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• Help regarding database and logic layer for my ASP.NET MVC application

  - by Ismail S

  I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right?

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• Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

  - by Willis Blackburn

  I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

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• SQLAlchemy Custom Type Which Contains Multiple Columns

  - by Kekoa

  I would like to represent a datatype as a single column in my model, but really the data will be stored in multiple columns in the database. I cannot find any good resources on how to do this in SQLAlchemy. I would like my model to look like this(this is a simplified example using geometry instead of my real problem which is harder to explain): class 3DLine(DeclarativeBase): start_point = Column(my.custom.3DPoint) end_point = Column(my.custom.3DPoint) This way I could assign an object with the (x, y, z) components of the point at once without setting them individually. If I had to separate each component, this could get ugly, especially if each class has several of these composite objects. I would combine the values into one encoded field except that I need to query each value separately at times. I was able to find out how to make custom types using a single column in the documentation. But there's no indication that I can map a single type to multiple columns. I suppose I could accomplish this by using a separate table, and each column would be a foreign key, but in my case I don't think it makes sense to have a one to one mapping for each point to a separate table, and this still does not give the ability to set the related values all at once.

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• Is it a good idea to use MySQL and Neo4j together?

  - by Sanoj

  I will make an application with a lot of similar items (millions), and I would like to store them in a MySQL database, because I would like to do a lot of statistics and search on specific values for specific columns. But at the same time, I will store relations between all the items, that are related in many connected binary-tree-like structures (transitive closure), and relation databases are not good at that kind of structures, so I would like to store all relations in Neo4j which have good performance for this kind of data. My plan is to have all data except the relations in the MySQL database and all relations with item_id stored in the Neo4j database. When I want to lookup a tree, I first search the Neo4j for all the item_id:s in the tree, then I search the MySQL-database for all the specified items in a query that would look like: SELECT * FROM items WHERE item_id = 45 OR item_id = 345435 OR item_id = 343 OR item_id = 78 OR item_id = 4522 OR item_id = 676 OR item_id = 443 OR item_id = 4255 OR item_id = 4345 Is this a good idea, or am I very wrong? I haven't used graph-databases before. Are there any better approaches to my problem? How would the MySQL-query perform in this case?

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• java: retrieving the "canonical value" from a Set<T> where T has a custom equals()

  - by Jason S

  I have a class Foo which overrides equals() and hashCode() properly. I would like to also would like to use a HashSet<Foo> to keep track of "canonical values" e.g. I have a class that I would like to write like this, so that if I have two separate objects that are equivalent I can coalesce them into references to the same object: class Canonicalizer<T> { final private Set<T> values = new HashSet<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { T canonical = this.values.get(value); if (canonical == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future this.values.add(value); return value; } else { return canonical; } } } except that Set doesn't have a "get" method that would return the actual value stored in the set, just the "contains" method that returns true or false. (I guess that it assumes that if you have an object that is equal to a separate object in the set, you don't need to retrieve the one in the set) Is there a convenient way to do this? The only other thing I can think of is to use a map and a list: class Canonicalizer<T> { // warning: neglects concurrency issues final private Map<T, Integer> valueIndex = new HashMap<T, Integer>(); final private List<T> values = new ArrayList<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { Integer i = this.valueIndex.get(value); if (i == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future i = this.values.size(); this.values.add(value); this.valueIndex.put(value, i); return value; } else { // in the set return this.values.get(i); } } }

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• Storing and loading a subtitle of an annotation with NSUserDefualts

  - by Krismutt

  Happy new year everybody! Basically, what I try to do is to save a subtitle to an annotation when the application terminates. When the application starts again I want this stored subtitle to show up in the callout of the annotation again. What am I doing wrong? I just can't get it to work... storeLocation.m - (void)setCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coor { MKReverseGeocoder *geocoder = [[[MKReverseGeocoder alloc] initWithCoordinate:coor] autorelease]; geocoder.delegate = self; coordinate = coor; [geocoder start]; NSUserDefaults *userDef = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [userDef setValue:subtitle forKey:@"SavedAddress"]; [userDef synchronize]; NSLog(@"Sparade adress"); } mainViewController.m -(void)viewDidLoad { NSString *savedAddress = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"SavedAddress"]; if (savedAddress) { // what code should I add here // so that the subtitle shows up // when the application launches? } } Would really appreciate some help with this one... Thanks in advance!

