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  • ajax error when calling from javascript

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I' still newby to this so I'll try to explain what I'm doing. Basically what I want is to load a dropdownlist depending on the value of a previous one, and I want it to load the data and appear when the other one is changed. This is the code I've written in my controller: public ActionResult GetClassesSearch(bool ajax, string phylumID, string kingdom){ IList<TaxClass> lists = null; int _phylumID = int.Parse(phylumID); int _kingdom = int.Parse(kingdom); lists = _taxon.getClassByPhylumSearch(_phylumID, _kingdom); return Json(lists); } and this is how I call the method from the javascript function: function loadClasses(_phylum) { var phylum = _phylum.value; $.getJSON("/Suspension/GetClassesSearch", { ajax: true, classID: phylum, kingdom: kingdom }, }, function(data) { $('#sClass').attr("disabled", true); $('#sClass').selectOptions("-2"); $('#sClass').removeOption(/./); var values = ''; $('#sClass').addOption("-2", "-Select All-"); for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { $('#sClass').addOption(data[i].RecId, data[i].TaxonName); } $('#sClass').selectOptions("-2"); $('#sClass').removeAttr("disabled"); }); } I can't get it to work. Any tips? Thanks in advance

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  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

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  • How to use BeanTreeView?

    - by joseph
    Hello. I have read through whole platform.netbeans.org and I do not find how to add some instance to existing children. I can add static array of diagrams(created in addNotify()), but how to add new Diagram object to the Children? I want to add it from an action that I will create(not included in code). See the code: public class ExploirerTopComponent extends TopComponent implements ExplorerManager.Provider { ... ... ... public ExploirerTopComponent() { ... ... associateLookup (ExplorerUtils.createLookup(mgr, getActionMap())); mgr.setRootContext(new MyProjects());// setDisplayName ("Projects explorer"); } public class MyProjects extends AbstractNode { public MyProjects(MainProject obj) { super (new ProjectsChildren(), Lookups.singleton(obj)); setDisplayName ( obj.getName()); } public MyProjects() { super (new ProjectsChildren()); setDisplayName ("My projects"); } } . public class ProjectsChildren extends Children.Keys{ public ProjectsChildren() { } @Override protected Node[] createNodes(Object o) { MainProject obj = (MainProject) o; return new Node[] { new MyDiagrams() }; } @Override protected void addNotify() { Diagram[] d = new Diagram[3]; for (int i = 0; i < pr.length; i++) { pr[i] = new Diagram("digram"); } setKeys (pr); } }

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  • UX question: is better to have "serious delete" or have "trash"

    - by ftrotter
    I am developing an application that allows for a user to manage some individual data points. One of the things that my users will want to do is "delete" but what should that mean? For a web application is it better to present a user with the option to have serious delete or to use a "trash" system? Under "serious delete" (would love to know if there is a better name for this...) you click "delete" and then the user is warned "this is final and tragic action. Once you do this you will not be able to get -insert data point name here- back, even if you are crying..." Then if they click delete... well it truly is gone forever. Under the "trash" model, you never trust that the user really wants to delete... instead you remove the data point from the "main display" and put into a bucket called "the trash". This gets it out of the users way, which is what they usually want, but they can get it back if they make a mistake. Obviously this is the way most operating systems have gone. The advantages of "serious delete" are: Easy to implement Easy to explain to users The disadvantages of "serious delete" are: it can be tragically final sometimes, cats walk on keyboards The advantages of the "trash" system are: user is safe from themselves bulk methods like "delete a bunch at once" make more sense saves support headaches The disadvantages of the "trash" system are": For sensitive data, you create an illusion of destruction users think something is gone, but it is not. Lots of subtle distinctions make implementation more difficult Do you "eventually" delete the contents of the trash? My question is which one is the right design pattern for modern web applications? With enough discussion to justify your answer... Would love to be pointed towards some relevant research. -FT

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  • asp.net mvc json result format

