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• How do I send text to a UITextView?

  - by Lee

  I'm new to iphone development. I'm a VB programmer who is trying to convert a VB application to an ipad app. I need some help with sending text to a UITextView. I want to first have a UIPickerView and then once the user hits a UIButton, a UITextView appears and the text is then generated by my source code code, line by line. The code would constantly be concatenating strings to the text. It would sort of go like this-- 1) User makes selections with UIPickerView. 2) User then hits UIButton. 3) UIPickerView is replaced on the screen with a UITextView. 4) The code does stuff. 5) The code adds the 1st line of text into the UITextView. 6) The code does more stuff. 7) The code then adds the 2nd line of text into the UITextView, retaining the 1st line that was already there. Steps 6 and 7 are repeated until the code is done. Does anyone know of any examples of this that I could look at? I am mostly interested in finding something like a youtube video, a webpage that explains the code or even a good book that covers this particular topic. I am finding that the sample codes that Apple has on this site goes over my head. In fact, I could probably benefit from a good book. But, I am looking for one that I would already know covers this particular topic, since it is so essential to the app that I am trying to build.

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• BackgroundWorker and instance variables

  - by Alastair Pitts

  One thing that's always confused me is how a BackgroundWorker seems to have thread-safe access to the instance variables of the surrounding class. Given a basic class: public class BackgroundProcessor { public List<int> Items { get; private set; } public BackgroundProcessor(IEnumerable<int> items) { Items = new List<int>(items); } public void DoWork() { BackgroundWorker worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(worker_RunWorkerCompleted); worker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(worker_DoWork); worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } void worker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { var processor = new ProcessingClass(); processor.Process(this.Points); //Accessing the instance variable } void worker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { //Stuff goes here } } Am I erroneous in my assumption the the call to processor.Process(this.Points); is a thread-safe call? How don't I get a cross-thread access violation? I'm sure it's obvious, but it always has confused me.

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• Simplest distributed persistent key/value store that supports primary key range queries

  - by StaxMan

  I am looking for a properly distributed (i.e. not just sharded) and persisted (not bounded by available memory on single node, or cluster of nodes) key/value ("nosql") store that does support range queries by primary key. So far closest such system is Cassandra, which does above. However, it adds support for other features that are not essential for me. So while I like it (and will consider using it of course), I am trying to figure out if there might be other mature projects that implement what I need. Specifically, for me the only aspect of value I need is to access it as a blob. For key, however, I need range queries (as in, access values ordered, limited by start and/or end values). While values can have structures, there is no need to use that structure for anything on server side (can do client-side data binding, flexible value/content types etc). For added bonus, Cassandra style storage (journaled, all sequential writes) seems quite optimal for my use case. To help filter out answers, I have investigated some alternatives within general domain like: Voldemort (key/value, but no ordering) and CouchDB (just sharded, more batch-oriented); and am aware of systems that are not quite distributed while otherwise qualifying (bdb variants, tokyo cabinet itself (not sure if Tyrant might qualify), redis (in-memory store only)).

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• C# connect to domain SQL Server 2005 from non-domain machine

  - by user304582

  Hi, I asked a question a few days ago (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2795723/access-to-sql-server-2005-from-a-non-domain-machine-using-windows-authentication) which got some interesting, but not usable suggestions. I'd like to ask the question again, but make clear what my constraints are: I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I CANNOT create or modify OS or SQL Server users on either machine, and I CANNOT make any changes to permissions or impersonation, and I CANNOT make use of runas. I know that I can write Perl and Java applications that can connect to the SQL Server database using only these four parameters: server name, database name, username (in the form domain\user), and password. In C# I have tried various things around: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); and tried setting integrated security to true and false, but nothing seems to work. Is what I am trying to do simply impossible in C#? Thanks for any help, Martin

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• With the advent of HTML 5, is there a point in using COMET anymore?