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• Why is this MySQL INSERT INTO running twice?

  - by stuboo

  I'm attempting to use the mysql insert statement below to add information to a database table. When I execute the script, however, the insert statement is run twice. Here's the URL mysite.com/save.php?Body=p220,c180 Thanks in advance. <?php //tipping fees application require('base.inc.php'); require('functions.inc.php'); // connect to the database & save this message there try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$dbhost;dbname=$dbname", $dbuser, $dbpass); //$number = formatPhone($_REQUEST['From']); //if($number != 'xxx-xxx-xxxx'){die('SMS from unknown number');} // kill this if from anyone but mike $message = $_REQUEST['Body']; //$Sid = $_REQUEST['SmsSid']; $now = time(); echo $message; $message = explode(",",$message); echo '<pre>'; print_r($message); echo 'message count = '.count($message); echo '</pre>'; $i = 0; $j = count($message); while($i<$j){ $quantity =$message[$i]; $material = substr($quantity, 0, 1); $amount = substr($quantity, 1); switch ($material) { case 'p': $m = "paper"; break; case 'c': $m = "containers"; break; default: $m = "other"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO tippingtotals(sid,time,material,weight) VALUES('$i+$j','$now','$m','$amount')"); echo $count; echo '<br />'; $i++; } //close the database connection $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } ?>

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• DotNetOpeId - Using OpenIdButton for Google Apps

  - by JediPotPie

  I am an ASP.NET newbie and I am trying to design an OpenID/SSO system for an internal web application. The web application is pretty simple and the authentication is currently being managed by a database with usernames and passwords. I want to replace the existing accounts stored in the database with Google Apps accounts. I have downloaded the latest DotNetOpenAuth-3.4.3.10103 package and got the OpenIdRelyingPartyWebForms sample up and running on IIS. I have built my own login page using just a OpenIdButton object that points to a development Google domain. The button seems to work fine in FireFox, at least it is forwarding me to the Google Apps login, but nothing happens when I load the same page in IE. When I click the Google button, nothing happens, zip. The same is true for the Yahoo button in the login.aspx page given in the sample. Here is the .aspx code I am using... <rp:OpenIdButton runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.google.com/accounts/google_transparent.gif" Text="Login with Google!" ID="googleLoginButton" Identifier="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/site-xrds?hd=dev.connexcloud.com" />

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• Get part of array string

  - by user1560295

  Hello my output PHP code is : Array ( [country] => BG - Bulgaria ) ... and he comes from here : <?php $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; print_r(geoCheckIP($ip)); //Array ( [domain] => dslb-094-219-040-096.pools.arcor-ip.net [country] => DE - Germany [state] => Hessen [town] => Erzhausen ) //Get an array with geoip-infodata function geoCheckIP($ip) { //check, if the provided ip is valid if(!filter_var($ip, FILTER_VALIDATE_IP)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("IP is not valid"); } //contact ip-server $response=@file_get_contents('http://www.netip.de/search?query='.$ip); if (empty($response)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("Error contacting Geo-IP-Server"); } //Array containing all regex-patterns necessary to extract ip-geoinfo from page $patterns=array(); $patterns["country"] = '#Country: (.*?)&nbsp;#i'; //Array where results will be stored $ipInfo=array(); //check response from ipserver for above patterns foreach ($patterns as $key => $pattern) { //store the result in array $ipInfo[$key] = preg_match($pattern,$response,$value) && !empty($value[1]) ? $value[1] : ''; } return $ipInfo; } ?> How can I get ONLY the name of the Country like in my case "Bulgaria"? I think it will happen with preg_replace or substr but i dont know what is the better solution now.

