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  • Executing untrusted code

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

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  • Stopping/Removing an embedded player.

    - by Rajat
    Hi, I am working on a webpage where i have to include an embedded video.The video is hosted on some other domain.I am able to embed the video and autoplay once the web page is loaded.However i have a requirement where i have to remove the div displaying the video once it is played , and in place of the video i have to now display some text. The problem is i am able to do autoplay by the autostart variable in the embed tag...but how do i know that the video has ended.The hosting company only provides an embed tag and they donot have any player apis to use. One way (or rather a workaround) that i feel is to start a eventlistener in the background and see for the total time of the video and when that time is reached remove the content.But the problem is what if the user pauses the video, then also the div would be deleted. I am new to flash.Are there some standard variables or actions that we can pass as flashvars to a swf file to stop a running player or to know the state of the player (Note we are only getting an embed tag from the video hosting site so we donot own that code and they donot have much documenation to help me out with the code). Thanks for your help.

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  • How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • How do you deserialize a collection with child collections?

    - by Stuart Helwig
    I have a collection of custom entity objects one property of which is an ArrayList of byte arrays. The custom entity is serializable and the collection property is marked with the following attributes: [XmlArray("Images"), XmlArrayItem("Image",typeof(byte[]))] So I serialize a collection of these custom entities and pass them to a web service, as a string. The web service receives the string and byte array in tact, The following code then attempts to deserialize the collection - back into custom entities for processing... XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(List<myCustomEntity>)); StringReader reader = new StringReader(xmlStringPassedToWS); List<myCustomEntity> entities = (List<myCustomEntity>)ser.Deserialize(reader); foreach (myCustomEntity e in entities) { // ...do some stuff... foreach (myChildCollection c in entities.ChildCollection { // .. do some more stuff.... } } I've checked the XML resulting from the initial serialization and it does contain byte array - the child collection, as does the StringReader built above. After the deserialization process, the resulting collection of custom entites is fine, except that each object in the collection does not contain any items in its child collection. (i.e. it doesn't get to "...do some more stuff..." above. Can someone please explain what I am doing wrong? Is it possible to serialize ArrayLists within a generic collection of custom entities?

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  • Ajax: Add new <div> from JSON with jQuery

    - by Francesc
    Hi, In a page I have this HTML code: <div id="content"> <div class="container"> <div id="author">@Francesc</div> <div id="message"Hey World!</div <div id="time"13/06/2010 11:53 GMT</div </div> <div class="container"> <div id="author">@SomeOtherUser</div> <div id="message"Bye World!</div <div id="time"13/06/2010 14:53 GMT</div </div> <div class="container"> <div id="author">@Me</div> <div id="message"Hey World!</div <div id="time"13/06/2010 18:53 GMT</div </div> </div> I want to ask, how to get a JSON file, from the server that has more recent messages and put them to the top, I mean above the first <div class="container">. Another question, it's possible to pass with GET when submiting the request to the server, the time of last update? How can I do it? Thanks.

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  • Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

    - by NXT
    Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

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  • URL protocol handler shell execute problem

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I'm working on a small hobby web site where I'm able to launch a local app with certain arguments based on links. Setting up a protocol wasn't difficult, as described in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa767914(VS.85).aspx, but I have one dilemma: Let's say the protocol is: foo:127.0.0.1:1111, so a link like href="foo:127.0.0.1:1111" would launch an app like: bar.exe "%1". Since I don't have any control over bar.exe (if I had, then it would be no problem to just parse it, obviously), I need some help parsing %1. bar.exe will launch correctly if it's run as bar.exe 127.0.0.1:1111, but not if it's run as bar.exe foo:127.0.0.1:1111. So I guess my question is... is there ANY way to tell the registry to pass on not %1, but a trimmed %1? (Thinking in terms of regexp where you have match[0] = all of the matched, match[1] = first capture in the matched text). I can solve it by having a .bat instead of .exe, but as I would like to make it as easy as possible for the user to use, I would LOVE it if I could handle it all stricly in registry. Any help is greatly appreciated! Chuck

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  • PHP Exceptions in Classes

    - by mike condiff
    I'm writing a web application (PHP) for my friend and have decided to use my limited OOP training from Java. My question is what is the best way to note in my class/application that specific critical things failed without actually breaking my page. Currently my problem is I have an Object "SummerCamper" which takes a camper_id as it's argument to load all of the necessary data into the object from the database. Say someone specifies a camper_id in the querystring that does not exist, I pass it to my objects constructor and the load fails. Currently I don't see a way for me to just return false from the constructor. I have read I could possibly do this with Exceptions, throwing an exception if no records are found in the database or if some sort of validation fails on input of the camper_id from the application etc. However, I have not really found a great way to alert my program that the Object Load has failed. I tried returning false from within the CATCH but the Object still persists in my php page. I do understand I could put a variable $is_valid = false if the load fails and then check the Object using a get method but I think there may be better ways. What is the best way of achieving the essential termination of an object if a load fails? Should I load data into the object from outside the constructor? Is there some osrt of design pattern that I should look into? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Emptying the datastore in GAE