    - by ile
    public class JsonCategoriesDisplay { public JsonCategoriesDisplay() { } public int CategoryID { set; get; } public string CategoryTitle { set; get; } } public class ArticleCategoryRepository { private DB db = new DB(); public IQueryable<JsonCategoriesDisplay> JsonFindAllCategories() { var result = from c in db.ArticleCategories select new JsonCategoriesDisplay { CategoryID = c.CategoryID, CategoryTitle = c.Title }; return result; } .... } public class ArticleController : Controller { ArticleRepository articleRepository = new ArticleRepository(); ArticleCategoryRepository articleCategoryRepository = new ArticleCategoryRepository(); public string Categories() { var jsonCats = articleCategoryRepository.JsonFindAllCategories().ToList(); //return Json(jsonCats, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(new { jsonCats}); } } This results with following: {"jsonCats":[{"CategoryID":2,"CategoryTitle":"Politika"},{"CategoryID":3,"CategoryTitle":"Informatika"},{"CategoryID":4,"CategoryTitle":"Nova kategorija"},{"CategoryID":5,"CategoryTitle":"Testna kategorija"}]} If I use line that is commented and place JsonResult instead of returning string, I get following result: [{"CategoryID":2,"CategoryTitle":"Politika"},{"CategoryID":3,"CategoryTitle":"Informatika"},{"CategoryID":4,"CategoryTitle":"Nova kategorija"},{"CategoryID":5,"CategoryTitle":"Testna kategorija"}] But, I need result to be formatted like this: {'2':'Politika','3':'Informatika','4':'Nova kateorija','5':'Testna kategorija'} Is there a simple way to accomplish this or I will need to hardcode result? Thanks in advance!

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  • jquery newbie: combine validate with hidding submit button.

    - by Jeffb
    I'm new a jQuery. I have gotten validate to work with my form (MVC 1.0 / C#) with this: <script type="text/javascript"> if (document.forms.length > 0) { document.forms[0].id = "PageForm"; document.forms[0].name = "PageForm"; } $(document).ready(function() { $("#PageForm").validate({ rules: { SigP: { required: true } }, messages: { SigP: "<font color='red'><b>A Sig Value is required. </b></font>" } }); }); </script> I also want to hide the Submit button to prevent twitchy mouse syndrome from causing duplicate entry before the controller completes and redirects (I'm using an GPR pattern). The following works for this purpose: <script type="text/javascript"> // // prevent double-click on submit // jQuery('input[type=submit]').click(function() { if (jQuery.data(this, 'clicked')) { return false; } else { jQuery.data(this, 'clicked', true); return true; } }); </script> However, I can't get the two to work together. Specifically, if validate fails after the Submit button is clicked (which happens given how the form works), then I can't get the form submitted again unless I do a browser refresh that resets the 'clicked' property. How can I rewrite the second method above to not set the clicked property unless the form validates? Thx.

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  • Sending hidden fields via POST in iPhone in-app email

    - by Michael
    I'm letting my App's user send email from within the app to share some content on myserver. To do so I need to include a button with two bits of data and I want to use POST to keep it somewhat hidden. I've decided to add an html form using POST and two hidden fields in the email rather, like so: NSString *buttonCode = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<form method='post' action='http://www.example.com/iphone/nifty.php'> <input type='hidden' name='dataOne' value='%@'> <input type='hidden' name='dataTwo' value='%@'> <input type='submit'value='Submit'></form>",dataOne, dataTwo]; NSString *emailBody = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<b>%@ - %@</b>\n\n<HR WIDTH=200 SIZE=2 COLOR=#755f0f ALIGN=CENTER>\n Here is a email:<br><br>%@", dateString, timeString, buttonCode]; [picker setMessageBody:emailBody isHTML:YES]; I've confirmed by looking at the raw source of the email that the form is constructed correctly and I've copied and pasted it into a web page and it works. So here is the problem. When I click on the button in the received email (using apple's mail client) the dataOne and dataTwo variables don't get passed to my server. Is there a better way to do this or is the issue with my mail client?

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  • Django Upload form to S3 img and form validation

