now black in colour label1.setEnabled(false); label2.setEnabled(false); // label1 is greyed out, label2 is still black in colour Thank you very much for all of your responses. From what I gather, it seems that Java doesn't support automatic greying out of JLabels when they use HTML text. Suraj's solution has come closest to the fix considering the limitations. I have however, tried a different out-of-the box approach, where I have put the HTML text JLabels inside of an inner JPanel and did this: mInnerPanel.setEnabled(shouldShow); //shouldShow is a boolean value Which hasn't worked. Any suggestions for this way? EDIT: Added implemented solution.

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  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

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  • How to detect back button or forward button navigation in a silverlight navigation application

    - by parapura rajkumar
    When a Page is navigated to in silverlight you can override this method. protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { base.OnNavigatedTo(e); } The NavigationEventArgs has a NavigationMode enumeration which is defined as public enum NavigationMode { New = 0, Back = 1, Forward = 2, Refresh = 3, } But calling e.NavigationMode always throws a NotImplementedException Is there a way in silverlight to detect a page is being navigated to because the user hit the forward/back browser button. What I am trying to achieve is some kind of state that can be preserved when the user hits the back button. For example assume you have a customer page which is showing a list of customers in a datagrid. The user can select a customer and there is a detail view which shows all the orders for that customer. Now within an order item you can click a hyperlink link that takes you to the shipping history of the order which is a separate page. When the user hits the back button I want to go back to the customers page and automatically select the customer he was viewing. Is this possible at all ? I also tried out the fragment navigation feature NavigationService.Navigate(new Uri("#currentcustomerid=" + customer.Id.ToString(), UriKind.Relative)); when the customer selection changes but this adds too many items to the history when the user clicks various customers on the customer page. EDIT There is also an method you can override protected override void OnNavigatingFrom(NavigatingCancelEventArgs e) { } which is the same as handling the NavigationService.Navigating event as indicated by BugFinder's answer. In this method e.NavigationMode always returns New when when you hit the Back or Forward Button. The only time this method returns Back is when you explicitly call NavigationService.GoBack()

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  • Why can't I get a TRUE return in this prepared statement?

    - by Cortopasta
    I can't seem to get this to do anything but return false. My best guess is that the prepared statement isn't executing, but I have no idea why. private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } *EDIT:*I've even tried hard coding the username and password into the function itself to try and isolate the problem like this: private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $plain_username = "jim"; $md5_username = "waffles"; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); print_r($dbcon->errorInfo()); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } Still nothing :-/

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • Troubles with PyDev and external libraries in OS X

    - by Davide Gualano
    I've successfully installed the latest version of PyDev in my Eclipse (3.5.1) under OS X 10.6.3, with python 2.6.1 I have troubles in making the libraries I have installed work. For example, I'm trying to use the cx_Oracle library, which is perfectly working if called from the python interpeter of from simple scripts made with some text editor. But I cant make it work inside Eclipse: I have this small piece of code: import cx_Oracle conn = cx_Oracle.connect(CONN_STRING) sql = "select field from mytable" cursor = conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) for row in cursor: field = row[0] print field If I execute it from Eclipse, I get the following error: import cx_Oracle File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 7, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 6, in __bootstrap__ ImportError: dlopen(/Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so, 2): Library not loaded: /b/227/rdbms/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1 Referenced from: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so Reason: no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/dave/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1: mach-o, but wrong architecture Same snippet works perfectly from the python shell I have configured the interpeter in Eclipse in preferences - PyDev -- Interpreter - Python, using the Auto Config option and selecting all the libs found. What am I doing wrong here? Edit: launching file /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so from the command line tells this: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O bundle ppc /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64

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  • pass objective c object and primitive type into a void *

    - by user674669
    I want to pass 2 variables: UIImage * img int i into another method that only takes a (void *) I tried making a C struct containing both img and i struct MyStruct { UIImage *img; int i; } but xcode gives me an error saying "ARC forbids Objective-C objects in structs or unions" The next thing I tried is to write an objective-c class MyStruct2 containing img and i, alloc-initing an instance of it and typecasting it as (__bridge void*) before passing it to the method. Seems little involved for my use case. Seems like there should be a better way. What's the simplest way to achieve this? Thank you. Edit based on comments: I have to use void * as it is required by the UIView API. I created a selector as mentioned by UIVIew API + (void)setAnimationDidStopSelector:(SEL)selector Please see documentation for setAnimationDidStopSelector at http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/uikit/reference/UIView_Class/UIView/UIView.html . It says ... The selector should be of the form: - (void)animationDidStop:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context I want to pass both img and i into the (void *)context argument.

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  • Should I go vor Arrays or Objects in PHP in a CouchDB/Ajax app?

