Search Results

Search found 30912 results on 1237 pages for 'load path'.

Page 587/1237 | < Previous Page | 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594  | Next Page >

  • c# linq to xml dynamic query

    - by David Archer
    Right, bit of a strange question; I have been doing some linq to XML work recently (see my other recent posts here and here). Basically, I want to be able to create a query that checks whether a textbox is null before it's value is included in the query, like so: XDocument db = XDocument.Load(xmlPath); var query = (from vals in db.Descendants("Customer") where (if(textbox1.Text != "") {vals.Element("CustomerID") == Convert.ToInt32(textbox1.Text) } || if(textbox2.Text != "") {vals.Element("Name") == textbox2.Text}) select vals).ToList();

    Read the article

  • ItemsControl ItemTemplate Binding

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, In WPF4.0, I have a class that contains other class types as properties (combining multiple data types for display). Something like: public partial class Owner { public string OwnerName { get; set; } public int OwnerId { get; set; } } partial class ForDisplay { public Owner OwnerData { get; set; } public int Credit { get; set; } } In my window, I have an ItemsControl with the following (clipped for clarity): <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I then get a collection of display information from the data layer, and set the DataContext of the ItemsControl to this collection. The "Credit" property gets displayed correctly, but the OwnerName property does not. Instead, I get a binding error: Error 40: BindingExpression path error: 'OwnerName' property not found on 'object' ''ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874)'. BindingExpression:Path=OwnerName; DataItem='ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874); target element is 'TextBlock' (Name=txtOwnerName'); target property is 'Text' (type 'String') I don't understand why this is attempting to look for the OwnerName property in the ForDisplay class, rather than in the Owner class from the ForDisplay OwnerData property. Edit It appears that it has something to do with using the custom control. If I bind the same properties to a TextBlock, they work correctly. <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OwnerData.OwnerName}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Credit}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> Thanks, wTs

    Read the article

  • php require and autoload

    - by dfilkovi
    I use __autoload to load classes, and I keep getting errors that no class is found but file get's loaded ok. Then if I change something in a file, just something like add a new line and save it, everything works fine and class is then found. But this is a great problem cause there are thousands of files in this project and I don't want to change them one by one. I'm using php 5.3.0 on windows. What could be the problem?

    Read the article

  • Testing tools for Django Project

    - by Bharath
    Can anyone please suggest me some good testing tools for a django project? I need to test the different use case scenarios, unit testing, as well as load testing for my project. Is there any good standard testing suite available?? Any other suggestion(s) for the testing process is greatly appreciated. I use Django, postgresql on Ubuntu server if this information is necessary.

    Read the article

  • debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

    - by NateS
    Originally posted on Server Fault, where it was suggested this question might better asked here. We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • iPhone:Upload photo to flickr

    - by Rupesh
    hi all, I am developing a application where i want to load the photo on flickr. i don't want to use the toolkit. I want to use flickr API.I read the API documentation of flickr but there are no API to upload photo on particular account. All API related to Garden not to user account. i simply want to user will supply username and password , then I pass the username,password and photo content to API (or web service). Please suggest

    Read the article

  • populating flexgrid with a file vb6

    - by Andeeh
    So I need to put all the names in a file into column 1 on flexgird, each name should go on its own row. here is what I have but i just get "invalid row value" namefile = App.Path & "\names.dat" Open namefile For Input As #1 While Not EOF(1) Input #1, x With MSFlexGrid1 .Col = 1 .Rows = rowcount + 1 .Text = x End With Wend End Sub Any help would be fantastic and thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How can I use Apache to reverse proxy a dynamic url

    - by backplane
    I want a user to be able to load a url in their browser, but not get redirected: http://example.com/abc/{var1}/{var2}/def I want the example.com apache 2.2 server to take that request, and "invisibly" and without redirect reverse proxy it to: http://other.example.com/abc/{var1}/{var2}/def I have spent hours trying different combinations of RewriteRule, ProxyPass, ProxyPassMatch, and ProxyPassReverse, all to no avail. Here is my current attempt, which seems to do a redirect to /test instead of an invisible proxy. RewriteRule ^/abc/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/def/?$ /test/abc/$1/$2/def [P] ProxyPass /test http://other.example.com/ ProxyPassReverse /test http://other.example.com/

    Read the article

  • "Alert" and "if" changes behaviour of dom copying from iframe to div

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance! UPDATE: Like the answers said i have created an event handler. They used jQuery, i have made one in mootools: window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('buffer').addEvent('load', function(){ $('display').set('html',window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML) window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; }).set('src','somelink'); }); Bonus question: 3) Im new at stackoverflow (what an amazing place!), is it better if i make new threads for follow up questions?

    Read the article

  • Securing a license key with RSA key.

