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• Downloading Python 2.5.4 (from official website) in order to install it

  - by brilliant

  I was quite hesitant about whether I should post this question here on "StackOverflow" or on "SuperUser", but finally decided to post it here as Python is more a programming language rather than a piece of software. I've been recently using Python 2.5.4 that is installed on my computer, but at the moment I am not at home (and won't be for about two weeks from now), so I need to install the same version of Python on another computer. This computer has Windows XP installed – just like the one that I have at home. The reason why I need Python 2.5.4 is because I am using “Google App Engine”, and I was told that it only supports Python 2.5 However, when I went to the official Python page for the download, I discovered that certain things have changed, and I don’t quite remember where exactly from that site I had downloaded Python 2.5.4 on my computer at home. I found this page: http://www.python.org/download/releases/2.5.4/ Here is how it looks: (If you can’t see it here, please check it out at this address: http://brad.cwahi.net/some_pictures/python_page.jpg ) A few things here are not clear to me. It says: “For x86 processors: python-2.5.4.msi For Win64-Itanium users: python-2.5.4.ia64.msi For Win64-AMD64 users: python-2.5.4.amd64.msi” First of all, I don’t know what processor I am using – whether mine is “x86” or not; and also, I don’t know whether I am an “Win64-Itanium” or an “Win64-AMD64” user. Are Itanium and AMD64 also processors? Later it says: “Windows XP and later already have MSI; many older machines will already have MSI installed.” I guess, it is my case, but then I am totally puzzled as to which link I should click as it seems now that I don’t need those three previous links (as MSI is already installed on Windows XP), but there is no fourth link provided for those who use “Windows XP” or older machines. Of course, there are these words after that: “Windows users may also be interested in Mark Hammond's win32all package, available from Sourceforge.” but it seems to me that it is something additional rather than the main file. So, my question is simple: Where in the official Python website I can download Python 2.5.4, precisely, which link I should click?

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• JPA @ManyToOne and composite PK

  - by Fleuri F

  Good Morning, I am working on project using JPA. I need to use a @ManyToOne mapping on a class that has three primary keys. You can find the errors and the classes after this. If anyone has an idea! Thanks in advance! FF javax.persistence.PersistenceException: No Persistence provider for EntityManager named JTA_pacePersistence: Provider named oracle.toplink.essentials.PersistenceProvider threw unexpected exception at create EntityManagerFactory: javax.persistence.PersistenceException javax.persistence.PersistenceException: Exception [TOPLINK-28018] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.0.1 (Build b09d-fcs (12/06/2007))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.EntityManagerSetupException Exception Description: predeploy for PersistenceUnit [JTA_pacePersistence] failed. Internal Exception: Exception [TOPLINK-7220] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.0.1 (Build b09d-fcs (12/06/2007))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.ValidationException Exception Description: The @JoinColumns on the annotated element [private java.util.Set isd.pacepersistence.common.Action.permissions] from the entity class [class isd.pacepersistence.common.Action] is incomplete. When the source entity class uses a composite primary key, a @JoinColumn must be specified for each join column using the @JoinColumns. Both the name and the referenceColumnName elements must be specified in each such @JoinColumn. at oracle.toplink.essentials.internal.ejb.cmp3.EntityManagerSetupImpl.predeploy(EntityManagerSetupImpl.java:643) at oracle.toplink.essentials.ejb.cmp3.EntityManagerFactoryProvider.createEntityManagerFactory(EntityManagerFactoryProvider.java:196) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:110) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:83) at isd.pacepersistence.common.DataMapper.(Unknown Source) at isd.pacepersistence.server.MainServlet.getDebugCase(Unknown Source) at isd.pacepersistence.server.MainServlet.doGet(Unknown Source) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:718) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:831) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.servletService(ApplicationFilterChain.java:411) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invokeInternal(StandardContextValve.java:271) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:202) There is the source code of my classes : Action : @Entity @Table(name="action") public class Action { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int num; @ManyToOne(cascade= { CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.MERGE, CascadeType.REFRESH }) @JoinColumn(name="domain_num") private Domain domain; private String name; private String description; @OneToMany @JoinTable(name="permission", joinColumns= { @JoinColumn(name="action_num", referencedColumnName="action_num", nullable=false, updatable=false) }, inverseJoinColumns= { @JoinColumn(name="num") }) private Set<Permission> permissions; public Action() { } Permission : @SuppressWarnings("serial") @Entity @Table(name="permission") public class Permission implements Serializable { @EmbeddedId private PermissionPK primaryKey; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="action_num", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Action action; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="entity_num", insertable=false, updatable=false) private isd.pacepersistence.common.Entity entity; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="class_num", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Clazz clazz; private String kondition; public Permission() { } PermissionPK : @SuppressWarnings("serial") @Entity @Table(name="permission") public class Permission implements Serializable { @EmbeddedId private PermissionPK primaryKey; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="action_num", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Action action; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="entity_num", insertable=false, updatable=false) private isd.pacepersistence.common.Entity entity; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="class_num", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Clazz clazz; private String kondition; public Permission() { }