  - by h2g2java

  I am very tempted to use long wait http or periodic polling by the client to set up pseudo-sockets on the browser side, for an application that would be used publicly. But then on the 2nd thought, I am thinking HTML 5 is here. But on the 3rd thought, what is the percentage of browsers out there that remain non-HTML5 within 12 months, 24 months, 36 months? If there are at least 20% of browsers still incapable of HTML5, then I cannot depend on HTML5 because 20% of users not being able to access an application is a significant amount. What do you think, how would your advice be (to me and to developers in general)? Q1. Is there any point in rigging in COMET into an application anymore? I am thinking of gwt comet - http://code.google.com/p/gwt-comet/. Q2. Should we release a new public application within the next 2 months that is dependent on HTML5 sockets and tell non-HTML5 browser users "sorry, your browser version cannot access this application"? Or should we architect the apps to use communication like GWT RPC? Q3. I am also very distrustful of long wait http request. I have never used it before but I have a horrible feeling about it. I have been using 10 to 20 second client-side polling. Is long wait http request risky (risk of hanging a browser session)? Does long wait request present any additional security risk?

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• How do I generate a connection reset programatically?

  - by Brock Adams

  Hi, I'm sure you've seen the "the connection was reset" message displayed when trying to browse web pages. (The text is from Firefox, other browsers differ.) I need to generate that message/error/condition on demand, to test workarounds. So, how do I generate that condition programmatically? (How to generate a TCP RST from PHP -- or one of the other web-app languages?) Caveats and Conditions: It cannot be a general IP block. The test client must still be able to see the test server when not triggering the condition. Ideally, it would be done at the web-application level (Python, PHP, Coldfusion, Javascript, etc.). Access to routers is problematic. Access to Apache config is a pain. Ideally, it would be triggered by fetching a specific web-page. Bonus if it works on a standard, commercial web host. Update: Sending RST is not enough to cause this condition. See my partial answer, below. I've a solution that works on a local machine, Now need to get it working on a remote host.

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• Sometimes can rename, remove a folder; sometimes cannot

  - by Vy Clarks

  In my website project. I need to rename or remove some folder by code. Sometimes I can do all of that, but sometimes I cannot with error: Access to the path is denied Try to find to solution on Google. May be, there are two reason: The permisstion of that Folder Some subFolder or some file in that Folder that's being held open. Try to check: Right click on Folder- Properties-- Security: if this is the right way to check the permission, the Folder allowes every action (read, write....) There are no file, no subfolder of that Folder is opened. Why? I still dont understant why sometimes I can rename folder but sometimes I cannot. Help!! I need your opinions!!! UPDATE: take a look at my code above: I want to rename the a folder with the new name inputed in a Textbox txtFilenFolderName: protected void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string[] values = EditValue; string oldpath = values[0];// = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" string oldName = values[2]; //= New Folder string newName = txtFilenFolderName.Text; //= New Folder1 string newPath = string.Empty; if (oldName != newName) { newPath = oldpath.Replace(oldName, newName); Directory.Move(oldpath, newPath); } else lblmessage2.Text = "New name must not be the same as the old "; } } Try to debug: oldpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" oldName = New Folder newName= New Folder1 newpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder1" Everything seems right, but I when I click on buton Edit --- rename--- Update--- an error occur: Access to the path is denied D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder Help!

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• Impossible to remove directory

  - by Mark

  Evidently I've never had to delete a directory using win32 sdk before, because its apparently an impossible task. I've tried anything and everything - RemoveDirectory, SHFileOperation with FO_DELETE, etc. Currently I call CreateDirectory in one thread, start another thread, copy some files to this directory in the new thread, then delete all the files in the directory in the new thread, and then back in the original thread that created the directory, try to delete the now empty directory and it fails. The directory really and truly is empty when I try to delete it, but it makes no difference. The whole thread aspect is irrelevant I think because at one point everything was in one thread and it didn't work. I'm currently setting a SecurityAttributes structure on CreateDirectory to grant access to everyone, but it makes no difference. RemoveDirectory in the past has returned '32' on GetLastError, which I believe is Sharing violation. But even if I just try to delete the empty directory from the command line, it refuses saying, "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." until I shut down the entire application that created the directory. (Note: the directory is created in GetTempPath.)