    - by karlthorwald
    I find myself converting between array and object all the time in PHP application that uses couchDB and Ajax. Of course I am also converting objects to JSON and back (for sometimes couchdb but mostly Ajax), but this is not so much disturbing my workflow. At the present I have php objects that are returned by the CouchDB modules I use and on the other hand I have the old habbit to return arrays like array("error"="not found","data"=$dataObj) from my functions. This leads to a mixed occurence of real php objects and nested arrays and I cast with (object) or (array) if necessary. The worst thing is that I know more or less by heart what a function returns, but not what type (array or object), so I often run into type errors. My plan is now to always cast arrays to objects before returning from a function. Of course this implies a lot of refactoring. Is this the right way to go? What about the conversion overhead? Other ideas or tips? Edit: Kenaniah's answer suggests I should go the other way, this would mean I'd cast everything to arrays. And for all the Ajax / JSON stuff and also for CouchDB I would use $myarray = json_decode($json_data,$assoc = false) Even more work to change all the CouchDB and Ajax functions but in the end I have better code.

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  • Why does the Combo.SelectedValue get lost after some time

    - by tzup
    So I have this asp:DropDownList on a page. It renders like this (in IE7): <select name="ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista\',\'\')', 0)" id="ctl00_cphFilter_cbLista" class="agsSelect"> <option selected="selected" value="4350">A</option> <option value="4352">B</option> <option value="4349">C</option> <option value="4348">D</option> And then I have a grid and a button on the same page. When the user clicks the button the selected item of the dropdown is read (well a datasource object reads it) and the grid does a databind after a trip to a DB where it gets some data based on that selected value. This works fine most of the time. However sometimes, the selection in the dropdownlist seems to get lost even though the rendered page says the A is the selected item. The datasource object is defined like this: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsVM" runat="server" EnablePaging="False" SelectMethod="Select" SortParameterName="sort" TypeName="X.Business.Entities.LPVM.BE"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter Name="listaId" Type="Int32" ControlID="cphFilter$cbLista" PropertyName="SelectedValue" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Any ideas why the grid would reload its data with a select parameter that is 0 instead of the selected value of the dropdownlist? EDIT Suppose the dropdownlist is bound, the user selected B and the grid is bound as well and shows the right data. Now, I wait 2 minutes and I click the Refresh button. Surprisingly, at this particular moment the dropdownlist.SelectedValue (which I already know it was 4352 before I clicked because that's how it looks in the rendered page) is actually an empty string. Where did the value go?

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  • [SOLVED]: Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

    - by Rio
    OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

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  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Script working with mysql and php into a textarea and back

    - by Tribalcomm
    I am trying to write a custom script that will keep a list of strings in a textarea. Each line of the textarea will be a row from a table. The problem I have is how to work the script to allow for adding, updating, or deleting rows based on a submit. So, for instance, I currently have 3 rows in the database: john sue mark I want to be able to delete sue and add richard and it will delete the row with sue and insert a row for richard. My code so far is as follows: To query the db and list it in the textarea: $basearray = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM mytable ORDER BY name"); <textarea name="names" cols=6 rows=12>'); <?php foreach($basearray as $base){ echo $base->name."\n"; } ?> </textarea> After the submit, I have: <?php $namelist = $_REQUEST[names]; $newarray = explode("\n", $namelist); foreach($newarray as $name) { if (!in_array($name, $basearray)) { mysql_query(DELETE FROM mytable WHERE word='$name'"); } elseif (in_array($name, $basearray)) { ; } else { mysql_query("INSERT INTO mytable (name) VALUES ("$name")"); } } ?> Please tell me what I am doing wrong. I am not getting any functions to work when I edit the contents of the textarea. Thanks!

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  • Best practices for Java logging from multiple threads?

    - by Jason S
    I want to have a diagnostic log that is produced by several tasks managing data. These tasks may be in multiple threads. Each task needs to write an element (possibly with subelements) to the log; get in and get out quickly. If this were a single-task situation I'd use XMLStreamWriter as it seems like the best match for simplicity/functionality without having to hold a ballooning XML document in memory. But it's not a single-task situation, and I'm not sure how to best make sure this is "threadsafe", where "threadsafe" in this application means that each log element should be written to the log correctly and serially (one after the other and not interleaved in any way). Any suggestions? I have a vague intuition that the way to go is to use a queue of log elements (with each one able to be produced quickly: my application is busy doing real work that's performance-sensitive), and have a separate thread which handles the log elements and sends them to a file so the logging doesn't interrupt the producers. The logging doesn't necessarily have to be XML, but I do want it to be structured and machine-readable. edit: I put "threadsafe" in quotes. Log4j seems to be the obvious choice (new to me but old to the community), why reinvent the wheel...

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