Search Results

Search found 18677 results on 748 pages for 'current'.

Page 589/748 | < Previous Page | 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596  | Next Page >

  • Maven compile plugin

    - by phanikiran
    Hi every body, in pom of a project, i have added dependency with scope compile . which is a jar file which contains some class file and jar's as well. my current java file needs internal jars of dependent jar to compile. But maven compile goal returning compilation error . :banghead: All the jar's needed to compile are in the single jar file which is added in dependency............................. Please help me! my pom: <dependency> <groupId>eagle</groupId> <artifactId>zkui</artifactId> <version>360LTS</version> <type>jar</type> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> <build> <sourceDirectory>./src/main/java/</sourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>./target/classes/</outputDirectory> <finalName>${project.groupId}-${project.artifactId}</finalName> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> error: package org.zkoss.zk.ui does not exist this package org.zkoss.zk.ui is in jar file zkex.jar which is in dependency jar eagle:zkui:360LTS jar file Please Help ME!!!! :jumpingjoy: Advance Thanks

    Read the article

  • Design Pattern for error handling in ASP.NET 3.5 site

    - by Kevin
    I am relatively new to ASP.NET programming, and web programming in general. We have a site we recently ported from .NET 1.1 to 3.5. Currently we have two methods of error handling: either catching the error during data load on a page and displaying the formatted error in a label on the page, or redirecting to a generic error page. Both of these are somewhat annoying, as right now I'm trying to redesign how our errors are displayed. We are soon moving to Master pages, and I'm wondering if there is a way to "build in" an error handling control. What I mean by this is using a ASP.NET user control I've designed that simply gets passed the error string returned from the server. If an error occurs, the page would not display the content, and instead display the error control. This provides us with the ability to retain the current banner/navigation during an error (which we don't get with the generic error page), as well as keeping me from having to add the control to every aspx page we have (which I have to do with using the label-per-page system). Does something like this make sense? Ultimately I just want to have the error control added to a single page, and all other pages have access to it directly. Is this something Master pages help with? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problems with "global" exception handlers for unhandled exceptions in multithreaded WPF

    - by JustABill
    I have a program that, among other things, needs to be able to refresh the contents of a directory when the user tells it to. The actual task doesn't really matter, but this is the simplest way of causing this problem to occur that I know of. If I tell it to open a directory that doesn't exist, I get the "unhandled exception" dialog in VS with a stack trace of, from outer to inner: [External code] Textbox PreviewKeyUp event [External code] ClassA's path property being set ClassA's internal path update function being called A call to the INotifyPropertyChanged event [External code] A call to the getter for ClassB's list of children A call to ClassB's internal directory list function And then it fails inside this internal function. I have the following in my App.xaml.cs: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); Application.Current.Dispatcher.UnhandledException += new System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherUnhandledExceptionEventHandler(Dispatcher_UnhandledException); } But neither of their exception handlers are being called. If I run this program from outside VS, I don't get notified of an exception at all, it just breaks because of the invalid input. And yes, the Application_Startup event is being called. How can I properly "trap" this exception so I can provide a friendly error message and kill the program?

    Read the article

  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Optimizing MySQL for ALTER TABLE of InnoDB

    - by schuilr
    Sometime soon we will need to make schema changes to our production database. We need to minimize downtime for this effort, however, the ALTER TABLE statements are going to run for quite a while. Our largest tables have 150 million records, largest table file is 50G. All tables are InnoDB, and it was set up as one big data file (instead of a file-per-table). We're running MySQL 5.0.46 on an 8 core machine, 16G memory and a RAID10 config. I have some experience with MySQL tuning, but this usually focusses on reads or writes from multiple clients. There is lots of info to be found on the Internet on this subject, however, there seems to be very little information available on best practices for (temporarily) tuning your MySQL server to speed up ALTER TABLE on InnoDB tables, or for INSERT INTO .. SELECT FROM (we will probably use this instead of ALTER TABLE to have some more opportunities to speed things up a bit). The schema changes we are planning to do is adding a integer column to all tables and make it the primary key, instead of the current primary key. We need to keep the 'old' column as well so overwriting the existing values is not an option. What would be the ideal settings to get this task done as quick as possible?