    - by citadelgrad
    I'm fairly new to both Django and Python. This is my first time using forms and upload files with django. I can get the uploads and saves to the database to work fine but it fails to valid email or check if the users selected a file to upload. I've spent a lot of time reading documentation trying to figure this out. Thanks! views.py def submit_photo(request): if request.method == 'POST': def store_in_s3(filename, content): conn = S3Connection(AWS_ACCESS_KEY_ID, AWS_SECRET_ACCESS_KEY) bucket = conn.create_bucket(AWS_STORAGE_BUCKET_NAME) mime = mimetypes.guess_type(filename)[0] k = Key(bucket) k.key = filename k.set_metadata("Content-Type", mime) k.set_contents_from_file(content) k.set_acl('public-read') if imghdr.what(request.FILES['image_url']): qw = request.FILES['image_url'] filename = qw.name image = filename content = qw.file url = "http://bpd-public.s3.amazonaws.com/" + image data = {image_url : url, user_email : request.POST['user_email'], user_twittername : request.POST['user_twittername'], user_website : request.POST['user_website'], user_desc : request.POST['user_desc']} s = BeerPhotos(data) if s.is_valid(): #import pdb; pdb.set_trace() s.save() store_in_s3(filename, content) return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('photos.views.thanks')) return s.errors else: return errors else: form = BeerPhotoForm() return render_to_response('photos/submit_photos.html', locals(),context_instance=RequestContext(request) forms.py class BeerPhotoForm(forms.Form): image_url = forms.ImageField(widget=forms.FileInput, required=True,label='Beer',help_text='Select a image of no more than 2MB.') user_email = forms.EmailField(required=True,help_text='Please type a valid e-mail address.') user_twittername = forms.CharField() user_website = forms.URLField(max_length=128,) user_desc = forms.CharField(required=True,widget=forms.Textarea,label='Description',) template.html <div id="stylized" class="myform"> <form action="." method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data" width="450px"> <h1>Photo Submission</h1> {% for field in form %} {{ field.errors }} {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {% endfor %} <label><span>Click here</span></label> <input type="submit" class="greenbutton" value="Submit your Photo" /> </form> </div>

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  • jQuery AJAX call not working in Webkit

    - by Brian
    I've run into a strange issue with Webkit based browsers (both Safari and Chrome - I'm testing on a Mac) and I am not sure what is causing it. Here's a small script I've created that replicates the issue: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function doRequest() { document.test.submit(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", cache: false, url: 'ajax.php?tmp=1', success: doSuccess }); } function doSuccess(t_data,t_status,req) { alert('Data is: '+ t_data +', XMLHTTPRequest status is: '+ req.status); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="test" method="post" action="ajax.html" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="file_1"> <br><input type="button" value="upload" onclick="doRequest();"> </form> </body> </html> ajax.php is: <?php echo $_REQUEST['tmp']; ?> This works as is on Firefox, but the XMLHTTPRequest status is always "0" on both Safari and Chrome. If I remove this line: document.test.submit(); then it works, but of course the form is not submitted. I've tried changing the form submit button from "button" to "submit", but that also prevents it from working on Safari or Chrome. What I am trying to accomplish is: submit the form call another script to get status on the file being uploaded via the form (it's for a small upload progress meter). Any help is really appreciated - I'm hopeful it is just a quirk I'm not familiar with. Thanks! Brian

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  • Is jQuery.parseJSON able to process all valid json?

    - by murze
    This piece of valid json (it has been generated using php's json_encode): {"html":"form is NOT valid<form id=\"articleform\" enctype=\"application\/x-www-form-urlencoded\" method=\"post\" action=\"\"><dl class=\"zend_form\">\n<dt id=\"title-label\">&nbsp;<\/dt>\n<dd id=\"title-element\">\n<input type=\"text\" name=\"title\" id=\"title\" value=\"Artikel K\"><\/dd>\n<dt id=\"articleFormSubmitted-label\">&nbsp;<\/dt>\n<dd id=\"articleFormSubmitted-element\">\n<input type=\"hidden\" name=\"articleFormSubmitted\" value=\"1\" id=\"articleFormSubmitted\"><\/dd>\n<dt id=\"submit-label\">&nbsp;<\/dt><dd id=\"submit-element\">\n<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submit\" id=\"submit\" value=\"Bewaar artikel\" onclick=\"this.value='Bezig...';\"><\/dd><\/dl><\/form><script type=\"text\/javascript\">\n\t $(\"#articleform\").submit(function(){\n $.post(\"\/admin\/ajax\/contenttree\/node\/9\/ajaxtarget\/ajaxContainer\", $(\"#articleform\").serialize(), function(html){$(\"#ajaxContainer\").html(html);} );\n\t\t return false;\n\t });\n\n <\/script>","newNodeName":""} is giving jQuery.parseJSON(data) and me a hard time. With this piece of code: alert('start'); alert(data); jQuery.parseJSON(data) alert('stop'); I get a message start and then the data (jsonstring above) is shown. The message "stop" never appears. When I use this json: {"html":"test","newNodeName":""} I've verified that my first big chick of json is valid. Why isn't it processed by jQuery.parseJSON Are there any special characters that don't go well with json?