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• return ArrayList from spring controller for ajax call and render in second dropdown

  - by user1708125

  I've a spring bean with 3 Maps all of which are to be populated incrementally. First map is an item category list, second map is a product list and third map is a hobby for item type list All the maps are mapped to and on the JSP. When the page is loaded only the first map is populated on the onchange event of first map, I need to populate the second map in the bean and similarly on the onchange event of second map, I need to populate the third map in the bean. Is there a way to do this using Ajax?? I need some code samples to how to render JSON response in second and third dropdown. Clarification: @Donal: I have a simple JSP page with 3 dropdowns corresponding to 3 maps stored in my commandBean. So when the page loads for the first time only the first map and hence the first dropdown is populated. Now whenever the user selects anything out of the first dropdown, I need to send the same commandbean back with the values of the first dropdown and get the values for the second map and hence the second dropdown and so forth for the 3rd dropdown as well. For each dropdown I 've got 3 maps and 3 variables for storing the selected values. Now I want to understand if this is possible using Ajax. I hope this clarifies whatever you need to know. Thanx

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• Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

  - by Yishai

  I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

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• Partial template specialization for more than one typename

  - by Matt Joiner

  In the following code, I want to consider functions (Ops) that have void return to instead be considered to return true. The type Retval, and the return value of Op are always matching. I'm not able to discriminate using the type traits shown here, and attempts to create a partial template specialization based on Retval have failed due the presence of the other template variables, Op and Args. How do I specialize only some variables in a template specialization without getting errors? Is there any other way to alter behaviour based on the return type of Op? template <typename Retval, typename Op, typename... Args> Retval single_op_wrapper( Retval const failval, char const *const opname, Op const op, Cpfs &cpfs, Args... args) { try { CallContext callctx(cpfs, opname); Retval retval; if (std::is_same<bool, Retval>::value) { (callctx.*op)(args...); retval = true; } else { retval = (callctx.*op)(args...); } assert(retval != failval); callctx.commit(cpfs); return retval; } catch (CpfsError const &exc) { cpfs_errno_set(exc.fserrno); LOGF(Info, "Failed with %s", cpfs_errno_str(exc.fserrno)); } return failval; }

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• How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

  - by devoured elysium

  When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

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• Event not triggering

  - by the Hampster

  I have no idea where to start on this one. I have a that does not appear until a button is clicked. This function call works: onclick="highlight('mod_sup_div', true);" function highlight(aDiv,show) { if (show) { Effect.Appear('Overlay',{duration: 0.5, to: .80}); Effect.Appear(aDiv,{duration: 0.5}) } else { Effect.Fade('Overlay',{duration: 0.5, to: .80}); Effect.Fade(aDiv,{duration: 0.5}) } } In the <div> I have a button to close the window. <p class="closer"><span onclick="highlight('mod_sup_div',false)">X</span></p> This does not work. The function is not even called, as I made a alert() the first line of the function at it does nothing. What is odd, is that onclick="Effect.Fade(aDiv,{duration: 0.5})" does work. Other simple javascript functions in the onclick="" work, except for the function call. Any help as to why this is happening would be very appreciated. Thanks, Dave

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• Connect to Facebook with Javascript Client Library using Adobe AIR

  - by Chuck Hriczko

  I'm having an issue connecting to Facebook through the Javascript Client Library in Adobe AIR. It works fine in the browser but in Adobe AIR it seems to not be able to find the Facebook functions. Here is some code I copied from the Facebook website: (Oh and I have the xd_receiver.htm file in the correct path too) <textarea style="width: 1000px; height: 300px;" id="_traceTextBox"> </textarea> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> // var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // require user to login api.requireLogin(function(exception){ FB.FBDebug.logLevel=1; FB.FBDebug.dump("Current user id is " + api.get_session().uid); // Get friends list //5-14-09: this code below is broken, correct code follows //api.friends_get(null, function(result){ // Debug.dump(result, 'friendsResult from non-batch execution '); // }); api.friends_get(new Array(), function(result, exception){ FB.FBDebug.dump(result, 'friendsResult from non-batch execution '); }); }); }); //]]> </script>

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• Basic C programming question