    Read the article

  • MySQL: Complex Join Statement involving two tables and a third correlation table

    - by Stephen
    I have two tables that were built for two disparate systems. I have records in one table (called "leads") that represent customers, and records in another table (called "manager") that are the exact same customers but "manager" uses different fields (For example, "leads" contains an email address, and "manager" contains two fields for two different emails--either of which might be the email from "leads"). So, I've created a correlation table that contains the lead_id and manager_id. currently this correlation table is empty. I'm trying to query the "leads" table to give me records that match either "manager" email field with the single "leads" email field, while at the same time ignoring fields that have already been added to the "correlated" table. (this way I can see how many leads that match have not yet been correlated.) Here's my current, invalid SQL attempt: SELECT leads.id, manager.id FROM leads, manager LEFT OUTER JOIN correlation ON correlation.lead_id = leads.id WHERE correlation.id IS NULL AND leads.project != "someproject" AND (manager.orig_email = leads.email OR manager.dest_email = leads.email) AND leads.created BETWEEN '1999-01-01 00:00:00' AND '2010-05-10 23:59:59' ORDER BY leads.created ASC; I get the error: Unknown column 'leads.id' in 'on clause' Before you wonder: there are records in the "leads" table where leads.project != "someproject" and leads.created falls between those dates. I've included those additional parameters for completeness.

    Read the article

  • How do I get Ctrl-Backspace to delete a word in vim within gnome-terminal?

    - by Michael Gundlach
    I'd like Ctrl-Backspace to delete the current word in vim insert mode. From within xterm I can pull this off via :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> but in gnome-terminal I cannot figure out a way to make it happen. When in vim insert mode, if I type control-v and then press backspace, I get ^H in xterm, and ^? in gnome-terminal. Unfortunately, :inoremap <C-?> <C-W> doesn't do the trick in gnome-terminal; control-backspace just erases a single character no matter what. Regarding ASCII codes: Gnome-terminal lets you change the backspace character under Edit - Profile Preferences - Compatibility. Unfortunately, no option works, as far as I can tell: whatever character I apply to Backspace via the settings, if I try mapping the character itself, like :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace both erase an entire word; and if I try mapping control plus that character, like :inoremap <C-^H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace just erase a single character.

    Read the article

  • Git force complete sync to master

    - by Jesse
    My workplace uses Subversion for source control so I have been playing around with git-svn for the advantages of my own branches, commit as often as I want without touching the main repo, etc. Since my git svn checkout is local, I have cloned it to a network share as well to act as a backup. My thinking is that if my desktop takes a dump I will at least have the repo on the network share to get changes that I have not had a chance to dcommit yet. My workflow is to work from the desktop, make changes, commit, etc. At the end of the day I want to update the repo on the network share with all of my current changes. I had setup the repo on the network share using git clone repo_on_my_desktop and then updating the repo on the network share with git pull origin master. The problem that I am running into is when I used do a git rebase to squish multiple commits prior to dcommitting to the main svn repository. When I do this, I get merge conflicts on the repo on the network share when I try to backup at night. Is there a way to simply sync entirely with the repository on my desktop without doing a new git clone each night?

    Read the article

  • Retrieve property from classpath inside POM

    - by Jeroen
    For my current project I want to integrate a maven plug-in for database migrations. For this plug-in to work, however, I have to obtain the database settings inside my POM. My database settings are currently placed inside a hibernate.properties file, positioned in a directory that is marked as maven resource. For a variety of reasons I do not want to duplicate my database configurations in both the pom and hibernate.properties. I'm aware that maven offers a "filtering" ability which makes it possible to specify the database settings as property inside my POM, and reference them inside my hibernate.properties as ${property_name}. But as I'm using multiple maven profiles, with different property resources, this is not a suitable solution. Instead I'd like my database configurations to be loaded from a property file inside my classpath (e.g. classpath:hibernate.properties), and use these properties in my migration plug-in configuration. I have already tried the org.codehaus.mojo » properties-maven-plugin, but this plug-in only accepts absolute locations. Is there a plug-in which can scan all my maven resources for a certain property?