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• VBA/SQL recordsets

  - by intruesiive

  The project I'm asking about is for sending an email to teachers asking what books they're using for the classes they're teaching next semester, so that the books can be ordered. I have a query that compares the course number of this upcoming semester's classes to the course numbers of historical textbook orders, pulling out only those classes that are being taught this semester. That's where I get lost. I have a table that contains the following: -Professor -Course Number -Year -Book -Title The data looks like this: professor year course number title smith 13 1111 Pride and Prejudice smith 13 1111 The Fountainhead smith 13 1222 The Alchemist smith 12 1111 Pride and Prejudice smith 11 1222 Infinite Jest smith 10 1333 The Bible smith 13 1333 The Bible smith 12 1222 The Alchemist smith 10 1111 Moby Dick johnson 12 1222 The Tipping Point johnson 11 1333 Anna Kerenina johnson 10 1333 Everything is Illuminated johnson 12 1222 The Savage Detectives johnson 11 1333 In Search of Lost Time johnson 10 1333 Great Expectations johnson 9 1222 Proust on the Shore Here's what I need the code to do "on paper": Group the records by professor. Determine every unique course number in that group, and group records by course number. For each unique course number, determine the highest year associated. Then spit out every record with that professor+course number+year combination. With the sample data, the results would be: professor year course number title smith 13 1111 Pride and Prejudice smith 13 1111 The Fountainhead smith 13 1222 The Alchemist smith 13 1333 The Bible johnson 12 1222 The Tipping Point johnson 11 1333 Anna Kerenina johnson 12 1222 The Savage Detectives johnson 11 1333 In Search of Lost Time I'm thinking I should make a record set for each teacher, and within that, another record set for each course number. Within the course number record set, I need the system to determine what the highest year number is - maybe store that in a variable? Then pull out every associated record so that if the teacher ordered 3 books the last time they taught that class (whether it was in 2013 or 2012 and so on) all three books display. I'm not sure I'm thinking of record sets in the right way, though. My SQL so far is basic and clearly doesn't work: SELECT [All].Professor, [All].Course, Max([All].Year) FROM [All] GROUP BY [All].Professor, [All].Course; Thanks for your help.

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• Set default form textfield value (webbrowser control)

  - by Khou

  Hi I would like my application to load a webpage and set default the form textfield value a predefine value. Requirements: -The application is a windows form, it is to use the web browser control, to load a web page. -Textfield values are define by within the application. -When textfield on the webpage matches the applications predefined elements, the predefine fixed value is set and can not be changed by the end user. Example If my application defines element "FirstName" equal to value "John", the text field for value for element "FirstName" will always equal "John" and this value can not be changed by the end user. Below is html/javascript code to perform this functionality, now how do I implement this in a windows form? (without having to modify the loaded webpage source code (if possible). HTML <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>page title</title> <script script type="text/javascript" src="demo1.js"></script> </head> <body onload="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"> <h2 style="color: #8e9182">test form title</h2> <form name="someform" id="someform_frm" action="#"> <table cellspacing="1"> <tr><td><label for="name">NameX: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name" onchange="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"></td></tr> <tr><td><label for="name2">NameY: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name2"></td></tr> <tr><td colspan="2"><input type="button" name="submit" value="Submit" onclick="showFormData(this.form);" ></td></table> </form> </body> </html> JAVASCRIPT function def(oForm, element_name, def_txt) { oForm.elements[element_name].value = def_txt; }

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• Global Entity Framework Context in WPF Application

