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• Use web.sitemap to control page access

  - by Jakob Gade

  I was setting up permissions for pages in a ASP.NET website with <location> tags in web.config, something similar to this: <location path="Users.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow roles="Administrator"/> <deny users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> However, I also have a web.sitemap which basically contains the same information, i.e. which user roles can see/access which pages. A snippet from my web.sitemap: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <siteMap xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/AspNet/SiteMap-File-1.0" > <siteMapNode title="Home"> ... lots of nodes here ... <siteMapNode url="users.aspx" roles="Administrator" title="users" description="Edit users" /> ... </siteMapNode> </siteMap> Is there some kind of nifty way of using web.sitemap only to configure access? The <location> tags are quite verbose, and I don't like having to duplicate this information.

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• How to print the address an ada access variable points to?

  - by georg

  I want to print the address of an access variable (pointer) for debugging purposes. type Node is private; type Node_Ptr is access Node; procedure foo(n: in out Node_Ptr) is package Address_Node is new System.Address_To_Access_Conversions(Node); use Address_Node; begin Put_Line("node at address " & System.Address_Image(To_Address(n))); end foo; Address_Image returns the string representation of an address. System.Address_To_Access_Conversions is a generic package to convert between addresses and access types (see ARM 13.7.2), defined as follows: generic type Object(<>) is limited private; package System.Address_To_Access_Conversions is -- [...] type Object_Pointer is access all Object; -- [...] function To_Address(Value : Object_Pointer) return Address; -- [...] end System.Address_To_Access_Conversions; gnat gives me the following errors for procedure foo defined above: expected type "System.Address_To_Access_Conversions.Object_Pointer" from instance at line... found type "Node_Ptr" defined at ... Object_Pointer ist definied as access all Object. From my understanding the type Object is Node, therefore Object_Ptr is access all Node. What is gnat complaining about? I guess my understanding of Ada generics is flawed and I am not using System.Address_To_Access_Conversions correctly. EDIT: I compiled my code with "gnatmake -gnatG" to see the generic instantiation: package address_node is subtype btree__clear__address_node__object__2 is btree__node; type btree__clear__address_node__object_pointer__2 is access all btree__clear__address_node__object__2; function to_address (value : btree__clear__address_node__object_pointer__2) return system__address; end address_node; btree__node is the mangled name of the type Node as defined above, so I really think the parameter type for to_address() is correct, yet gnat is complaining (see above).

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• How can I display multiple django modelformset forms in a grouped fieldsets?

  - by JT

  I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results (after form validation) base_models = base_formset.save(commit=False) like_models = like_formset.save(commit=False) for base_model, likes_model in map(None, base_models, likes_models): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements. EDIT: Updated the problem statement to be more clear about what exactly I'm processing (I'm processing models not forms in the for loop)

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• Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

  - by Bob

  I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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• ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

  - by ArjanW

  Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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• Galaxy Nexus (Specificaly) camera startPreview failed

