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  • How to commit inside a CURSOR Loop?

    - by user320587
    Hi, I am trying to see if its possible to perform Update within a cursor loop and this updated data gets reflected during the second iteration in the loop. DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT [Product], [Customer], [Date], [Event] FROM MyTable WHERE [Event] IS NULL OPEN cur FETCH NEXT INTO @Product, @Customer, @Date, @Event WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE [Event] = 'No Event' AND [Date] < @DATE -- Now I update my Event value to 'No Event' for records whose date is less than @Date UPDATE MyTable SET [Event] = 'No Event' WHERE [Product] = @Product AND [Customer] = @Customer AND [Date] < @DATE FETCH NEXT INTO @Product, @Customer, @Date, @Event END CLOSE cur DEALLOCATE cur Assume when the sql executes the Event column is NULL for all records In the above sql, I am doing a select inside the cursor loop to query MyTable where Event value is 'No Event' but the query returns no value even though I am doing an update in the next line. So, I am thinking if it is even possible to update a table and the updated data get reflected in the next iteration of the cursor loop. Thanks for any help, Javid

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  • datetime command line argument in python 2.4

    - by Ike Walker
    I want to pass a datetime value into my python script on the command line. My first idea was to use optparse and pass the value in as a string, then use datetime.strptime to convert it to a datetime. This works fine on my machine (python 2.6), but I also need to run this script on machines that are running python 2.4, which doesn't have datetime.strptime. How can I pass the datetime value to the script in python 2.4? Here's the code I'm using in 2.6: parser = optparse.OptionParser() parser.add_option("-m", "--max_timestamp", dest="max_timestamp", help="only aggregate items older than MAX_TIMESTAMP", metavar="MAX_TIMESTAMP(YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MM)") options,args = parser.parse_args() if options.max_timestamp: # Try parsing the date argument try: max_timestamp = datetime.datetime.strptime(options.max_timestamp, "%Y-%m-%d %H:%M") except: print "Error parsing date input:",sys.exc_info() sys.exit(1)

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  • GIMP: Slightly wrong color when saving images

    - by chris_l
    When I create a new image, fill it with a single color, and save it as *.png or *.jpeg, it gets a slightly wrong color. When I save it as *.gif, the color is correct. Does this have something to do with a color profile? How can I turn it off? (Gimp 2.6.7 on Mac) BTW, when I use "Digital Color Meter" to check the color in the GIMP window, I also get a wrong value - but that value is again a little bit different.

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  • How to create custom exception handler for custom controls or extension methods.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I am creating an extension method in C# to retrieve some value from datagridview. Here if a user gives column name that doesnot exists then i want this function to throw an exception that can be handled at the place where this function will be called. How can i achieve this. public static T Value<T>(this DataGridView dgv, int RowNo, string ColName) { if (!dgv.Columns.Contains(ColName)) throw new ArgumentException("Column Name " + ColName + " doesnot exists in DataGridView."); return (T)Convert.ChangeType(dgv.Rows[RowNo].Cells[ColName].Value, typeof(T)); }

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  • Binary search of unaccesible data field in ldap from python

    - by EricR
    I'm interested in reproducing a particular python script. I have a friend who was accessing an ldap database, without authentication. There was a particular field of interest, we'll call it nin (an integer) for reference, and this field wasn't accessible without proper authentication. However, my friend managed to access this field through some sort of binary search (rather than just looping through integers) on the data; he would check the first digit, check if it was greater or less than the starting value, he would augment that until it returned a true value indicating existence, adding digits and continuing checking until he found the exact value of the integer nin. Any ideas on how he went about this? I've access to a similarly set up database.

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  • adding Form Validation Javacript of jquery???