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  • Post a form from asp to asp.Net

    - by Atomiton
    I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

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  • Debugging SIGABRT within NSManagedObjectContext -save:

    - by westsider
    From inside NSManagedObjectContext -save: I am getting this message: Assertion failed: (_Unwind_SjLj_Resume() can't return), function _Unwind_SjLj_Resume, file /SourceCache/libunwind/libunwind-24.1/src/Unwind-sjlj.c, line 326. Program received signal: “SIGABRT”. warning: Unable to read symbols for /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib (file not found). This happens when I delete an Experiment object with to-many with Run which has to-many with Sample which has to-one with Data. Experiment also has to-many with Page which has to-many with Display which has to-many to Run. I mention this to point out the cyclical nature of the graph. Here is a simplified graph of model: I had been using Delete Rules but have now switched to "No Action" delete rules in combination with -prepareForDeletion methods for all of these classes. This change made no difference. In both cases, the error message is the same. Interestingly, when I relaunch the app, all the objects that were marked for deletion have been deleted. Also, if an Experiment has no Run objects, then deletion works without incidence. For that matter, deleting a single Run from an Experiment also works. I am hoping that someone has seen something like this and can offer advice on what would cause this. Or, if someone has advice on how to get libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib for iOS 4.2.1, that might also be helpful. Update: I followed advice found here and was able to get Xcode to find libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib for iOS 4.2.1. But this did not help at all in diagnosing problem - which persists.

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  • scripting a google docs form submission

    - by justSteve
    I'm trying to create a bookmarklet that parses a page and sends the results to a googledocs spreadsheet via a form that I've defined. The relevent bit of the script is: var form = document.createElement("form"); form.action = "http://spreadsheets.google.com/formResponse?formkey=Fd0SHgwQ3YwSFd5UHZpM1QxMlNOdlE6MA&ifq"; form.method = "POST"; form.id="ss-form"; form.innerHTML = ["<input id='entry_0' name = 'entry.0.single' value = '" + orderDate + "'/>", "<input name = 'entry.2.single' value = '" + email + "'/>", "<input name = 'entry.3.single' value = '" + customerID + "'/>", ].join(""); form.submit(); alert(form.innerHTML); // returns: Nothing is being saved to the form via the bookmarklet - any way to capture google's response in my bookmarklet's code? (fwiw, i've injected jQuery via jQueryify) EDIT: Firebug's Net panel isn't hearing any of the activity triggered by the bookmarklet - How about i approach this from goolgle's viewform method instead of formresponse. The form i'm trying to submit is located at: http://spreadsheets.google.com/viewform?hl=en&formkey=dFd0SHgwQ3YwSFd5UHZpM1QxMlNOdlE6MA How can I go about injecting the script values into that form and then submitting that - again...via script within the bookmarklet that would have been triggered while on the page being parsed?

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  • Facebook failing on XFBML call using Yii Framework

    - by Wenzi
    I have used this same call in other IFRAME Facebook apps, but it gives me nothing at all in terms of output. I am trying it on Yii and getting nothing. <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function() { FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML"], function() { FB.init('xxxxxx', 'xd_receiver.htm'); FB.XFBML.Host.get_areElementsReady().waitUnitlReady(function() { document.getElementById("container").style.visibility = "visible"; }); }); }; </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function publish() { FB_RequireFeatures(["Connect"], function() { FB.init('xxxxxx', 'xd_receiver.htm'); FB.ensureInit(function() { FB.Connect.streamPublish(); }); }); } </script> <fb:serverFbml style="width: 755px;"> <script type="text/fbml"> <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="http://apps.facebook.com/ixxxx" method="POST" invite="true" type="rrrrr" content="rrrrr <?php echo htmlentities("<fb:req-choice url=\"http://apps.facebook.com/XXXX\" label=\"Authorize My Application\"") ?>" > <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite your friends to use SuperThief."> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> </script> </fb:serverFbml>

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  • Would OpenID or OAuth work for authorization/authentication on a distributed web service?