  - by Amit

  Hi all, I've just started to learn C and it's going pretty slow...I wanted to write a program that takes in an integer argument and returns it's doubled value (aka take in integer, multiply by 2, and printf that value). I purposely did not want to use the scanf function. Here's what I have so far and what is not compiling... #include <stdio.h> int main(int index) { if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } So basically when the program is executed I want to supply the index integer. So, in cygwin, I would write something like ./a 10 and 10 would be stored into the index variable. Also, I want to program to return "No index given" and exit if no index value was supplied... Anyone care to help what I'm doing wrong? EDIT: This code returns 1 error upon compilation and is based on the help by @James: #include <stdio.h> int main(int 1, char index) { int index, a; if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } Thanks! Amit

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• Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

  - by Matthew

  I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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• XP Leveling System - PHP

  - by Michael Rich

  Rank Table ID, Primary Key RANK, The rank or level, 1 being the highest and 3 the lowest MIN_SCORE, The minimum amount of point or XP needed to reach the rank NAME, The associated name of the rank Rank Table +----+------+-----------+-------------------------+ | ID | RANK | MIN_SCORE | NAME | +----+------+-----------+-------------------------+ | 1 | 1 | 18932 | Editor-in-Chief | | 2 | 2 | 15146 | Senior Technical Writer | | 3 | 3 | 12116 | Senior Copywriter | +----+------+-----------+-------------------------+ Ranking Table ID, Primary Key FK_MEMEBER_ID, Foreign Key to member's Primary Key FK_RANK, Foreign Key to Author Rank Table's Rank column (top) SCORE, The member's current earned score or XP Ranking Table +-----+--------------+---------+-------+ | ID | FK_MEMBER_ID | FK_RANK | SCORE | +-----+--------------+---------+-------+ | 1 | 1 | 1 | 17722 | | 2 | 2 | 2 | 16257 | | 3 | 3 | 3 | 12234 | +-----+--------------+---------+-------+ In my class I have stored the ranks -- matching those in the Rank Table -- and correlating minimum scores; RANK as key and MINIMUM_SCORE as value. When a member's score (XP) is updated (up/down) I want to test that updated score against the below array to determine if their rank needs updating too. private $scores = array('3' => '12116', '2' => '15146', '1' => '18932',); Using the updated score, how could I determine the correlating rank from the above array? Everything is open to scrutiny, this is my first time creating a ranking system so I hope to get it right :)

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• Codeigniter return config file as array with autoload enabled

  - by Fverswijver

  So I'm using CodeIgniter to build a website and I've made it so that all my specific settings are stored in a config file that's automatically loaded. I've also built a page that loads the settings file, makes a nice little table and allows me to edit everything from that page, afterwards it saves the entire page again (I know I could've done the same with a database but I want to try it this way). My problem is that I can't seem to use this bit when autoloading of my config file is enabled, but when I disable autoloading I can't seem to manually load it, it never finds my variables. So what I'm doing here is just taking all values from the config file and putting them in a single array so I can pass this array onto my settings administration page (edit/show all settings). $this->config->load('site_settings', TRUE); $data['settings'] = $this->config->item('site_settings'); ... $this->load->view('template', $data); config/site_settings.php <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); $config['header_img'] = './img/header/'; $config['copyright_text'] = 'Copyright Instituto Kabu'; $config['copyright_font'] = './system/fonts/motoroil.ttf'; $config['copyright_font_color'] = 'ffffff'; $config['copyright_font_size'] = '32';

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• Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

  - by orokusaki

  In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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• C++ Implicit Conversion Operators

  - by Imbue

  I'm trying to find a nice inheritance solution in C++. I have a Rectangle class and a Square class. The Square class can't publicly inherit from Rectangle, because it cannot completely fulfill the rectangle's requirements. For example, a Rectangle can have it's width and height each set separately, and this of course is impossible with a Square. So, my dilemma. Square obviously will share a lot of code with Rectangle; they are quite similar. For examlpe, if I have a function like: bool IsPointInRectangle(const Rectangle& rect); it should work for a square too. In fact, I have a ton of such functions. So in making my Square class, I figured I would use private inheritance with a publicly accessible Rectangle conversion operator. So my square class looks like: class Square : private Rectangle { public: operator const Rectangle&() const; }; However, when I try to pass a Square to the IsPointInRectangle function, my compiler just complains that "Rectangle is an inaccessible base" in that context. I expect it to notice the Rectangle operator and use that instead. Is what I'm trying to do even possible? If this can't work I'm probably going to refactor part of Rectangle into MutableRectangle class. Thanks.