    Read the article

  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

    Read the article

  • is it possible to display video information from an rtsp stream in an android app UI

    - by Joseph Cheung
    I have managed to get a working video player that can stream rtsp links, however im not sure how to display the videos current time position in the UI, i have used the getDuration and getCurrentPosition calls, stored this information in a string and tried to display it in the UI but it doesnt seem to work in main.xml: TextView android:id="@+id/player" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_margin="1px" android:text="@string/cpos" / in strings.xml: string name="cpos""" /string in Player.java private void playVideo(String url) { try { media.setEnabled(false); if (player == null) { player = new MediaPlayer(); player.setScreenOnWhilePlaying(true); } else { player.stop(); player.reset(); } player.setDataSource(url); player.getCurrentPosition(); player.setDisplay(holder); player.setAudioStreamType(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); player.setOnPreparedListener(this); player.prepareAsync(); player.setOnBufferingUpdateListener(this); player.setOnCompletionListener(this); } catch (Throwable t) { Log.e(TAG, "Exception in media prep", t); goBlooey(t); try { try { player.prepare(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Log.v(TAG, "Duration: === " + player.getDuration()); } catch (IllegalStateException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } private Runnable onEverySecond = new Runnable() { public void run() { if (lastActionTime 0 && SystemClock.elapsedRealtime() - lastActionTime 3000) { clearPanels(false); } if (player != null) { timeline.setProgress(player.getCurrentPosition()); //stores getCurrentPosition as a string cpos = String.valueOf(player.getCurrentPosition()); System.out.print(cpos); } if (player != null) { timeline.setProgress(player.getDuration()); //stores getDuration as a string cdur = String.valueOf(player.getDuration()); System.out.print(cdur); } if (!isPaused) { surface.postDelayed(onEverySecond, 1000); } } };

    Read the article

  • How do I overwrite a file currently being read by Python

    - by Brian
    Hi guys, I am not too sure the best way to word this, but what I want to do, is read a pdf file, make various modifications, and save the modified pdf over the original file. As of now, I am able to save the modified pdf to a separate file, but I am looking to replace the original, not create a new file. Here is my current code: from pyPdf import PdfFileWriter, PdfFileReader output = PdfFileWriter() input = PdfFileReader(file('input.pdf', 'rb')) blank = PdfFileReader(file('C:\\BLANK.pdf', 'rb')) # Copy the input pdf to the output. for page in range(int(input.getNumPages())): output.addPage(input.getPage(page)) # Add a blank page if needed. if (input.getNumPages() % 2 != 0): output.addPage(blank.getPage(0)) # Write the output to pdf. outputStream = file('input.pdf', 'wb') output.write(outputStream) outputStream.close() If i change the outputStream to a different file name, it works fine, I just cant save over the input file because it is still being used. I have tried to .close() the stream, but it was giving me errors as well. I have a feeling this has a fairly simple solution, I just haven't had any luck finding it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to insert and call by row and column into sqlite3 python

    - by user291071
    Lets say i have a simple array of x rows and y columns with corresponding values, What is the best method to do 3 things? How to insert, update a value at a specific row column? How to select a value for each row and column, import sqlite3 con = sqlite3.connect('simple.db') c = con.cursor() c.execute('''create table simple (links text)''') con.commit() dic = {'x1':{'y1':1.0,'y2':0.0},'x2':{'y1':0.0,'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5},'x3':{'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5}} ucols = {} ## my current thoughts are collect all row values and all column values from dic and populate table row and columns accordingly how to call by row and column i havn't figured out yet ##populate rows in first column for row in dic: print row c.execute("""insert into simple ('links') values ('%s')"""%row) con.commit() ##unique columns for row in dic: print row for col in dic[row]: print col ucols[col]=dic[row][col] ##populate columns for col in ucols: print col c.execute("alter table simple add column '%s' 'float'" % col) con.commit() #functions needed ##insert values into sql by row x and column y?how to do this e.g. x1 and y2 should put in 0.0 ##I tried as follows didn't work for row in dic: for col in dic[row]: val =dic[row][col] c.execute("""update simple SET '%s' = '%f' WHERE 'links'='%s'"""%(col,val,row)) con.commit() ##update value at a specific row x and column y? ## select a value at a specific row x and column y?