    - by Jesse Knott
    Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

    Read the article

  • Loading .png image from array of uint8_t into OpenGL ES texture

    - by unknownthreat
    Normally, when we want to load a texture for OpenGL ES with .png, we simply add the .png images into XCode. The .png files will be altered for optimization by XCode and these altered png files can loaded into OpenGL ES texture during the runtime. However, what I am trying to do is quite different. I am trying to load a .png file that is not from the prebuilt/compile. The png file will be transmitted externally from UDP, and it will be in the form of array of bytes. I am very sure that the png is transferred correctly, but when it comes to displaying the png image in the form of the OpenGL ES texture, the image somehow shows incorrectly. The colors that are being sent are presented but the positions are somehow very incorrect. However, the position of the colors still retain some aspects of the original position. Here: The left image shows the original .png, while the right shows the png being displayed on iPhone using OpenGL ES Texture. It looks more like the png data is not being decoded or incorrectly processed. Below is OpenGL ES code for turning the image into texture: - (void) setTextureFromImageByte: (uint8_t*)imageByte{ if (self = [super init]){ NSData* imageData = [[NSData alloc] initWithBytes: imageByte length: imageLength]; UIImage* img = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData: imageData]; CGImageRef image = img.CGImage; int width = 512; int height = 512; if (image){ int tempWidth = (int)width, tempHeight = (int)height; if ((tempWidth & (tempWidth - 1)) != 0 ){ NSLog(@"CAUTION! width is not power of 2. width == %d", tempWidth); }else if ((tempHeight & (tempHeight - 1)) != 0 ){ NSLog(@"CAUTION! height is not power of 2. height == %d", tempHeight); }else{ void *spriteData = calloc(width * 4, height * 4); CGContextRef spriteContext = CGBitmapContextCreate(spriteData, width, height, 8, width*4, CGImageGetColorSpace(image), kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGContextDrawImage(spriteContext, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, width, height), image); CGContextRelease(spriteContext); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 1); glTexSubImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, 0, 0, 320, 435, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, spriteData); free(spriteData); } }else NSLog(@"ERROR: Image not loaded..."); [img release]; [imageData release]; } } So does anyone knows how to deal with this? Is it because of iPhone only accepts altered png from XCode? What can we do in this case in order to make the png image be able to display correctly?

    Read the article

  • Why is my javascript function sometimes "not defined"?

    - by harpo
    Problem: I call my javascript function, and sometimes I get the error 'myFunction is not defined'. But it is defined. For example. I'll occasionally get 'copyArray is not defined' even in this example: function copyArray( pa ) { var la = []; for (var i=0; i < pa.length; i++) la.push( pa[i] ); return la; } Function.prototype.bind = function( po ) { var __method = this; var __args = []; // sometimes errors -- in practice I inline the function as a workaround __args = copyArray( arguments ); return function() { /* bind logic omitted for brevity */ } } As you can see, copyArray is defined right there, so this can't be about the order in which script files load. I've been getting this in situations that are harder to work around, where the calling function is located in another file that should be loaded after the called function. But this was the simplest case I could present, and appears to be the same problem. It doesn't happen 100% of the time, so I do suspect some kind of load-timing-related problem. But I have no idea what. @Hojou: That's part of the problem. The function in which I'm now getting this error is itself my addLoadEvent, which is basically a standard version of the common library function. @James: I understand that, and there is no syntax error in the function. When that is the case, the syntax error is reported as well. In this case, I am getting only the 'not defined' error. @David: The script in this case resides in an external file that is referenced using the normal <script src="file.js"></script> method in the page's head section. @Douglas: Interesting idea, but if this were the case, how could we ever call a user-defined function with confidence? In any event, I tried this and it didn't work. @sk: This technique has been tested across browsers and is basically copied from the prototype library.

    Read the article

  • SSIS DTS Package flat file error - "The file name specified in the connection was not valid"

    - by MisterZimbu
    I have a pretty basic SSIS package that is attempting to read a file hosted on a share, and import its contents to a database table. The package runs fine when I run it manually within SSIS. However, when I set up a SQL Agent job and attempt to execute it, I get the following error: Executed as user: DOMAIN\UserName. Microsoft (R) SQL Server Execute Package Utility Version 9.00.3042.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2005. All rights reserved. Started: 10:14:17 AM Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401E Source: DataImport Connection manager "Data File Local" Description: The file name "\10.1.1.159\llpf\datafile.dat" specified in the connection was not valid. End Error Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401D Source: DataAnimalImport Description: Connection "Data File Local" failed validation. End Error DTExec: The package execution returned DTSER_FAILURE (1). Started: 10:14:17 AM Finished: 10:14:17 AM Elapsed: 0.594 seconds. The package execution failed. The step failed. This leads me to believe it's a permissions issue, but every attempt I've made to fix it has failed. What I've tried so far: Run as the SQL Agent account (DOMAIN\SqlAgent) - yields same error. DOMAIN\SqlAgent has "Full Control" permissions on both the share and the uploaded file. Set up a proxy account with a different account's credentials (DOMAIN\Account) - yields same error. Like above, "Full Control" permissions were given over the share to that account. Gave "Everyone" full control permissions over the share (temporarily!). Yielded same error. Manually copied the file to a local path and tested with the SQL Agent account. Worked properly. Added an ActiveX script task that would first copy the remotely hosted file to a local path, and then have the DTS package reference the local file. Gave a completely nondescriptive (even by SSIS standards) error when trying to run the script. Set up a proxy account, using my own personal account's credentials - worked correctly. However, this is not an acceptable solution as there are password policies in place on my account, as well as being a bad practice to set things up this way in general. Any ideas? I'm still convinced it's a permissions issue. However, what I've read from various searches more or less says giving the executing account permissions on the share should work. However, this is not the case here (unless I'm missing something obscure when I'm setting up permissions on the share).