    - by David Eyk
    We're in the early stages of designing a RESTful/resource-oriented web service API for a computational lingustics application. Because many of the resources we plan to serve are rights-encumbered, a key design decision has been to specify the platform so that each resource provider can expose their own web service that complies with the API spec. This way, the rights owner maintains control over their content (and thus the ability to throttle or deny access at will) and a direct relationship with the consumer, while still being able to participate in in the collaborative network. At the same time, to simplify the job of writing a client for this service, we want to allow a client access to the distributed service through one end-point, with the server handling content negotiation and retrieval from the appropriate providers. Right now, we're at an impasse on authentication/authorization schemes. One of our number has argued for the (technical) simplicity of a central authentication registry, but others are concerned about the organizational complexity of such a scheme. It seems to me, based on an albeit limited understanding of the technologies, that a combination of OpenID and OAuth would do the trick, with a client authenticating with the end-point via OpenID, and the server taking action on the user's behalf with the various content providers using OAuth. I've only ever seen implementations (e.g. stackoverflow, twitter, etc.) where a human was present to intervene, and I still need to do more research on these technologies. Would a scheme like this work for an automated web service, or would it make the client too difficult to implement and operate?

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  • Spring MVC parameter validation

    - by Don
    Hi, I've defined a controller, validator and command class for a Spring 2.5 MVC application like this: public class ResourceController extends AbstractCommandController { private MessageRetriever messageRetriever; protected ModelAndView handle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception { ResourceCommand resourceCommand = (ResourceCommand) command; // I NEED TO CHECK HERE IF COMMAND IS VALID? } public static class ResourceCommand { private String module; private String site; private String lang; // GETTERS AND SETTERS OMITTED } public static class ResourceValidator implements Validator { public boolean supports(Class clazz) { return ResourceCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } public void validate(Object obj, Errors errors) { ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "module", "MODULE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "site", "SITE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "lang", "LANG_REQUIRED"); } } } I have wired these all together in the application context: <bean id="resourceController" class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController"> <property name="commandClass" value="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceCommand"/> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceValidator"/> </property> </bean> However, I can't figure out how to actually check whether the command is valid or not - I assume the framework calls the validator, but how do I get access to the result? Incidentally, I'm using Java 1.4, so can't use any solutions that require annotations or other Java 1.5 features. Thanks, Don

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  • Java/Spring: Why won't Spring use the validator object I have configured?

    - by GMK
    I'm writing a web app with Java & Spring 2.5.6 and using annotations for bean validation. I can get the basic annotation validation working fine, and Spring will even call a custom Validator declared with @Validator on the target bean. But it always instantiates a brand new Validator object to do it. This is bad because the new validator has none of the injected dependencies it needs to run, and so it throws a null pointer exception on validate. I need one of two things and I don't know how to do either. Convince Spring to use the validator I have already configured. Convince Spring to honor the @Autowired annotations when it creates the new validator. The validator has the @Component annotation, like this. @Component public class AccessCodeBeanValidator implements Validator { @Autowired private MessageSource messageSource; Spring finds the validator in the component scan, injects the autowired dependencies, but then ignores it and creates a new one at validation time. The only thing that I can do at the moment is add a validator reference into the controller for each validator object and use that ref directly, instead of relying on the bean validation framework to call the validator for me. It looks like this. // first validate via the annotations on the bean beanValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); // then validate using the specific validator class acbValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { If anyone knows how to convince spring to use the existing validator, instead of creating a new one, or how to make it do the autowiring when it creates a new one, I'd love to know.

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  • Windows 7 64 Bit - ODBC32 - Legacy App Problem

    - by Arturo Caballero
    Good day StackOverFlowlers, I´m a little stuck (really stuck) with an issue with a legacy application on my organization. I have a Windows 7 Enterprise 64 Bit machine, Access 2000 Installed and the Legacy App (Is built with something like VB but older) The App uses System ODBC in order to connect to a SQL 2000 DataBase on a Remote Server. I created the ODCB using C:\Windows\SysWOW64\odbcad32.exe app in order to create a System DSN. I did not use the Windows 7 because it is not visible to the Legacy App. I tested the ODBC connection with Access and worked ok, I can access the remote database. Then I run the legacy App as Administrator and the App can see the ODBC, but I´m getting errors on credential validation and I´m getting this error: DIAG [08001] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. (17) DIAG [01000] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]ConnectionOpen (Connect()). (53) DIAG [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed (0) I use Trusted Connection on the ODBC in order to validate the user by Domain Controller. I think that the credentials are not being sent by the Legacy App to the ODBC, or something like that. I don´t have the source code of the Legacy App in order to debug the connection. Also, I turned off the Firewall. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!