    - by user634599
    How can I add inline Validation to make sure a choice of radio input must be selected <script type="text/javascript"> function choosePage() { if(document.getElementById('weightloss').form1_option1.checked) { window.location.replace( "http://google.com/" ); } if(document.getElementById('weightloss').form1_option2.checked) { window.location.replace( "http://yahoo.com/" ); } } </script> <form id="weightloss"> <input type="radio" id="form1_option1" name="weight-loss" value="5_day" class="plan"> <label for="form1_option1"> 5 Day - All Inclusive Price</label><br> <input type="radio" id="form1_option2" name="weight-loss" value="7_day"> <label for="form1_option2"> 7 Day - All Inclusive Price</label><br> <input type="button" value="Place Order" alt="Submit button" class="orange_btn" onclick="choosePage()"> </form>

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  • How to compare if string has a enter key in the end using jquery/javascript?

    - by user144842
    I have a string value from a user input box. I have to figure out if last char is a enter key (line feed). Thats the code. Here I am checking if last char has a whitespace. Now I also have to check if last char is enter key (carriage return or line feed). How can i do this? var txt = $get("<%= txtUserText.ClientID %>"); if (txt.value.substring(txt.value.length -1) !== ' ' || <checkifLastCharIsEnterKey>) //my code to take action **I don't think i need a keypress or keyup event because this above piece of code is not invoked at the time of user input.

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  • Is it possible to protect a single element in the appSettings section instead of the entire section?

    - by hambonious
    I would like to protect one key/value pair in my appSettings but not the others using something like I've previously done with the ProtectSection method as seen below. var configurationSection = config.GetSection("appSettings"); configurationSection.SectionInformation.ProtectSection("DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"); Ideally I would like to do something like the following: var configurationElement = config.GetSection("appSettings").GetElement("Protected"); configurationElement.ElementInformation.ProtectElement("DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"); Here is the example appSettings I would be operating on: <configuration> <appSettings> <add key="Unprotected" value="ChangeMeFreely" /> <add key="Protected" value="########"/> </appSettings> </configuration> I've been searching but haven't found a way to do this. Is this possible?

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  • Why is the this-pointer needed to access inherited attributes?

    - by Shadow
    Hi, assume the following class is given: class Base{ public: Base() {} Base( const Base& b) : base_attr(b.base_attr) {} void someBaseFunction() { .... } protected: SomeType base_attr; }; When I want a class to inherit from this one and include a new attribute for the derived class, I would write: class Derived: public Base { public: Derived() {} Derived( const Derived& d ) : derived_attr(d.derived_attr) { this->base_attr = d.base_attr; } void SomeDerivedFunction() { .... } private: SomeOtherType derived_attr; }; This works for me (let's ignore eventually missing semicolons or such please). However, when I remove the "this-" in the copy constructor of the derived class, the compiler complains that "'base_attr' was not declared in this scope". I thought that, when inheriting from a class, the protected attributes would then also be accessible directly. I did not know that the "this-" pointer was needed. I am now confused if it is actually correct what I am doing there, especially the copy-constructor of the Derived-class. Because each Derived object is supposed to have a base_attr and a derived_attr and they obviously need to be initialized/set correctly. And because Derived is inheriting from Base, I don't want to explicitly include an attribute named "base_attr" in the Derived-class. IMHO doing so would generally destroy the idea behind inheritance, as everything would have to be defined again. EDIT Thank you all for the quick answers. I completely forgot the fact that the classes actually are templates. Please, see the new examples below, which are actually compiling when including "this-" and are failing when omiting "this-" in the copy-constructor of the Derived-class: Base-class: #include <iostream> template<class T> class Base{ public: Base() : base_attr(0) {} Base( const Base& b) : base_attr(b.base_attr) {} void baseIncrement() { ++base_attr; } void printAttr() { std::cout << "Base Attribute: " << base_attr << std::endl; } protected: T base_attr; }; Derived-class: #include "base.hpp" template< class T > class Derived: public Base<T>{ public: Derived() : derived_attr(1) {} Derived( const Derived& d) : derived_attr(d.derived_attr) { this->base_attr = d.base_attr; } void derivedIncrement() { ++derived_attr; } protected: T derived_attr; }; and for completeness also the main function: #include "derived.hpp" int main() { Derived<int> d; d.printAttr(); d.baseIncrement(); d.printAttr(); Derived<int> d2(d); d2.printAttr(); return 0; }; I am using g++-4.3.4. Although I understood now that it seems to come from the fact that I use template-class definitions, I did not quite understand what is causing the problem when using templates and why it works when not using templates. Could someone please further clarify this?