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• jscript1.js error in webforms when applying routing

  - by Sean N

  Hello I have a project using webforms. I applied routing on one of the page. My route is structure like this : http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/ = http://localhost:3576/Request/{role}/{action}/{id} Everything works great but i have a javascript error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 7 May 2010 13:35:54 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 3 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/JScript1.js I think it's trying to route to the file where i stored my javascript functions. Any suggestion?

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• Understanding many to many relationships and Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to understand the Entity Framework, and I have a table "Users" and a table "Pages". These are related in a many-to-many relationship with a junction table "UserPages". First of all I'd like to know if I'm designing this relationship correctly using many-to-many: One user can visit multiple pages, and each page can be visited by multiple users..., so am I right in using many2many? Secondly, and more importantly, as I have understood m2m relationships, the User and Page tables should not repeat information. I.e. there should be only one record for each user and each page. But then in the entity framework, how am I able to add new visits to the same page for the same user? That is, I was thinking I could simply use the Count() method on the IEnumerable returned by a LINQ query to get the number of times a user has visited a certain page. But I see no way of doing that. In Linq to Sql I could access the junction table and add records there to reflect added visits to a certain page by a certain user, as many times as necessary. But in the EF I can't access the junction table. I can only go from User to a Pages collection and vice versa. I'm sure I'm misunderstanding relationships or something, but I just can't figure out how to model this. I could always have a Count column in the Page table, but as far as I have understood you're not supposed to design database tables like that, those values should be collected by queries... Please help me understand what I'm doing wrong...

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• Works in Firefox & Opera, but not IE 8

  - by Ai Pragma

  1) This issue involves just one html webpage, lets call it "ajax.html".2) I have AJAX functions in this webpage that work in both Firefox and IE8.3) I now attempt generating just the option values of a dropdown list of dates using my ajax functions, and it works in Firefox & Opera, but not IE8.4) The surrounding html code for the dropdown looks like this:<select name="entry_7_single" id="entry_7" onChange="Ajax_PhpResultsWithVar('./secure/db/SummaryCls.php','entry_8','dateval',this.value)"></select>The onchange call refers to an ajax function that successfully(both Firefox & IE8) populates a textarea(entry_8) with a description of an event associated with the date selected in this dropdown. 5) An onload call initiates the ajax function to generate the dropdown list values:<body class="ss-base-body" onLoad="OnLoadWebPage()">6) The js script that calls the ajax function is as follows:function OnLoadWebPage(){    Ajax_PhpResults('./secure/db/GenDateListCls.php','entry_7');}7) Since it works in Firefox, but not IE8, I throw the output of the ajax function into a Firefox large textbox and I get the following:<option selected value="8 JUN 2010">8 JUN 2010</option>                   <option value="9 JUN 2010">9 JUN 2010</option>                   <option value="10 JUN 2010">10 JUN 2010</option>                   <option value="11 JUN 2010">11 JUN 2010</option> 8 ) There are over a hundred generated but you get the gist of what the ajax function generates. Next I will list the PHP function that outputs the above dropdown values://///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////<?phpinclude_once 'SPSQLite.class.php';include_once 'misc_funcs.php';class GenDateListCls {    var $dbName;    var $sqlite;        function GenDateListCls()    {        $this->dbName = 'accrsc.db';        $this->ConstructEventDates();    }        function ConstructEventDates()    {         $this->sqlite = new SPSQLite($this->dbName);         $todayarr = getdate();         $today = $todayarr[mday] . " " . substr($todayarr[month],0,3) . " " . $todayarr[year];                  $ICalDate = ChangeToICalDate($today);         $dateQuery = "SELECT dtstart from events where substr(dtstart,1,8) >= '" . $ICalDate . "';";         $this->sqlite->query($dateQuery);         $datesResult = $this->sqlite->returnRows();                      foreach (array_reverse($datesResult) as $indx => $row)         {                       $normDate = NormalizeICalDate(substr($row[dtstart],0,8));              if ($indx==0)              { ?>                 <option selected value=<?php echo('"' . $normDate . '"'); ?>><?php echo $normDate; ?></option><?php                               }                          else              {?>                  <option value=<?php echo('"' . $normDate . '"'); ?>><?php echo $normDate; ?></option><?php                                   }                       }                   $this->sqlite->close();     }}$dateList = new GenDateListCls();    ?>/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////<<< I appreciate any assistance on this matter. Aipragma >>> My Background: To let you all know, I am a complete newbie to PHP, Ajax, & javascript, and learning it all on my own, no classes. My background is in Linux, Windows, C++, Java, VB,VBA,MS XML, & some html.