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  • Nested multithread operations tracing

    - by Sinix
    I've a code alike void ExecuteTraced(Action a, string message) { TraceOpStart(message); a(); TraceOpEnd(message); } The callback (a) could call ExecuteTraced again, and, in some cases, asynchronously (via ThreadPool, BeginInvoke, PLINQ etc, so I've no ability to explicitly mark operation scope). I want to trace all operation nested (even if they perform asynchronously). So, I need the ability to get last traced operation inside logical call context (there may be a lot of concurrent threads, so it's impossible to use lastTraced static field). There're CallContext.LogicalGetData and CallContext.LogicalSetData, but unfortunately, LogicalCallContext propagates changes back to the parent context as EndInvoke() called. Even worse, this may occure at any moment if EndInvoke() was called async. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/883486/endinvoke-changes-current-callcontext-why Also, there is Trace.CorrelationManager, but it based on CallContext and have all the same troubles. There's a workaround: use the CallContext.HostContext property which does not propagates back as async operation ended. Also, it does'nt clone, so the value should be immutable - not a problem. Though, it's used by HttpContext and so, workaround is not usable in Asp.Net apps. The only way I see is to wrap HostContext (if not mine) or entire LogicalCallContext into dynamic and dispatch all calls beside last traced operation. Help, please!

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  • Load external script dynamic, and access it, so I can trigger its domready function

    - by Didier
    I am trying to load the Zopim chat client. Normally it is included with a document write action. This causes it to be loaded before the domReady function is triggered, as it needs this to start itself. I want to load it later, and this works by using prototype (framework determined by Magento) to create a new script element and attaching it to the head. The script is loaded perfectly, but the domReady doesn't fire, so the script is never started. The script is a nameless class, by this I mean that all its functions are encapsulated in {} UPDATE: Sorry, I got it wrong, it is as self invoking function, the same syntax as the first answer suggest. (function C(){ })(); This function call when run sets up listening events for the domReady event under various browsers and then waits. When the domready event fires, it calls a function (that is within the self-invoked function) that starts everything. What I need, is a way to access this function somehow. END UPDATE Within that is a function named C. How can I call this function directly? Or put another way, how can I start an external javascript file that depends on domready going off, when that event doesn't happen? Can I load an external javascript file into a variable, so I can name the class? Can I access the nameless class {} somehow maybe via the script tag? Is there a way to alter the external file/javascript so I can have it look for another event, one that I can trigger? About the only solution I can think of at the moment is to create a iframe and load the script in that.

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  • Rails - How can I display nicely indented JSON?

    - by sa125
    Hi - I have a controller action that returns JSON data for api purposes, and plenty of it. I want to be able to inspect it in the browser, and have it nicely indented for the viewer. For example, if my data is data = { :person => { :id => 1, :name => "john doe", :age => 30 }, :person => ... } I want to see { "person" : { "id" : 1, "name" : "john doe", "age" : 30, }, "person" : { "id" : 2, "name" : "jane doe", "age" : 31, }, ...etc } In the view. I thought about using different routes to get the bulk/pretty data: # GET /api/json # ... respond_to do |format| format.html { render :json => data.to_json } end # GET /api/json/inspect # ... respond_to do |format| format.html { render :text => pretty_json } end Anyone knows of a gem/plugin that does this or something similar? I tried using JSON.pretty_generate, but it doesn't seem to work inside rails (2.3.5). thanks.

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  • jQuery ajax link, returned data includes a from that wont submit

    - by calumogg
    Hi everyone, I have a problem with the returned data from a ajax request. Basically when I click on a link it runs a ajax request to load some html into a div, that part is working fine the problem comes when the data has been loaded. Part of the html loaded is a form, this form works fine if I load the page directly but when it is loaded through ajax into the div it wont submit but the rest of the links in the html work fine. Here is the code that requests the remote html data: // Ajax to load image editing page $('a.editpicture').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); var picture = $(this).attr("id") $.ajax({ url: 'http://localhost/digital-xposure/index.php/members/viewpicture/' + picture, success: function(data) { $('#update-picture').html(data); } }); }); This is the form it loads: <form method="post" id="updatepicture" name="updatepicture" action="http://localhost/digital-xposure/index.php/members/editpicture"/> <p>Title<input type="text" name="title" id="title" style="input" value="<?php echo $title; ?>"></P> <p>Album<?php echo $albums;?></p> <p>Description<textarea name="description" id="description" cols="50" rows="5"><?php echo $description; ?></textarea></P> <input type="hidden" name="filename" id="filename" value="<?php echo $filename; ?>" /> <input type="button" name="update-submit" id="update-submit" value="Update details" class="button"> Or <input type="button" onClick="location.href='<?php echo base_url(); ?>index.php/members/deletepicture/<?php echo $filename; ?>'" value="Delete picture" class="button"> </form> Any ideas why the form wont submit after being loaded into the div? Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks. Calum