  - by Roman

  I'm having a strange issue on a galaxy nexus when trying to have a live camera view in my app. I get this error in the log cat: 06-29 16:31:26.681 I/CameraClient(133): Opening camera 0 06-29 16:31:26.681 I/CameraHAL(133): camera_device open 06-29 16:31:26.970 D/DOMX (133): ERROR: failed check:(eError == OMX_ErrorNone) || (eError == OMX_ErrorNoMore) - returning error: 0x80001005 - Error returned from OMX API in ducati 06-29 16:31:26.970 E/CameraHAL(133): Error while configuring rotation 0x80001005 06-29 16:31:27.088 I/am_on_resume_called(21274): [0,digifynotes.Activity_Camera] 06-29 16:31:27.111 V/PhoneStatusBar(693): setLightsOn(true) 06-29 16:31:27.205 E/CameraHAL(133): OMX component is not in loaded state 06-29 16:31:27.205 E/CameraHAL(133): setNSF() failed -22 06-29 16:31:27.205 E/CameraHAL(133): Error: CAMERA_QUERY_RESOLUTION_PREVIEW -22 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): UNHANDLED EXCEPTION: Java.Lang.Exception: Exception of type 'Java.Lang.Exception' was thrown. 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at Android.Runtime.JNIEnv.CallVoidMethod (intptr,intptr) <0x00068> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at Android.Hardware.Camera.StartPreview () <0x0007f> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at DigifyNotes.CameraPreviewView.SurfaceChanged (Android.Views.ISurfaceHolder,Android.Graphics.Format,int,int) <0x000d7> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at Android.Views.ISurfaceHolderCallbackInvoker.n_SurfaceChanged_Landroid_view_SurfaceHolder_III (intptr,intptr,intptr,int,int,int) <0x0008b> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at (wrapper dynamic-method) object.4c65d912-497c-4a67-9046-4b33a55403df (intptr,intptr,intptr,int,int,int) <0x0006b> That very same source code works flawlessly on a Samsung Galaxy Ace 2X (4.0.4) and an LG G2X (2.3.7). I will later test on a galaxy s4 if my friend lends it to me. Galaxy Nexus runs Android 4.2.2 I believe. Any one have any ideas? EDIT: Here are my camera classes: [Please note I am using mono] [The formatting is more readable if you view it as raw] Camera Activity: http://pastebin.com/YPcGXJRB Camera Preview View: http://pastebin.com/zNf8AWDf

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• Installing Silverstripe on 000webhost.com (free web host)

  - by benwad

  Hi I'm trying to learn how to work Silverstripe so I extracted the tar file to my free hosting account. I then went on install.php and edited the permissions to meet the requirements set out in install.php but I still get two warnings from the 'webserver configuration' section: I can't tell what webserver you are running. Without Apache I can't tell if mod_rewrite is enabled. I can't tell whether mod_rewrite is running. You may need to configure a rewriting rule yourself. I looked in phpinfo() and mod_rewrite appears to be installed. I contacted the web host and they said it was to do with virtual directory paths, and I should add 'RewriteBase /' to the top of my .htaccess file in the public_html directory. However I did this and still had the same problem. The install.php script says that I can install it even with these warnings but when I press 'install' it just refreshes the install.php page. It doesn't even overwrite the .htaccess file. 000webhost.com says they have successfully installed Silverstripe on their user accounts without much configuration but I can't seem to find out how. EDIT: I managed to get to the next page but now there is another warning which is stopping it installing: Friendly URLs are not working. This is most likely because mod_rewrite isn't configuredcorrectly on your site. Please check the following things in your Apache configuration; you may need to get your web host or server administrator to do this for you: * mod_rewrite is enabled * AllowOverride All is set for your directory I also get this error message from the server: Warning: unlink(mysite/_config.php) [function.unlink]: Permission denied in /home/a2716553/public_html/install.php on line 701

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• Aren't Information Expert / Tell Don't Ask at odds with Single Responsibility Principle?

  - by moffdub

  It is probably just me, which is why I'm asking the question. Information Expert, Tell Don't Ask, and SRP are often mentioned together as best practices. But I think they are at odds. Here is what I'm talking about: Code that favors SRP but violates Tell Don't Ask, Info Expert: Customer bob = ...; // TransferObjectFactory has to use Customer's accessors to do its work, // violates Tell Don't Ask CustomerDTO dto = TransferObjectFactory.createFrom(bob); Code that favors Tell Don't Ask / Info Expert but violates SRP: Customer bob = ...; // Now Customer is doing more than just representing the domain concept of Customer, // violates SRP CustomerDTO dto = bob.toDTO(); If they are indeed at odds, that's a vindication of my OCD. Otherwise, please fill me in on how these practices can co-exist peacefully. Thank you. Edit: someone wants a definition of the terms - Information Expert: objects that have the data needed for the operation should host the operation Tell Don't Ask: don't ask objects for data in order to do work; tell the objects to do the work Single Responsibility Principle: each object should have a narrowly defined responsibility

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• JLabel not greyed out when disabled, when HTML text displayed