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  • How do I get a delete trigger working using fluent API in CTP5?

    - by user668472
    I am having trouble getting referential integrity dialled down enough to allow my delete trigger to fire. I have a dependent entity with three FKs. I want it to be deleted when any of the principal entities is deleted. For principal entities Role and OrgUnit (see below) I can rely on conventions to create the required one-many relationship and cascade delete does what I want, ie: Association is removed when either principal is deleted. For Member, however, I have multiple cascade delete paths (not shown here) which SQL Server doesn't like, so I need to use fluent API to disable cascade deletes. Here is my (simplified) model: public class Association { public int id { get; set; } public int roleid { get; set; } public virtual Role role { get; set; } public int? memberid { get; set; } public virtual Member member { get; set; } public int orgunitid { get; set; } public int OrgUnit orgunit { get; set; } } public class Role { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } public class Member { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } public class Organization { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } My first run at fluent API code looks like this: protected override void OnModelCreating(System.Data.Entity.ModelConfiguration.ModelBuilder modelBuilder) { DbDatabase.SetInitializer<ConfDB_Model>(new ConfDBInitializer()); modelBuilder.Entity<Member>() .HasMany(m=>m.assocations) .WithOptional(a=>a.member) .HasForeignKey(a=>a.memberId) .WillCascadeOnDelete(false); } My seed function creates the delete trigger: protected override void Seed(ConfDB_Model context) { context.Database.SqlCommand("CREATE TRIGGER MemberAssocTrigger ON dbo.Members FOR DELETE AS DELETE Assocations FROM Associations, deleted WHERE Associations.memberId = deleted.id"); } PROBLEM: When I run this, create a Role, a Member, an OrgUnit, and an Association tying the three together all is fine. When I delete the Role, the Association gets cascade deleted as I expect. HOWEVER when I delete the Member I get an exception with a referential integrity error. I have tried setting ON CASCADE SET NULL because my memberid FK is nullable but SQL complains again about multiple cascade paths, so apparently I can cascade nothing in the Member-Association relationship. To get this to work I must add the following code to Seed(): context.Database.SqlCommand("ALTER TABLE dbo.ACLEntries DROP CONSTRAINT member_aclentries"); As you can see, this drops the constraint created by the model builder. QUESTION: this feels like a complete hack. Is there a way using fluent API for me to say that referential integrity should NOT be checked, or otherwise to get it to relax enough for the Member delete to work and allow the trigger to be fired? Thanks in advance for any help you can offer. Although fluent APIs may be "fluent" I find them far from intuitive.

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  • Why the OnWorkflowItemChanged is different between List and document library?

    - by Yongwei Xing
    I am doing a workflow for a document library. I put a OnWorkflowItemChanged, and I want to get the value of the column which is changed. I use the workflowProperties.Item["name"] and use the afterProperties. But when I use the workflowProperties.Item["column name"], I still got the original value. When I use the afterProperties, it's NULL. Then I make another workflow that is the same as above for a list. I can use the workflowProperties.Item["column name"] to get the new value in OnWorkflowItemChanged. Has anyone come across this problem before? Can you give me some help?