    Read the article

  • Personal Cache vs Memcache?

    - by Kerry
    I have a personal caching class, which can be seen here ( based off WordPress' ): http://pastie.org/988427 I recently learned about memcache and it said to memcache EVERYTHING: http://highscalability.com/blog/2010/5/17/7-lessons-learned-while-building-reddit-to-270-million-page.html My first thought was just to keep my class with the current functions and make it use memcache instead -- is there any downside to doing this? The main difference I see is that memcache stays on with the server from page to page, while mine is for 1 page load. The problem I see arising, and this is with any system, is that they're dynamic. They change all the time. Whether its search results, visible products, etc. etc. If it's all cached, won't the create a problem? Is there a way to handle this? Obviously if something is bringing back the same results everytime it would be cached, but that's why I was doing it on a per page load basis. I'm sure there is a way to handle this, or is the cache time usually set between 5 minutes and an hour?

    Read the article

  • Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

    - by Brian Lang
    I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • How can I line up columns with Perl's printf when the value might be a number or a string?

    - by user317203
    I am trying to output a document that looks like this (more at http://pastebin.com/dpBAY8Sb): 10.1.1.1 100 <unknown> <unknown> <unknown> <unknown> <unknown> 72.12.148.186 94 Canada Hamilton ON 43.250000 -79.833300 0.00 72.68.209.149 24 United States Richmond Hill NY 40.700500 -73.834500 611.32 72.192.33.34 4 United States Rocky Hill CT 41.657800 -72.662700 657.48 I cannot find how to format the output I have to have a floating poing and format the distance between columns. My current code looks something like this. if (defined $longitude){ printf FILE ("%-8s %.6f","",$longitude); }else{ $longitude = "<unknown>"; printf FILE ("%-20s ",$longitude); } The extra "" throws off the whole column and it looks like this (more at http://pastebin.com/kcwHyNwb). 10.1.1.1 100 <unknown> <unknown> <unknown> <unknown> <unknown> 72.12.148.186 94 Canada Hamilton ON 43.250000 -79.833300 0.00 72.68.209.149 24 United States Richmond Hill NY 40.700500 -73.834500 571.06

    Read the article

  • ComDlg32.ocx Error: Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by abhilashca
    I'm developing an html editor using ComDlg32.ocx (Commom Dialog Control), using HTML and VBScript. My exact requirement was to prompt Open/Save/Color/Print/Font dialog boxes.Ive written code for prompting Save file dialog box. Also I've added a license file using LPK Tool onto my webpage. My html-source looks like: <body> <!-- lpk file --> <object classid="clsid:5220cb21-c88d-11cf-b347-00aa00a28331"> <param name="LPKPath" value="License/comdlg.lpk" /> </object> <!-- Microsoft Common Dialog Control --> <object classid="CLSID:F9043C85-F6F2-101A-A3C9-08002B2F49FB" codebase="http://activex.microsoft.com/controls/vb6/COMDLG32.CAB" id="objComDlg"></object> </body> Now, here comes my error. Whenever I try to call the vbscript for prompting the Save File dialog box, Im getting an error as : Object doesn't support this property or method: 'objComDlg.Filter' If I comment out the objComDlg.Filter then the error move on to objComDlg.DialogTitle and thus it goes on. And my VBScript look like: FILE_FORMATS = "Rich Text Format (*.rtf)|*.rtf|Microsoft Word (*.doc)|*.doc|ANSI Text Document (*.txt)|*.txt" objComDlg.Filter = FILE_FORMATS <--- Error shows here objComDlg.DialogTitle = "Save As " objComDlg.Flags = cdlOFNFileMustExist Or cdlOFNHideReadOnly objComDlg.CancelError = True objComDlg.ShowSave Does anyone have an idea why this is happening? Is there any proper documentation for using this particular ActiveX control? My current development is in stand-still due to this error. Any help will be appreciated. Looking forward for your response. BTW, I'm using Windows XP SP3 and IE8 for my development. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Cookie add in the Global.asax warning in application log