  - by bguiz

  How do I get a JLabel displaying a HTML string to appear greyed out (which is the behaviour of JLabels that don't display HTML text)? Is there another way than actually changing the colour myself by modifying the foreground property? JLabel label1 = new JLabel("Normal text"); JLabel label2 = new JLabel("<html>HTML <b>text</b>"); // Both labels are now black in colour label1.setEnabled(false); label2.setEnabled(false); // label1 is greyed out, label2 is still black in colour Thank you very much for all of your responses. From what I gather, it seems that Java doesn't support automatic greying out of JLabels when they use HTML text. Suraj's solution has come closest to the fix considering the limitations. I have however, tried a different out-of-the box approach, where I have put the HTML text JLabels inside of an inner JPanel and did this: mInnerPanel.setEnabled(shouldShow); //shouldShow is a boolean value Which hasn't worked. Any suggestions for this way? EDIT: Added implemented solution.

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• In Netbeans, how do I avoid wsimport rebuilding web service clients every build?

  - by gustafc

  I'm on a project where we use NetBeans (6.8). We use several different web services, which we have added as web service references, and Netbeans auto-generates the Ant wsimport scripts for us. Very handy, with one drawback: The web service clients are recompiled every time ant is invoked. This slows down the build process considerably and has caused the number of sword-related injuries, maimings and deaths to skyrocket. Normally, I'd fix this by changing the wsimport element from <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"/> to <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"> <produces dir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" /> </wsimport> But I can't, 'cause this part of the Ant script is auto-generated. If I right-click the PonyService web service reference and select Edit Web Service Attributes ⇒ wsimport options, I can add attributes to the wsimport element, but not child elements. So: How do I add the produces child element to wsimport other than hacking the auto-generated Ant script? Or more generally: How do I make the NetBeans-generated wsimport not recompile the web service clients every time I build?

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• CakePHP: email validate action doesn't work when clicking on the email link

  - by bakerjr

  Hi, We've created the email validation part of our site. We built the site using CakePHP BTW. The problem is that it doesn't work when we click on the link in the email. The email is sent as plain text. A weird thing is that when we paste the link on the address bar, it works. Also when clicking on the link using Gmail and desktop email clients, it works as well. Other email providers doesn't work. EDIT: Additional info: Example link for the validation: http://localhost/users/validate/validatecodeblah12c023 When it's working it should login the user and redirect to the user dashboard. It goes to the front page when it's not working (see description above). Additional info 2: I did compare the results using Live HTTP headers and I found out that the only time it doesn't push through (goes to the login page for some reason) is when there's a 'Referrer: h ttp://mail.yahooblahblah...' Gmail for some reason doesn't have a 'Referer' line in it's headers.

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• C# : changing listbox row color?

  - by Meko

  HI. I am trying to changing backround colorof some rows on listbox.I have 2 list that one has all names and it shown on listbox.And second list has some same value with first list.I want to show that when clicking button it will search in listbox and in second list then will change color where found value. I may search in list box like for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < students.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(students[j].ToString())) { } } But I don't know which method to change appearances of row.Any help? *EDIT: * HI I made my code like private void ListBox1_DrawItem(object sender, DrawItemEventArgs e) { e.DrawBackground(); Graphics g = e.Graphics; Brush myBrush = Brushes.Black; Brush myBrush2 = Brushes.Red; g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.Silver), e.Bounds); e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[e.Index].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < existingStudents.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(existingStudents[j])) { e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[i].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush2, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); } } e.DrawFocusRectangle(); } Now it draws my list on listbox.But when I click button first it shows only student that in list with red color but when I click on listbox it again draws all elements.I want that it will show all element ,when I click button it will show all elements and founded element in list with red color.Whre is my mistake?

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• Data Binding to an object in C#

  - by Allen

  Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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• My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

  - by matdumsa

  Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

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• x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

  - by gmb11

  While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

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• git clone fails with "index-pack" failed?