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  • utf8 and unicode getting warning messages in mysql

    - by BufordTaylor
    I have a mysql table. When I try to insert, I get this: Warning: Incorrect string value: '\xAE</...' for column 'value' at row 1 mysql> show create table Configurations; | Configurations | CREATE TABLE `Configurations` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `title` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ckey` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `value` mediumtext, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `ckey` (`ckey`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=29 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 | mysql> SHOW VARIABLES LIKE 'coll%'; +----------------------+-----------------+ | Variable_name | Value | +----------------------+-----------------+ | collation_connection | utf8_general_ci | | collation_database | utf8_general_ci | | collation_server | utf8_general_ci | +----------------------+-----------------+ I googled the hell out of the error, and it all seemed to boil down to utf8 being set as my default character set. I've been like that for a while. I'm not sure what else to do. Help?

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  • Problem when trying to use simple Shaders + VBOs

    - by Mr.Gando
    Hello I'm trying to convert the following functions to a VBO based function for learning purposes, it displays a static texture on screen. I'm using OpenGL ES 2.0 with shaders on the iPhone (should be almost the same than regular OpenGL in this case), this is what I got working: //Works! - (void) drawAtPoint:(CGPoint)point depth:(CGFloat)depth { GLfloat coordinates[] = { 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0 }; GLfloat width = (GLfloat)_width * _maxS, height = (GLfloat)_height * _maxT; GLfloat vertices[] = { -width / 2 + point.x, -height / 2 + point.y, width / 2 + point.x, -height / 2 + point.y, -width / 2 + point.x, height / 2 + point.y, width / 2 + point.x, height / 2 + point.y, }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, _name); //Attrib position and attrib_tex coord are handles for the shader attributes glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_POSITION, 2, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, vertices); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_POSITION); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_TEXCOORD, 2, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, coordinates); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_TEXCOORD); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4); } I tried to do this to convert to a VBO however I don't see anything displaying on-screen with this version: //Doesn't display anything - (void) drawAtPoint:(CGPoint)point depth:(CGFloat)depth { GLfloat width = (GLfloat)_width * _maxS, height = (GLfloat)_height * _maxT; GLfloat position[] = { -width / 2 + point.x, -height / 2 + point.y, width / 2 + point.x, -height / 2 + point.y, -width / 2 + point.x, height / 2 + point.y, width / 2 + point.x, height / 2 + point.y, }; //Texture on-screen position ( each vertex is x,y in on-screen coords ) GLfloat coordinates[] = { 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0 }; // Texture coords from 0 to 1 glBindVertexArrayOES(vao); glGenVertexArraysOES(1, &vao); glGenBuffers(2, vbo); //Buffer 1 glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, vbo[0]); glBufferData(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, 8 * sizeof(GLfloat), position, GL_STATIC_DRAW); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_POSITION); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_POSITION, 2, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, position); //Buffer 2 glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, vbo[1]); glBufferData(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, 8 * sizeof(GLfloat), coordinates, GL_DYNAMIC_DRAW); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_TEXCOORD); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_TEXCOORD, 2, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, coordinates); //Draw glBindVertexArrayOES(vao); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, _name); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4); } In both cases I'm using this simple Vertex Shader //Vertex Shader attribute vec2 position;//Bound to ATTRIB_POSITION attribute vec4 color; attribute vec2 texcoord;//Bound to ATTRIB_TEXCOORD varying vec2 texcoordVarying; uniform mat4 mvp; void main() { //You CAN'T use transpose before in glUniformMatrix4fv so... here it goes. gl_Position = mvp * vec4(position.x, position.y, 0.0, 1.0); texcoordVarying = texcoord; } The gl_Position is equal to product of mvp * vec4 because I'm simulating glOrthof in 2D with that mvp And this Fragment Shader //Fragment Shader uniform sampler2D sampler; varying mediump vec2 texcoordVarying; void main() { gl_FragColor = texture2D(sampler, texcoordVarying); } I really need help with this, maybe my shaders are wrong for the second case ? thanks in advance.