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• Prove correctness of unit test

  - by Timo Willemsen

  I'm creating a graph framework for learning purposes. I'm using a TDD approach, so I'm writing a lot of unit tests. However, I'm still figuring out how to prove the correctness of my unit tests For example, I have this class (not including the implementation, and I have simplified it) public class SimpleGraph(){ //Returns true on success public boolean addEdge(Vertex v1, Vertex v2) { ... } //Returns true on sucess public boolean addVertex(Vertex v1) { ... } } I also have created this unit tests @Test public void SimpleGraph_addVertex_noSelfLoopsAllowed(){ SimpleGraph g = new SimpleGraph(); Vertex v1 = new Vertex('Vertex 1'); actual = g.addVertex(v1); boolean expected = false; boolean actual = g.addEdge(v1,v1); Assert.assertEquals(expected,actual); } Okay, awesome it works. There is only one crux here, I have proved that the functions work for this case only. However, in my graph theory courses, all I'm doing is proving theorems mathematically (induction, contradiction etc. etc.). So I was wondering is there a way I can prove my unit tests mathematically for correctness? So is there a good practice for this. So we're testing the unit for correctness, instead of testing it for one certain outcome.

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• How do I build a filtered_streambuf based on basic_streambuf?

  - by swestrup

  I have a project that requires me to insert a filter into a stream so that outgoing data will be modified according to the filter. After some research, it seems that what I want to do is create a filtered_streambuf like this: template <class StreamBuf class filtered_streambuf: public StreamBuf { ... } And then insert a filtered_streambuf<> into whichever stream I need to be filtered. My problem is that I don't know what invariants I need to maintain while filtering a stream, in order to ensure that Derived classes can work as expected. In particular, I may find I have filtered_streambufs built over other filtered_streambufs. All the various stream inserters, extractors and manipulators work as expected. The trouble is that I just can't seem to work out what the minimal interface is that I need to supply in order to guarantee that an iostream will have what it needs to work correctly. In particular, do I need to fake the movement of the protected pointer variables, or not? Do I need a fake data buffer, or not? Can I just override the public functions, rewriting them in terms of the base streambuf, or is that too simplistic?

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• Details View and integration with TinyMCE <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %>

  - by GibboK

  I use TinyMCE in a DetailView in in EDIT MODE. I would like to know if there is a solution which can prevent Request Validation to trigger an error WITHOUT USING <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %> for my page. The only way I found out at the moment is to encode TextBox used by TinyMCE using option: "xml" tinyMCE.init({ encoding: "xml", In this way Request Validation does not trigger error but at the time to read the data in the TextBox the result it is Encoded. I also tried to Decode on PageLoad the content of the TextBox using this code myTextBox.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myTextBox.Text) But the result is not as expected, so I can visualize it just Encoded text. Any Ideas? Thanks UPDATE I found a solution to my problem. I added in _DataBound event for the DetailsView this code TextBox myContentAuthor = (TextBox)uxAuthorListDetailsView.FindControl("uxContentAuthorInput"); myContentAuthor.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myContentAuthor.Text); So on DataBound event, (should work even on post back) the content will be decodene for textbox tinymce. Here how should work: 01 - TinyMCE ESCAPE data inserted in textbox using function encoding: "xml", 02 - Data has been stored as ESCAPED 03 - To read the data and add its content to a TextBox where apply TinyMCE use in DATABOUND EVENT for DetailView and HttpUtility.HtmlDecode (so it will look decoded) 04 - You can modify content in the textbox in edit mode. On post back TinyMCE will encoded again using encoding: "xml" an so on Hope guys can help some one else. But please give me your comment on this solution thanks! Mybe you come up with more elegant solution! :-)

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