  - by gct

  So I created a remote repo that's not bare (because I need redmine to be able to read it), and it's set to be shared with the group (so git init --shared=group). I was able to push to the remote repo and now I'm trying to clone it. If I clone it over the net I get this: remote: Counting objects: 4648, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (2837/2837), done. error: git-upload-pack: git-pack-objects died with error.B/s fatal: git-upload-pack: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. remote: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. fatal: early EOF fatal: index-pack failed I'm able to clone it locally without a problem, and I ran "git fsck", which only reports some dangling trees/blobs, which I understand aren't a problem. What could be causing this? I'm still able to pull from it, just not clone. I should note the remote git version is 1.5.6.5 while local is 1.6.0.4 I tried cloning my local copy of the repo, stripping out the .git folder and pushing to a new repo, then cloning the new repo and I get the same error, which leads me to believe it may be a file in the repo that's causing git-upload-pack to fail... Edit: I have a number of windows binaries in the repo, because I just built the python modules and then stuck them in there so everyone else didn't have to build them as well. If I remove the windows binaries and push to a new repo, I can clone again, perhaps that gives a clue. Trying to narrow down exactly what file is causing the problem now.

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• Adivce on Method overloads.

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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• How to open child forms positioned within MDI parent in VB.NET?

  - by user961627

  How do we arrange child forms in a parent MDI window? I'm able to call and display a child form from a menu on the parent, but the child pops up outside the parent - I want it to actually be inside the parent. I've checked in C# and VB.Net solutions but they all say pretty much the same, i.e. try to access LayoutMDI, such as here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/x9fhk181.aspx The problem is, where do I access this? When I'm in the code of my MDI parent, Me.LayoutMdi is not recognized. In which part of the application do I put the Me.LayoutMDI code? Edit The Me.LayoutMDI code worked in the parent after all. I'd been trying for a while but don't know where I was going wrong. However, the child continues to pop up out of the parent. Here's an image of how that happens. The broader form in the back is the parent, and the one with the gridview and two buttons is the new child that popped up. I want it to pop up "Docked" within the parent.

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• How to assign .net membership roles to individual database records

  - by mdresser

  I'm developing a system where we want to restrict the availability of information displayed to users based on their roles. e.g. I have a tabled called EventType (ID, EventTypeDescription) which contains the following records: 1, 'Basic Event' 2, 'Intermediate Event' 3, 'Admin Event' What I need to achieve is to filter the records returned based on the username (and hence role) of the logged-in user. e.g if an advanced user is logged in they will see all the event types, if the standard user is logged in they will only see the basic event type etc. Ideally id like to do this in a way which can be easily extended to other tables as necessary. So I'd like to avoid simply adding a 'Roles' field to each table where the data is user context sensitive. One idea I'm thinking of is to create some kind of permissions table like: PermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_RoleId, TableName, PrimaryKeyValue ) this has the drawback of using this is obviously having to use the table name to switch which table to join onto. Edit: In the absence of any better suggestions, I'm going to go with the last idea I mentioned, but instead of having a TableName field, I'm going to normalise the TableName out to it's own table as follows: TableNames ( ID, TableName ) UserPermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_UserId, TableID, PrimaryKeyValue )

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• Why can't I get a TRUE return in this prepared statement?

  - by Cortopasta

  I can't seem to get this to do anything but return false. My best guess is that the prepared statement isn't executing, but I have no idea why. private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } *EDIT:*I've even tried hard coding the username and password into the function itself to try and isolate the problem like this: private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $plain_username = "jim"; $md5_username = "waffles"; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); print_r($dbcon->errorInfo()); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } Still nothing :-/

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• Why does the Combo.SelectedValue get lost after some time