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  • Jquery Form ajaxSubmit not submitting

    - by Gazler
    Hi, I am using the JQuery Form extension to submit a form with AJAX. I have the following code: var options = { beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: 'post', // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) clearForm: true, // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: timeout: 3000 }; $('#composeForm').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).find(':disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); // !!! Important !!! // always return false to prevent standard browser submit and page navigation return false; }); The problem is that the form doesn't appear to be submitting, or atleast the success function is not being called. If I remove the return false, then the submission works, but the page navigates away. Is there a problem in my code that could be causing this? Cheers, Gazler.

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  • BroadcastReceiver not receiving an alarm's broadcast

    - by juanjux
    I have a code that sets a new repeating alarm (on production I'll use a inexactRepeating), but the BroadCastReceiver I've registered for handling it is not being called. Here is the code where I set the alarm: newAlarmPeriod = 5000; // For debugging Intent alarmIntent = new Intent(this, GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver.class); PendingIntent sender = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, Constants.CHECK_ALARM_CODE, alarmIntent, 0); AlarmManager am = (AlarmManager) getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); am.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, System.currentTimeMillis() + newAlarmPeriod, newAlarmPeriod, sender); It seems to work and it triggers and alarm every five seconds, as seen in the output of "adb shell dumpsys alarm": DUMP OF SERVICE alarm: Current Alarm Manager state: Realtime wakeup (now=1269941046923): RTC_WAKEUP #1: Alarm{43cbac58 type 0 android} type=0 when=1269997200000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43bb1738: PendingIntentRecord{43bb1248 android broadcastIntent}} RTC_WAKEUP #0: Alarm{43ce30e0 type 0 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader} type=0 when=1269941049555 repeatInterval=5000 count=1 operation=PendingIntent{43d990c8: PendingIntentRecord{43d49108 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader broadcastIntent}} RTC #1: Alarm{43bfc250 type 1 android} type=1 when=1269993600000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43c5a618: PendingIntentRecord{43c4f048 android broadcastIntent}} RTC #0: Alarm{43d67dd8 type 1 android} type=1 when=1269941100000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43c4e0f0: PendingIntentRecord{43c4f6c8 android broadcastIntent}} Broadcast ref count: 0 Alarm Stats: android 24390ms running, 0 wakeups 80 alarms: act=android.intent.action.TIME_TICK flg=0x40000004 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader 26ms running, 2 wakeups 2 alarms: flg=0x4 cmp=com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader/.GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver But for some reason my BroadCastReceiver is not being called when the alarm is triggered. I've declared it on the Manifest: <receiver android:name=".GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver" /> And this is the abbreviated code: public class GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver{ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Toast.makeText(context, "XXX Alarm worked.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.d("XXX", "GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver.onReceive"); }

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  • Preloading Winforms

    - by msarchet
    I am currently working on a project where we have a couple very control heavy user controls that are being used inside a MDI Controller. This is a Line of Business app and it is very data driven. The problem that we were facing was the aforementioned controls would load very very slowly, we dipped our toes into the waters of multi-threading for the control loading but that was not a solution for a plethora of reasons. Our solution to increasing the performance of the controls ended up being to 'pre-load' the forms onto a hidden window, create a stack of the existing forms, and pop off of the stack as the user requested a form. Now the current issue that I'm seeing that will arise as we push this 'fix' out to our testers, and the ultimately our users is this: Currently the 'hidden' window that contains the preloaded forms is visible in task manager, and can be shut down thus causing all of the controls to be lost. Then you have to create them on the fly losing the performance increase. Secondly, when the user uses up the stack we lose the performance increase (current solution to this is discussed below). For the first problem, is there a way to hide this window from task manager, perhaps by creating a parent form that encapsulates both the main form for the program and the hidden form? Our current solution to the second problem is to have an inactivity timer that when it fires checks the stacks for the forms, and loads a new form onto the stack if it isn't full. However this still has the potential of causing a hang in the UI while it creates the forms. A possible solutions for this would be to put 'used' forms back onto the stack, but I feel like there may be a better way.

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