    - by colwilson
    I know what you're thinking, 'O not that again!', but here we are since Google have not yet provided a simpler method. I have been using a queue based solution which worked fine: import datetime from models import * DELETABLE_MODELS = [Alpha, Beta, AlphaBeta] def initiate_purge(): for e in config.DELETABLE_MODELS: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, 'purging', _queue = 'purging') class NotEmptyException(Exception): pass def delete_entities(e, queue): try: q = e.all(keys_only=True) db.delete(q.fetch(200)) ct = q.count(1) if ct > 0: raise NotEmptyException('there are still entities to be deleted') else: logging.info('processing %s completed' % queue) except Exception, err: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, then, queue, _queue = queue) logging.info('processing %s deferred: %s' % (queue, err)) All this does is queue a request to delete some data (once for each class) and then if the queued process either fails or knows there is still some stuff to delete, it re-queues itself. This beats the heck out of hitting the refresh on a browser for 10 minutes. However, I'm having trouble deleting AlphaBeta entities, there are always a few left at the end. I think because it contains Reference Properties: class AlphaBeta(db.Model): alpha = db.ReferenceProperty(Alpha, required=True, collection_name='betas') beta = db.ReferenceProperty(Beta, required=True, collection_name='alphas') I have tried deleting the indexes relating to these entity types, but that did not make any difference. Any advice would be appreciated please.

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • Passing an array of structs in C

    - by lelouch
    I'm having trouble passing an array of structs to a function in C. I've created the struct like this in main: int main() { struct Items { char code[10]; char description[30]; int stock; }; struct Items MyItems[10]; } I then access it like: MyItems[0].stock = 10; etc. I want to pass it to a function like so: ReadFile(MyItems); The function should read the array, and be able to edit it. Then I should be able to access the same array from other functions. I've tried heaps of declarations but none of them work. e.g. void ReadFile(struct Items[10]) I've had a look around for other questions, but the thing is they're all done different, with typedefs and asterisks. My teacher hasn't taught us pointers yet, so I'd like to do it with what I know. Any ideas? :S EDIT: Salvatore's answer is working after I fixed my prototype to: void ReadFile(struct Items[9]);

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  • Change nhibernate config with nant xmlpoke

    - by isuruceanu
    Hi All How can I change the connection string from nhibernate.config file using nant the problem is that all examples are about changing attribute value, but nhibernate has inner text eq: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.connection_string">Data Source.\server;Database=UnitTestDb;UID=user;pwd=pass;</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="connection.release_mode">auto</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">500</property> .... I need to change property connection.connection_string <xmlpoke file="${nhibernate.file}" xpath="/hibernate-configuration/session-factory/add[@key='connection.connection_string']/@value" value="${connection.string}"> </xmlpoke> this does not work in this case. Thanks

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  • Formating Date in Freemarker to say "Today", "Yesterday", etc.

    - by egervari
    Is there a way in freemarker to compare dates to test if the date is today or yesterday... or do I have to write code in Java to do these tests? I basically want to do this: <#------------------------------------------------------------------------------ formatDate -------------------------------------------------------------------------------> <#macro formatDate date showTime=true> <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?is_today> Today <#elseif date?is_yesterday> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if> </#macro> EDIT: My best guess to implement this is to pass "today" and "yesterday" into the model for the pages that use this function and then compare the date values against these 2 objects in the model. I am out of out of options, but I'd rather not have to do this for every page that uses this macro. Any other options that are nicer? <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?date?string.short == today?date?string.short> Today <#elseif date?date?string.short == yesterday?date?string.short> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if>

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  • OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

    - by chaosbeaker
    Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

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  • How to specialize template for type derived from particular type

    - by relaxxx
    I have class World which manages creation of object... After creation it calls afterCreation method and I the created object is user-defined type derived from Entity (eg. MyEntity), I want to call addEntity. I the object was something else, I want to do nothing. addEntity must be called with appropriate T, because it generates unique IDs for every derived class etc. Here is my solution: template <int v> struct ToType { enum { value = v }; }; template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t) { afterCreation(t, ToType<std::is_base_of<Entity, T>::value>()); } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<true>) { addEntity(t); //here I cant pass Entity *, I need the real type, eg. MyEntity } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<false>) { } My question is - Can in be done better way? How can I simulate following code without ToType or similar? template <typename T> void afterCreation(){/*generic impl*/} template <typename T where T is derived from Entity> void afterCreation(){/*some specific stuff*/} "specialize" in the title is only to describe my intention, no need to solve problem with template specialization

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  • How do I find all paths through a set of given nodes in a DAG?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a list of items (blue nodes below) which are categorized by the users of my application. The categories themselves can be grouped and categorized themselves. The resulting structure can be represented as a Directed Acyclic Graph (DAG) where the items are sinks at the bottom of the graph's topology and the top categories are sources. Note that while some of the categories might be well defined, a lot is going to be user defined and might be very messy. Example: On that structure, I want to perform the following operations: find all items (sinks) below a particular node (all items in Europe) find all paths (if any) that pass through all of a set of n nodes (all items sent via SMTP from example.com) find all nodes that lie below all of a set of nodes (intersection: goyish brown foods) The first seems quite straightforward: start at the node, follow all possible paths to the bottom and collect the items there. However, is there a faster approach? Remembering the nodes I already passed through probably helps avoiding unnecessary repetition, but are there more optimizations? How do I go about the second one? It seems that the first step would be to determine the height of each node in the set, as to determine at which one(s) to start and then find all paths below that which include the rest of the set. But is this the best (or even a good) approach? The graph traversal algorithms listed at Wikipedia all seem to be concerned with either finding a particular node or the shortest or otherwise most effective route between two nodes. I think both is not what I want, or did I just fail to see how this applies to my problem? Where else should I read?