  - by tzup

  So I have this asp:DropDownList on a page. It renders like this (in IE7): <select name="ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista\',\'\')', 0)" id="ctl00_cphFilter_cbLista" class="agsSelect"> <option selected="selected" value="4350">A</option> <option value="4352">B</option> <option value="4349">C</option> <option value="4348">D</option> And then I have a grid and a button on the same page. When the user clicks the button the selected item of the dropdown is read (well a datasource object reads it) and the grid does a databind after a trip to a DB where it gets some data based on that selected value. This works fine most of the time. However sometimes, the selection in the dropdownlist seems to get lost even though the rendered page says the A is the selected item. The datasource object is defined like this: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsVM" runat="server" EnablePaging="False" SelectMethod="Select" SortParameterName="sort" TypeName="X.Business.Entities.LPVM.BE"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter Name="listaId" Type="Int32" ControlID="cphFilter$cbLista" PropertyName="SelectedValue" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Any ideas why the grid would reload its data with a select parameter that is 0 instead of the selected value of the dropdownlist? EDIT Suppose the dropdownlist is bound, the user selected B and the grid is bound as well and shows the right data. Now, I wait 2 minutes and I click the Refresh button. Surprisingly, at this particular moment the dropdownlist.SelectedValue (which I already know it was 4352 before I clicked because that's how it looks in the rendered page) is actually an empty string. Where did the value go?

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• Formatted text encoding in binary plist

  - by Sean

  I'm trying to do some scripting that edits a binary plist file. The plist describes the objects contained in a DVD studio pro file. It appears that a text box in DVD studio pro is encoded in the plist as hex data that describes the text string along with its formatting. I can't seem to figure out how to understand this data. Ideally, I'd like to be able to alter the text string but not the formatting. The following seems to describe a text box that says "Menu title here". There are two hex strings, one with the key called "dictionary" and the other called "string"; both are CFData. Any ideas how I can parse this or convert this into a format that I can edit directly? I've been playing around with writing a little converter in cocoa, but no luck yet. <dict> <key>Dictionary</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhAxOU0Rp Y3Rpb25hcnkA hIQITlNPYmpl Y3QAhYQBaQaS hISECE5TU3Ry aW5nAZSEASsG TlNGb250hpKE hIQGTlNGb250 HpSVJIQFWzM2 Y10GAAAAGgAA AP/+TAB1AGMA aQBkAGEARwBy AGEAbgBkAGUA AACEAWYVhAFj AJsBmwCbAIaS hJaXB05TQ29s b3KGkoSEhAdO U0NvbG9yAJSb AYQEZmZmZoPz 8nI/g/Dvbz+D 7OtrPwGGkoSW lwtOU0V4cGFu c2lvboaShISE CE5TTnVtYmVy AISEB05TVmFs dWUAlIQBKoSa moNHx9c9hpKE lpcNTlNPYmxp cXVlbmVzc4aS hJ6ghIQBZKEA hpKElpcQTlNQ YXJhZ3JhcGhT dHlsZYaShISE EE5TUGFyYWdy YXBoU3R5bGUA lIQEQ0NAUwAA hQCGkoSWlxFO U0JhY2tncm91 bmRDb2xvcoaS hJubA4QCZmYA AIaG </data> <key>String</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhBJOU0F0 dHJpYnV0ZWRT dHJpbmcAhIQI TlNPYmplY3QA hZKEhIQITlNT dHJpbmcBlIQB Kw9OZW51IFRp dGxlIEhlcmWG hAJpSQEPkoSE hAxOU0RpY3Rp b25hcnkAlIQB aQWShJaWDU5T T2JsaXF1ZW5l c3OGkoSEhAhO U051bWJlcgCE hAdOU1ZhbHVl AJSEASqEhAFk nQCGkoSWlgtO U0V4cGFuc2lv boaShJuchIQB Zp6DR8fXPYaS hJaWEE5TUGFy YWdyYXBoU3R5 bGWGkoSEhBBO U1BhcmFncmFw aFN0eWxlAJSE BENDQFMAAIUA hpKElpYGTlNG b250hpKEhIQG TlNGb250HpSZ JIQFWzM2Y10G AAAAGgAAAP/+ TAB1AGMAaQBk AGEARwByAGEA bgBkAGUAAACe FYQBYwCjAaMA owCGkoSWlgdO U0NvbG9yhpKE hIQHTlNDb2xv cgCUowGEBGZm ZmaD8/JyP4Pw 728/g+zraz8B hoaG </data> </dict>

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• Is There a Time at which to ignore IDisposable.Dispose?