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• Do complex JOINs cause high coupling and maintenance problems ?

  - by ashkan.kh.nazary

  Our project has ~40 tables with complex relations.A colleague believes in using long join queries which enforces me to learn about tables outside of my module but I think I should not concern about tables not directly related to my module and use data access functions (written by those responsible for other modules) when I need data from them. Let me clarify: I am responsible for the ContactVendor module which enables the customers to contact the vendor and start a conversation about some specific product. Products module has it's own complex tables and relations with functions that encapsulate details (for example i18n, activation, product availability etc ...). Now I need to show the product title of some product related to some conversation between the vendor and customers. I may either write a long query that retrieves the product info along with conversation stuff in one shot (which enforces me to learn about Product tables) OR I may pass the relevant product_id to the get_product_info(int) function. First approach is obviously demanding and introduces many bad practices and things I normally consider fault in programming. The problem with the second approach seems to be the countless mini queries these access functions cause and performance loss is a concern when a loop tries to fetch product titles for 100 products using functions that each perform a separate query. So I'm stuck between "don't code to the implementation, code to interface" and performance. What is the right way of doing things ? UPDATE: I'm specially concerned about possible future modifications to those tables outside of my module. What if the Products module decided to change the way they are doing things? or for some reason modify the schema? It means some other modules would break or malfunction until the change is integrated to them. The usual ripple effect problem.

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• New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

  - by Meltemi

  I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

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• ASP.NET AsyncPostBackTrigger disables button's OnClick function???

  - by hahuang65

  I saw another post like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1795621/asyncpostbacktrigger-disables-buttons But I don't really know what to make of it. The accepted answer was poorly typed. Basically, I have a button with an OnClick function. I also have a UpdatePanel, with is AsyncPostBackTrigger set to that same button. It seems that if I do this, my Button no longer does ANYTHING. I guess it's because I have a Page_Load() event... Can anyone explain why this is? And how should I set up my webpage if I can't use the Page_Load() function? Oh and if I put my Button in a UpdatePanel, it also won't do anything, probably because of the same reason. This is a section of my code: <asp:FileUpload id="FileUploadControl" runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" id="UploadButton" text="Upload" OnClick="uploadClicked" /> <br /><br /> <asp:Label runat="server" id="StatusLabel" text="Upload status: " /> <br /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" updatemode="Conditional" > <ContentTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="songList" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="RefreshButton" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> Thanks in advance.

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• Read file:// URLs in IE XMLHttpRequest

  - by Dan Fabulich

  I'm developing a JavaScript application that's meant to be run either from a web server (over http) or from the file system (on a file:// URL). As part of this code, I need to use XMLHttpRequest to load files in the same directory as the page and in subdirectories of the page. This code works fine ("PASS") when executed on a web server, but doesn't work ("FAIL") in Internet Explorer 8 when run off the file system: <html><head> <script> window.onload = function() { var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.open("GET", window.location.href, false); xhr.send(null); if (/TestString/.test(xhr.responseText)) { document.body.innerHTML="<p>PASS</p>"; } } </script> <body><p>FAIL</p></body> Of course, at first it fails because no scripts can run at all on the file system; the user is prompted a yellow bar, warning that "To help protect your security, Internet Explorer has restricted this webpage from running scripts or ActiveX controls that could access your computer." But even once I click on the bar and "Allow Blocked Content" the page still fails; I get an "Access is Denied" error on the xhr.open call. This puzzles me, because MSDN says that "For development purposes, the file:// protocol is allowed from the Local Machine zone." This local file should be part of the Local Machine Zone, right? How can I get code like this to work? I'm fine with prompting the user with security warnings; I'm not OK with forcing them to turn off security in the control panel. EDIT: I am not, in fact, loading an XML document in my case; I'm loading a plain text file (.txt).