  - by OffApps Cory

  Good day, I am in the middle of development of a WPF application that is using Entity Framework (.NET 3.5). It accesses the entities in several places throughout. I am worried about consistency throughout the application in regard to the entities. Should I be instancing separate contexts in my different views, or should I (and is a a good way to do this) instance a single context that can be accessed globally? For instance, my entity model has three sections, Shipments (with child packages and further child contents), Companies/Contacts (with child addresses and telephones), and disk specs. The Shipments and EditShipment views access the DiskSpecs, and the OptionsView manages the DiskSpecs (Create, Edit, Delete). If I edit a DiskSpec, I have to have something in the ShipmentsView to retrieve the latest specs if I have separate contexts right? If it is safe to have one overall context from which the rest of the app retrieves it's objects, then I imagine that is the way to go. If so, where would that instance be put? I am using VB.NET, but I can translate from C# pretty good. Any help would be appreciated. I just don't want one of those applications where the user has to hit reload a dozen times in different parts of the app to get the new data. Update: OK so I have changed my app as follows: All contexts are created in Using Blocks to dispose of them after they are no longer needed. When loaded, all entities are detatched from context before it is disposed. A new property in the MainViewModel (ContextUpdated) raises an event that all of the other ViewModels subscribe to which runs that ViewModels RefreshEntities method. After implementing this, I started getting errors saying that an entity can only be referenced by one ChangeTracker at a time. Since I could not figure out which context was still referencing the entity (shouldn't be any context right?) I cast the object as IEntityWithChangeTracker, and set SetChangeTracker to nothing (Null). This has let to the current problem: When I Null the changeTracker on the Entity, and then attach it to a context, it loses it's changed state and does not get updated to the database. However if I do not null the change tracker, I can't attach. I have my own change tracking code, so that is not a problem. My new question is, how are you supposed to do this. A good example Entity query and entity save code snipped would go a long way, cause I am beating my head in trying to get what I once thought was a simple transaction to work. Any help would elevate you to near god-hood.

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• Daylight saving time and Timezone best practices

  - by Oded

  I am hoping to make this question and the answers to it the definitive guide to dealing with daylight saving time, in particular for dealing with the actual change overs. If you have anything to add, please do Many systems are dependent on keeping accurate time, the problem is with changes to time due to daylight savings - moving the clock forward or backwards. For instance, one has business rules in an order taking system that depend on the time of the order - if the clock changes, the rules might not be as clear. How should the time of the order be persisted? There is of course an endless number of scenarios - this one is simply an illustrative one. How have you dealt with the daylight saving issue? What assumptions are part of your solution? (looking for context here) As important, if not more so: What did you try that did not work? Why did it not work? I would be interested in programming, OS, data persistence and other pertinent aspects of the issue. General answers are great, but I would also like to see details especially if they are only available on one platform. Summary of answers and other data: (please add yours) Do: Always persist time according to a unified standard that is not affected by daylight savings. GMT and UTC have been mentioned by different people. Include the local time offset (including DST offset) in stored timestamps. Remember that DST offsets are not always an integer number of hours (e.g. Indian Standard Time is UTC+05:30). If using Java, use JodaTime. - http://joda-time.sourceforge.net/ Create a table TZOffsets with three columns: RegionClassId, StartDateTime, and OffsetMinutes (int, in minutes). See answer Check if your DBMS needs to be shutdown during transition. Business rules should always work on civil time. Internally, keep timestamps in something like civil-time-seconds-from-epoch. See answer Only convert to local times at the last possible moment. Don't: Do not use javascript date and time calculations in web apps unless you ABSOLUTELY have to. Testing: When testing make sure you test countries in the Western and Eastern hemispheres, with both DST in progress and not and a country that does not use DST (6 in total). Reference: Olson database, aka Tz_database - ftp://elsie.nci.nih.gov/pub Sources for Time Zone and DST - http://www.twinsun.com/tz/tz-link.htm ISO format (ISO 8601) - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISO_8601 Mapping between Olson database and Windows TimeZone Ids, from the Unicode Consortium - http://unicode.org/repos/cldr-tmp/trunk/diff/supplemental/windows_tzid.html TimeZone page on WikiPedia - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tz_database StackOverflow questions tagged dst - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/dst StackOverflow questions tagged timezone - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/timezone Other: Lobby your representative to end the abomination that is DST. We can always hope...