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  • What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

    - by Rupert
    Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

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  • Strange problem with PHP and sessions

    - by Jhorra
    So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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  • $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA and Wordpress media_handle_upload

    - by BaronVonKaneHoffen
    Hi there! So I'm making something for which users need to upload images from a canvas element (on the front end) using Wordpress's in-built Media Upload API. I've successfully uploaded images with the API from a file input in a form: <input type="file" name="async-upload" id="async-upload" size="40" /> ... <?php $new_attach_id = media_handle_upload( 'async-upload', $new_id ); ?> and I've saved images from the canvas using my own script: <script type="text/javascript"> ... var img = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); ... ajax.send(img ); </script> ... <?php $imageData=$GLOBALS['HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA']; $filteredData=substr($imageData, strpos($imageData, ",")+1); $unencodedData=base64_decode($filteredData); $fp = fopen( 'saved_images/canv_save_test.png', 'wb' ); fwrite( $fp, $unencodedData); ... ?> Problem is, Wordpress's media_handle_upload() only accepts an index to the $_FILES array for the upload. So the question is: How can I pass the image data from HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA to it? Could I make the $_FILES['tmp-name'] point to it somehow? Could I use another script as an intermediate step somehow? Could I unleash the monkeys on the typewriter until they come up with the answer? Any help very very much appreciated! Thanks, Kane

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  • Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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  • How to decrypt a string encrypted with HMACSHA1?

    - by Bob
    I'm an encryption novice trying to pass some values back and forth between systems. I can encrypt the value, but can't seem to figure out how to decrypt on the other end. I've created a simple Windows Forms application using VB.NET. Trying to input a value and a key, encrypt and then decrypt to get the original value. Here's my code so far. Any help greatly appreciated. Thanks. Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Security.Cryptography Imports System.Text Public Class Form1 Private Sub btnEncode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEncode.Click Dim hmacsha1 As New HMACSHA1(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtKey.Text)) Dim hashValue As Byte() = hmacsha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtValue.Text)) txtResult.Text = BytesToHexString(hashValue) hmacsha1.Clear() End Sub Private Sub btnDecode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDecode.Click '??? End Sub Private Function BytesToHexString(ByVal bytes As Byte()) As String Dim output As String = String.Empty Dim i As Integer = 0 Do While i < bytes.Length output += bytes(i).ToString("X2") i += 1 Loop Return output End Function End Class

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  • unable to use html form post in php

    - by kossibox
    Hello i have an html form and i'm posting data but i'm unable to get the posted data on a php page (same page) can you please help me. thanks in advance <div class="left"> <form name="form_signin" method="post" onsubmit="return signinValid();" > <table> <tr> <td> Email : </td> <td> <input type="text" id="email" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Mot de Passe : </td> <td> <input type="password" id ="pass" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> &nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Connexion" length ="40"> </td> </tr> </table> </form> <?php include 'includes.php'; include DB_CONNECT_FILE; //session_start(); print_r($_POST); // prints an empty array even if fields are filled $smart->assign('tpl_file',TEMPLATES_DIR.'signin.html'); $smart->display(TEMPLATES_DIR."with_right.html"); include DB_DISCONNECT_FILE; ?>

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  • Passing Values to Controllers

    - by Dru
    I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • OOP, Interface Design and Encapsulation

    - by Mau
    C# project, but it could be applied to any OO languages. 3 interfaces interacting: public interface IPublicData {} public /* internal */ interface IInternalDataProducer { string GetData(); } public interface IPublicWorker { IPublicData DoWork(); IInternalDataProducer GetInternalProducer(); } public class Engine { Engine(IPublicWorker worker) {} IPublicData Run() { DoSomethingWith(worker.GetInternalProducer().GetData()); return worker.DoWork(); } } Clearly Engine is parametric in the actual worker that does the job. A further source of parametrization is how we produce the 'internal data' via IInternalDataProducer. This implementation requires IInternalDataProducer to be public because it's part of the declaration of the public interface IPublicWorker. However, I'd like it to be internal since it's only used by the engine. A solution is make the IPublicWorker produce the internal data itself, but that's not very elegant since there's only a couple of ways of producing it (while there are many more worker implementations), therefore it's nice to delegate to a couple of separate concrete classes. Moreover, the IInternalDataProducer is used in more places inside the engine, so it's good for the engine to pass around the actual object. I'm looking for elegant ideas/patterns. Cheers :-)

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