    Read the article

  • Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

    - by Paul Burney
    Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

    Read the article

  • .NET Setting a cookie in a WebBrowser control

    - by ty
    I am loading a website using a WebBrowser's Navigate function, and I want the browser to load the page with a cookie I've given it. The following code doesn't work: wb.Navigate(url, null, null, "Cookie: " + cookie + "\n"); What am I doing wrong? Will I have to use InternetSetCookie? This doesn't seem like the best solution. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Paging of images in blackberry

    - by Maneesh
    How to display images in the form of pages where only one page is displayed at a time on blackberry screen. On scrolling down subsequent images will load at run time. So that loading of images do not consume time at startup.

    Read the article

  • Getting a full list of the URLS in a rails application

    - by Laurie Young
    How do I get a a complete list of all the urls that my rails application could generate? I don't want the routes that I get get form rake routes, instead I want to get the actul URLs corrosponding to all the dynmically generated pages in my application... Is this even possible? (Background: I'm doing this because I want a complete list of URLs for some load testing I want to do, which has to cover the entire breadth of the application)

    Read the article

  • OLEDB connection to Access database using DSN

    - by somu
    i want oledb connection using Dsn. I used the following code 'Dsn Create dbRegBase.RegisterDatabase("GEMINI", "Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb)", True,DBQ=D:\Gemini\GEMINI\database\paints_01_2008-2009.mdb Description=Greenchip Technologies ODBC Database File Path OemToAnsi=No UID=admin PWD=XXXXXX conection code Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;DBQ ='GEMINI';Persist Security Info=False;Jet OleDB:Database Password = XXXXXX But Error come error name is "Could not find installable ISAM" what i do . please tell me.

    Read the article

  • dictionary interface for large data sets

    - by Richard
    I have a set of key/values (all text) that is too large to load in memory at once. I would like to interact with this data via a Python dictionary-like interface. Does such a module already exist? Reading key values should be efficient and values compressed on disk to save space.

    Read the article

  • How to set column width of gridview with respective resolution

    - by Royson
    My gridview has 4 columns. In my machine it is displayed properly according to my code. but when i tried to run my app on another machines my column height gets increased and header text of two column displayed on two-line. Like: MyAllFolder Path It should be displayed on same line with changing width. How to dynamically change column width to set column header text in one line??

    Read the article

  • How to open wav file with Lua

    - by Pete Webbo
    Hello, I am trying to do some wav processing using Lua, but have fallen a the first hurdle! I cannot find a function or library that will allow me to load a wav file and access the raw data. There is one library, but it onl allows playing of wavs, not access to the raw data. Are there any out there? Cheers, Pete.

    Read the article

  • Writing a Servlet that checks to see if JSP's exist and forwards to another JSP if they aren't

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've beeb tasked with writing a servlet that intercepts a call to and JSP in a specific directoy, check that the file exists and if it does just forwarding to that file, if if doesn't I'm to forward to a default JSP. I've setup the web.xml as follows: <servlet> <description>This is the description of my J2EE component</description> <display-name>This is the display name of my J2EE component</display-name> <servlet-name>CustomJSPListener</servlet-name> <servlet-class> ... CustomJSPListener</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> ... <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>CustomJSPListener</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/custom/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> And the doGet method of the servlet is as follows: public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { logger.debug(String.format("Intercepted a request for an item in the custom directory [%s]",request.getRequestURL().toString())); String requestUri = request.getRequestURI(); // Check that the file name contains a text string if (requestUri.toLowerCase(Locale.UK).contains("someText")){ logger.debug(String.format("We are interested in this file [%s]",requestUri)); File file = new File(requestUri); boolean fileExists = file.exists(); logger.debug(String.format("Checking to see if file [%s] exists [%s].",requestUri,fileExists)); // if the file exists just forward it to the file if (fileExists){ getServletConfig().getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher( requestUri).forward(request,response); } else { // Otherwise redirect to default.jsp getServletConfig().getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher( "/custom/default.jsp").forward(request,response); } } else { // We aren't responsible for checking this file exists just pass it on to the requeseted jsp getServletConfig().getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher( requestUri).forward(request,response); } } This seems to result in an error 500 from tomcat, I think this is because the servlet is redirecting to the same folder which is then being intercepted again by the servlet, resulting in an infinite loop. Is there a better way to do this? I'm lead to believe that I could use filters to do this, but I don't know very much about them.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594  | Next Page >