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• How do I set up routes to enable me to call different actions on the same controller?

  - by Remnant

  I am building my first asp.net mvc application for learning and development purposes and have come across an issue that I'd like some guidance with. Suppose I have a controller with two actions as follows: public class MyController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { dbData = GetData("DefaultParameter") return View(dbData); } public ActionResult UpdateView(string dbParameter) { dbData = GetData("dbParameter"); return View(dbData); } } On my webpage I have the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateView", "MyController")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("Selection", Model.List, new { onchange="this.form.submit();" })%></div> <% } %> I have the following route in Global.asax: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "Index"}); } The issue I am having is as follows: When I use the dropdownlist I get an error saying that /MyController/UpdateView could not be found. It therefore seems that I need to add an additional route as follows: routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "UpdateView"}); However, this causes two new issues for me: Due to the hierachy within the routing list, the similarity of the routes means that the one that appears first in the list is always executed. I don't see why I need to create another route for UpdateView. All I want to do is to retrieve new data from the database and update the view. I don't see what this has to do with the URL schema. It feels like I have gone down the wrong track here and I have missed something quite fundamental?

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• Transitioning from desktop app written in C++ to a web-based app

  - by Karim

  We have a mature Windows desktop application written in C++. The application's GUI sits on top of a windows DLL that does most of the work for the GUI (it's kind of the engine). It, too, is written in C++. We are considering transitioning the Windows app to be a web-based app for various reasons. What I would like to avoid is having to writing the CGI for this web-based app in C++. That is, I would rather have the power of a 4G language like Python or a .NET language for creating the web-based version of this app. So, the question is: given that I need to use a C++ DLL on the backend to do the work of the app what technology stack would you recommend for sitting between the user's browser and are C++ dll? We can assume that the web server will be Windows. Some options: Write a COM layer on top of the windows DLL which can then be access via .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI Access the export DLL interface directly from .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI. Write a custom Python library that wraps the windows DLL so that the rest of the code can be written. Write the CGI using C++ and a C++-based MVC framework like Wt Concerns: I would rather not use C++ for the web framework if it can be avoided - I think languages like Python and C# are simply more powerful and efficient in terms of development time. I'm concerned that my mixing managed and unmanaged code with one of the .NET solutions I'm asking for lots of little problems that are hard to debug (purely anecdotal evidence for that) Same is true for using a Python layer. Anything that's slightly off the beaten path like that worries me in that I don't have much evidence one way or the other if this is a viable long term solution.

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• Call Python From PHP And Get Return Code

  - by seaboy

  Hello everyone, I am calling a python script from PHP. The python program has to return some value according to the arguments passed to it. Here is a sample python program, which will give you a basic idea of what i am doing currently: #!/usr/bin/python import sys #get the arguments passed argList = sys.argv #Not enough arguments. Exit with a value of 1. if len(argList) < 3: #Return with a value of 1. sys.exit(1) arg1 = argList[1] arg2 = argList[2] #Check arguments. Exit with the appropriate value. if len(arg1) > 255: #Exit with a value of 4. sys.exit(4) if len(arg2) < 2: #Exit with a value of 8. sys.exit(8) #Do further coding using the arguments------ #If program works successfully, exit with a value of 0 As you can see from the above code, my basic aim is for the python program to return some values (0,1,4,8 etc) depending on the arguments. And then the calling PHP program to access these returned values and do the appropriate operation. Currently i have used "sys.exit(n)", for that purpose. Am i right in using sys.exit, or do I need to use something else? And also what method exists in PHP so that I can access the return code from python? Sorry for the long question, but hopefully it will help in you understanding my dilemma Thanks a ton

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Dataset bind to Gridview within WCF REST retrieval method and Linq to Sql