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  • Not able to pass multiple override parameters using nose-testconfig 0.6 plugin in nosetests

    - by Jaikit
    Hi, I am able to override multiple config parameters using nose-testconfig plugin only if i pass the overriding parameters on commandline. e.g. nosetests -c nose.cfg -s --tc=jack.env1:asl --tc=server2.env2:abc But when I define the same thing inside nose.cfg, than only the value for last parameter is modified. e.g. tc = server2.env2:abc tc = jack.env1:asl I checked the plugin code. It looks fine to me. I am pasting the part of plugin code below: parser.add_option( "--tc", action="append", dest="overrides", default = [], help="Option:Value specific overrides.") configure: if options.overrides: self.overrides = [] overrides = tolist(options.overrides) for override in overrides: keys, val = override.split(":") if options.exact: config[keys] = val else: ns = ''.join(['["%s"]' % i for i in keys.split(".") ]) # BUG: Breaks if the config value you're overriding is not # defined in the configuration file already. TBD exec('config%s = "%s"' % (ns, val)) Let me know if any one has any clue.

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  • In Javascript, is there a technique where I can execute code after a return?

    - by Christopher Altman
    Is there a technique where I can execute code after a return? I want to return a value then reset the value without introducing a temporary variable. My current code is: function(a){ var b; if(b){ var temp = b; //I want to avoid this step b = false; return temp; }else{ b = a; return false; }; }; I want to avoid the temp var. Is that possible? var b holds a value between function calls because it is a memoization styled function.

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  • IE8 blocking JavaScript Cookies

    - by ossreleasefeed
    Hey there folks, Here is one that is throwing me for a loop. I am trying to set a simple cookie that has one name:value pair on IE8. Tested on FF and it works fine. IE8 keeps blocking it. I have read about the P3P stuff and created a basic P3P doc, no errors reported by the IBM tool, and added the following on all pages: <meta http-equiv="P3P" CP="CAO DSP COR PSDa CONi TELi OUR STP COM NAV"><link rel="P3Pv1" href="/w3c/p3p.xml"></link> The code I use to set the cookie is as follows: function setCompatibilityCookie(c_name, value, expiredays) { var exdate = new Date(); exdate.setDate(exdate.getDate() + expiredays); document.cookie= c_name + "=" + escape(value) + ((expiredays==null) ? "" : ";expires=" + exdate.toUTCString());} Any ideas why IE8 keeps blocking me from setting this cookie? Thank you, Schalk

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  • session state of checkbox list

    - by xrx215
    Can you please help me in storing the checkbox list items in session. I have a checkbox list as follows asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblScope" runat="server" onselectedindexchanged="cblScope_SelectedIndexChanged"> asp:ListItem ID="liInScope" runat="server" Value="true">In Scope (Monitored)</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem ID="liOutOfScope" runat="server" Value="true">Out of Scope (Unmonitored)</asp:ListItem> /asp:CheckBoxList> I have to store the value of the checkbox in session when they are cheked.

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  • ajax strange error with sending multiple parameter

    - by kawtousse
    hi everyone, please check with me where is the error in this ajax code to send 2 parameters: var xhr = getXhr(); // On défini ce qu'on va faire quand on aura la réponse xhr.onreadystatechange = function(){ // On ne fait quelque chose que si on a tout reçu et que le serveur est ok if(xhr.readyState == 4 && xhr.status == 200) { selects = xhr.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste //document.getElementById('prjsel').innerHTML = selects; } }; xhr.open("POST","ServletEdition",true); xhr.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; fu=document.getElementById("formUpdate").value; //alert(fu); var i=1; xhr.send("id=" +id+", fu="+i); i cant got the value of fu i don't know why. thanks

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  • Multiple Submit Buttons problem in Struts2

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi All, Trying to work with multiple submit buttons within a single form in struts2 application but not able to work. here is the jsp code i am using <tr> <td class="button"><input type="submit" value="Import" name="destinationImport" class="button"></td> <td class="button"><input type="submit" value="Export" name="destinationExport" class="button"></td> </tr> here is the java part private boolean destinationImport; private boolean destinationExport; and there respective setter and getter but i am sure is that Struts2 type convertor is having problem converting the String value to boolean do any one have idea how to achieve this Thanks in advance