    - by Ioxp
    In my Global.ASAX file i have the following: System.Web.HttpCookie isAccess = new System.Web.HttpCookie("IsAccess"); isAccess.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1); isAccess.Value = ""; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(isAccess); So every time this method this is logged in the application events as a warning: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 5/25/2010 12:23:20 PM Event time (UTC): 5/25/2010 4:23:20 PM Event ID: c515e27a28474eab8d99720c3f5a8e90 Event sequence: 4148 Event occurrence: 332 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2100509645/Root-1-129192259222289896 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: <PathRemoved>\www\ Machine name: TIPPER Process information: Process ID: 6936 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: NullReferenceException Exception message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Request information: Request URL: Request path: User host address: User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at ASP.global_asax.Session_End(Object sender, EventArgs e) in <PathRemoved>\Global.asax:line 113 Any idea why this code would cause this error?

    Read the article

  • How to suppress/control logging of Wagon-FTP Maven extension?

    - by Vincenzo
    I'm deploying Maven site by FTP, using Wagon-FTP. Works fine, but output is full of FTP connection/authentication details, which effectively expose logins and passwords to everybody (especially if the project is open source and its CI protocols are publicly accessible): [...] [INFO] [INFO] --- maven-site-plugin:3.0-beta-3:deploy (default-deploy) @ rempl --- Reply received: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] [TLS] ---------- 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. 220-Local time is now 09:08. Server port: 21. 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command sent: USER **** Reply received: 331 User **** OK. Password required Command sent: PASS ******** Reply received: 230-User **** has group access to: *** 230 OK. Current restricted directory is / [...] Is it possible to suppress this logging? Or configure it... This is a section of my pom.xml, where Wagon-FTP is used: [...] <build> <extensions> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-7</version> </extension> </extensions> [...] </build> [...]

    Read the article

  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

    Read the article

  • Runtime Exception when using Custom Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is it doesn't. In less than high trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

    Read the article

  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

    Read the article

  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

    Read the article

  • Reasonable expectation to support new Operating Systems?

    - by Neil N
    My company has a desktop app originally developed for Windows XP. The original programmer has since been fired (fired with extreme prejudice I might add). I have fixed the app various times but overall try to avoid it, it is a mess and the only real way to fix it is to completely rewrite it, which could take a year. We have been trying to "forget" about this app, and instead steer clients towards our web version, which is more up to date, easier to maintain, easier to extend, and WAY easier to support. Most clients agree, the web version is just better all around. However we have one client that insists on using the desktop app. The app required a little duct tape to get working on Vista, but now completely breaks on Windows 7. I'm not even sure WHAT all the fixes are to get it working on Win7 (the current time estimate stands at "miracle") but after both installing the RELEASE build, and running the DEBUG build from Visual Studio, the app has errors on nearly every user action, and from what I can see from a high level test run, none of them are related. Since Windows 7 did not exist when this app was developed, is my company really expected to make all the required changes to make it function as "smoothly" as it did on XP?

    Read the article

  • Path to XML DTD for DBUnit in multi-module Java/Maven project?

    - by HDave
    I have a multi-module maven project. Within the persist module I have a number of XML files data files that reference a DTD: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE myapp-data SYSTEM "myapp-data.dtd" > <dataset> .....omitted for brevity.... </dataset> The DTD is stored in the same directory with the XML files and even Eclipse reports these XML files as valid. However, when I run the application, the DBUnit FlatXMLDataSet throws a FileNotFound exception because it cannot located the DTD. It is apparently looking for the DTD in the root project directory (e.g. myproject/). I would have expected it to look for the DTD in the same directory as the XML file itself (e.g. myproject/persist/target/test-data). Looking at the DBUnit source code, it has this to say about it "Relative DOCTYPE uri are resolved from the current working dicrectory." What's a good way to fix this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596  | Next Page >