  - by Mystagogue

  Certainly we should call Dipose() on IDisposable objects as soon as we don't need them (which is often merely the scope of a "using" statement). If we don't take that precaution then bad things, from subtle to show-stopping, might happen. But what about "the last moment" before process termination? If your IDisposables have not been explicitly disposed by that point in time, isn't it true that it no longer matters? I ask because unmanaged resources, beneath the CLR, are represented by kernel objects - and the win32 process termination will free all unmanaged resources / kernel objects anyway. Said differently, no resources will remain "leaked" after the process terminates (regardless if Dispose() was called on lingering IDisposables). Can anyone think of a case where process termination would still leave a leaked resource, simply because Dispose() was not explicitly called on one or more IDisposables? Please do not misunderstand this question: I am not trying to justify ignoring IDisposables. The question is just technical-theoretical. EDIT: And what about mono running on Linux? Is process termination there just as "reliable" at cleaning up unmanaged "leaks?"

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• JSP Document/JSPX: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are removed in the output?

  - by NoozNooz42

  I've got a "JSP Document" ("JSP in XML") nicely formatted and when the webpage is generated and sent to the user, some linebreaks are removed. Now the really weird part: apparently the "main" .jsp always gets all its linebreak removed but for any subsequent .jsp included from the main .jsp, linebreaks seems to be randomly removed (some are there, others aren't). For example, if I'm looking at the webpage served from Firefox and ask to "view source", I get to see what is generated. So, what determines when/how linebreaks are kept/removed? This is just an example I made up... Can you force a .jsp to serve this: <body><div id="page"><div id="header"><div class="title">... or this: <body> <div id="page"> <div id="header"> <div class="title">... ? I take it that linebreaks are removed to save on bandwidth, but what if I want to keep them? And what if I want to keep the same XML indentation as in my .jsp file? Is this doable? EDIT Following skaffman's advice, I took a look at the generated .java files and the "main" one doesn't have lots of out.write but not a single one writing tabs nor newlines. Contrary to that file, all the ones that I'm including from that main .jsp have lots of lines like: out.write("\t...\n"); So I guess my question stays exactly the same: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are included/removed in the output?

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• How to implement or emulate an "abstract" OCUnit test class?

  - by Quinn Taylor

  I have a number of Objective-C classes organized in an inheritance hierarchy. They all share a common parent which implements all the behaviors shared among the children. Each child class defines a few methods that make it work, and the parent class raises an exception for the methods designed to be implemented/overridden by its children. This effectively makes the parent a pseudo-abstract class (since it's useless on its own) even though Objective-C doesn't explicitly support abstract classes. The crux of this problem is that I'm unit testing this class hierarchy using OCUnit, and the tests are structured similarly: one test class that exercises the common behavior, with a subclass corresponding to each of the child classes under test. However, running the test cases on the (effectively abstract) parent class is problematic, since the unit tests will fail in spectacular fashion without the key methods. (The alternative of repeating the common tests across 5 test classes is not really an acceptable option.) The non-ideal solution I've been using is to check (in each test method) whether the instance is the parent test class, and bail out if it is. This leads to repeated code in every test method, a problem that becomes increasingly annoying if one's unit tests are highly granular. In addition, all such tests are still executed and reported as successes, skewing the number of meaningful tests that were actually run. What I'd prefer is a way to signal to OCUnit "Don't run any tests in this class, only run them in its child classes." To my knowledge, there isn't (yet) a way to do that, something similar to a +(BOOL)isAbstractTest method I can implement/override. Any ideas on a better way to solve this problem with minimal repetition? Does OCUnit have any ability to flag a test class in this way, or is it time to file a Radar? Edit: Here's a link to the test code in question. Notice the frequent repetition of if (...) return; to start a method, including use of the NonConcreteClass() macro for brevity.

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