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  • Editting ForeignKey from "child" table

    - by profuel
    I'm programming on py with django. I have models: class Product(mymodels.Base): title = models.CharField() price = models.ForeignKey(Price) promoPrice = models.ForeignKey(Price, related_name="promo_price") class Price(mymodels.Base): value = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=3) taxValue = models.DecimalField("Tax Value", max_digits=10, decimal_places=3) valueWithTax = models.DecimalField("Value with Tax", max_digits=10, decimal_places=3) I want to see INPUTs for both prices when editing product, but cannot find any possibility to do that. inlines = [...] works only from Price to Product, which is stupid in this case. Thanx for adnvance.

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  • Javascript code for handling Form behaviour.

    - by Andrew
    Hello, Here's how the situation looks : I have a couple simple forms <form action='settings.php' method='post'> <input type='hidden' name='setting' value='value1'> <input type='submit' value='Value1'> </form> Other small forms close to it have value2, value3, ... for the specific setting1, etc. Now, I have all these forms placed on the settings.php subpage, but I'd also like to have copies of one or two of them on the index.php subpage (for ease of access, as they are in certain situations rather frequently used). Thing is I do not want those forms based on the index.php to redirect me in any way to settings.php, just post the hidden value to alter settings and that's all. How can I do this with JS ? Cheers

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  • Implementing IComparer<T> For IComparer<DictionaryEntry>

    - by Phil Sandler
    I am using the ObservableSortedDictionary from Dr. WPF. The constructor looks like this: public ObservableSortedDictionary(IComparer<DictionaryEntry> comparer) I am really struggling to create an implementation that satisfies the constructor and works. My current code (that won't compile) is: public class TimeCreatedComparer<T> : IComparer<T> { public int Compare(T x, T y) { var myclass1 = (IMyClass)((DictionaryEntry)x).Value; var myclass2 = (IMyClass)((DictionaryEntry)y).Value; return myclass1.TimeCreated.CompareTo(myclass2.TimeCreated); } } It says I can't cast from T to DictionaryEntry. If I cast directly to IMyClass, it compiles, but I get a runtime error saying I can't cast from DictionaryEntry to IMyClass. At runtime, x and y are instances of DictionaryEntry, which each have the correct IMyClass as their Value.

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  • Ways to access a JavaScript Object's Property in IE6

    - by aaronrussell
    I have a JavaScript object with some properties. Lets say: var haystack = { foo: {value: "fooooo"}, bar: {value: "baaaaa"} }; Now, I want to access one of those properties, but I don't know which one. Luckily, this variable does: var needle = "foo"; In modern browsers I seem to be able to do the following and it works: haystack[needle].value; # returns "fooooo" But in IE6 it throws a wobbly, haystack[...] is null or not an object. Is there a way to achieve what I'm trying to achieve in IE6? If so, how so?

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  • Function call within XAML code?

    - by Matt H.
    I'd like to set a style on all my TextBox controls that does the following when it receives keyboard focus: 1) Change the background color 2) Call .SelectAll() to highlight all text I have this so far: <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsKeyboardFocusWithin" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <SolidColorBrush Color="#FFFFD1D9"/> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> Is there a way to also call .SelectAll() ? Thanks.

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  • jQuery validator and a custom rule that uses AJAX

    - by thatweblook
    Hi, I read your reply regarding the jQuery validator where you outline a method to check a username against a value in a database. Ive tried implementing this method but no matter what is returned from the PHP file I always get the message that the username is already taken. Here is ths custom method... $.validator.addMethod("uniqueUserName", function(value, element) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/get_save_status.php", data: "checkUsername="+value, dataType:"html", success: function(msg) { // if the user exists, it returns a string "true" if(msg == "true") return false; // already exists return true; // username is free to use } })}, "Username is Already Taken"); And here is the validate code... username: { required: true, uniqueUserName: true }, Is there a specific way i am supposed to return the message from php. Thanks A

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