  - by user643794

  I used a WCF REST template to build a WCF service library to create PUT and GET calls. PUT method works fine sending my blob to a database. On the GET, I want to be able to access the web service directly and display the results from a stored procedure as a dataset and bind this to a gridview. The stored procedure is a simple select statement, returning three of the four columns from the table. I have the following: [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/?name={name}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] public List<Object> GetCollection(string name) { try { db.OpenDbConnection(); // Call to SQL stored procedure return db.GetCustFromName(name); } catch (Exception e) { Log.Error("Stored Proc execution failed. ", e); } finally { db.CloseDbConnection(); } return null; } I also added Linq to SQL class to include my database table and stored procedures access. I also created the Default.aspx file in addition to the other required files. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ServiceDataContext objectContext = new ServiceDataContext(); var source = objectContext.GetCustFromName("Tiger"); Menu1.DataSource = source; Menu1.DataBind(); } But this gives me The entity type '' does not belong to any registered model. Where should the data binding be done? What should be the return type for GetCollection()? I am stuck with this. Please provide help on how to do this.

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• Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

  - by DecodingSand

  Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

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• GridView on the select of row

  - by user329419

  I need to hide columns in GridView then access the values of these columns in GridViewSelectedIndex using vb.net When I set visible=false for Bound colums i cannot access the values <asp:TemplateField Visible=False> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID=hdnSeqID Value='<%#Eval("Seq_ID") %>' runat=server/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="FormCode" Visible=false> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID=hdnFormCode Value='<%#Eval("Form_Code") %>' runat=server/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> <RowStyle BackColor="#EFF3FB" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#2461BF" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#D1DDF1" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#2461BF" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#507CD1" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> </asp:GridView> Protected Sub GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles GridView1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim Instance_ID As String Dim Seq_ID As String Dim Form_Code As String Dim PARMS As String Dim DestinationURL As String Dim DestinationParms As String 'fill text box's with values from selected row ' store values from selected row 'Dim instanceID As String = CType(GridView1.SelectedRow.FindControl("hdnInstanceID"), HiddenField).Value Dim seqID As String = CType(GridView1.SelectedRow.FindControl("hdnSeqID"), HiddenField).Value Dim formCode As String = CType(GridView1.SelectedRow.FindControl("hdnFormCode"), HiddenField).Value

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• Accessing C# Variables in JavaScript

  - by mshahbazm

  I am Developing Windows 8 application in which i have to access variables of C# class in java script function, But Unfortunately i don not know how to do this: My C# class code is: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace Pakistan_Tour { public class UniversalValues { public static double xC; public static double yC; public static int selectedcity; public int retcity() { return selectedcity; } public void setcity(int val) { selectedcity=val; } public void setxy(double x, double y) { xC = x; yC = y; } public double getx() { return xC; } public double gety() { return yC; } } } I have to access the value of variables: xC and yc in java script I am doing like: function initialize() { var x = "<%=xC%>"; var y = "<%=yC%>"; } but is not working, Kindly help me with this, Thanks in advance.

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• Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

  - by philj

  I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

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• Having trouble with confusing behaviour of error between debug and release modes in Xcode

  - by Cocorico

  Hi guys, I am confused over something (what is new!). I have an iPhone program I am writing and using some sqlite in a certain method, and there is some error which is giving me a message that says "Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS” Okay, so I am trying to hunt down why this is doing this, and I notice something: When I run the program in debug mode, it gives me this error every single time I access this method (I test on the device). However when I run the program in release mode, I can access this method 2 times, and then it will give me this error the third time. So I mean, can someone just give me an explanation of what might cause this, I think that maybe deep-down I am not that smart on the difference in XCode of debug and release modes. I think that release mode does optimizing, and I guess the actual assembly machine code comes out different, yes? I AM A BIG NEWBIE USER UNFORTUNATELY! I am not clear on a lot of things like this, or whether it needs for I to remove nslog commands in the release build and such. Maybe I should just post the actual code in separate Stack OVerflow post, and see if people can see the error, then maybe this all become clear to me.

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