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• NSFetchRequest returns correct number of objects, but each object contains nil attributes

  - by BU

  Hi, I can't figure out why this is happening. I can add to the context. But when I retrieve the objects, it returns the correct number of objects but the attributes of the objects are null. I am adding 3 instances with this code: +(BOOL)addStoreWithID:(NSNumber *)ID Latitude:(NSNumber *)latitude Longitude:(NSNumber *)longitude Name:(NSString *)name { Stores *store = (Stores *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Stores" inManagedObjectContext:[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext]]; store.ID = ID; store.Latitude = latitude; store.Longitude = longitude; store.Name = name; NSError *error; if(![[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { //Handle the error return NO; } return YES; } I get the result: 2010-03-07 19:19:37.060 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] Store name is Starbucks (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:19:37.933 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] Store name is Dunkin Donuts (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:19:38.717 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] Store name is Krispy Kreme I have confirmed that this code is visited three times and none of the attributes are nil. Then when I try to retrieve it, I use the following code: +(NSMutableArray *)fetchAllObjects { NSFetchRequest *request; request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Stores" inManagedObjectContext:[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext]]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"ID" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSError *error; NSMutableArray *array = [[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext] executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; [request release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; for(int i=0;i<3;i++) { Stores *tempStore = (Stores *)[array objectAtIndex:i]; NSLog(@"store name is %@",[tempStore Name]); } return array; } I get the result: 2010-03-07 19:21:00.504 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] store name is (null) (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:21:01.541 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] store name is (null) (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:21:02.503 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] store name is (null) Thanks a lot for reading. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks Bakhtiyar uddin

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• What should I do or don't do to avoid Delphi "push dword" bug.

  - by Maksee

  I found that Delphi 5 generates invalid assembly code in specific cases. I can't understand in what cases in general. The example below produces access violation since a very strange optimization occurs. For a byte in a record or array Delphi generates push dword [...], pop ebx, mov .., bl that works correctly if there are data after this byte (we need at least three to push dword correctly), but fails if the data is inaccessible. I emulated the strict boundaries here with win32 Virtual* functions Specifically the error occurs when the last byte from the block accessed inside FeedBytesToClass procedure. And if I try to change something like using data array instead of object property of remove actionFlag variable, Delphi generates correct assembly instructions. const BlockSize = 4096; type TSomeClass = class private fBytes: PByteArray; public property Bytes: PByteArray read fBytes; constructor Create; destructor Destroy;override; end; constructor TSomeClass.Create; begin inherited Create; GetMem(fBytes, BlockSize); end; destructor TSomeClass.Destroy; begin FreeMem(fBytes); inherited; end; procedure FeedBytesToClass(SrcDataBytes: PByteArray; Count: integer); var j: integer; Ofs: integer; actionFlag: boolean; AClass: TSomeClass; begin AClass:=TSomeClass.Create; try actionFlag:=true; for j:=0 to Count-1 do begin Ofs:=j; if actionFlag then begin AClass.Bytes[Ofs]:=SrcDataBytes[j]; end; end; finally AClass.Free; end; end; procedure TForm31.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var SrcDataBytes: PByteArray; begin SrcDataBytes:=VirtualAlloc(Nil, BlockSize, MEM_COMMIT, PAGE_READWRITE); try if VirtualLock(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize) then try FeedBytesToClass(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize); finally VirtualUnLock(SrcDataBytes, BlockSize); end; finally VirtualFree(SrcDataBytes, MEM_DECOMMIT, BlockSize); end; end; Initially the error occured when I used access to RGB data of bitmap bits, but the code there is too complex so I narrowed it to this fragment. So the question is what is here so specific that makes Delphi produce push,pop,mov optimization. I need to know this in order to avoid such side effects in general.

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• WPF MVVM Pattern, ViewModel DataContext question

  - by orangecl4now

  I used this side to create my demo application http://windowsclient.net/learn/video.aspx?v=314683 The site was very useful in getting my started and in their example, they created a file called EmployeeRepository.cs which appears to be the source for the data. In their example, the data was hard-wired in code. So I'm trying to learn how to get the data from a data source (like a DB). In my specific case, I want to get the data from a Microsoft Access DB. (READ ONLY, So I'll only use SELECT commands). using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student One", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Two", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Three", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I found another example where an Access DB is used but it doesn't comply with MVVM. So I was trying to figure out how to add the DB file to the project, how to wire it up and bind it to a listbox (i'm not that far yet). Below is my modified file using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; // integrating new code with working code using Telephone_Directory_2010.telephone2010DataSetTableAdapters; using System.Windows.Data; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; // start // integrating new code with working code private telephone2010DataSet.telephone2010DataTable employeeTable; private CollectionView dataView; internal CollectionView DataView { get { if (dataView == null) { dataView = (CollectionView) CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(this.DataContext); } return dataView; } } public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } telephone2010TableAdapter employeeTableAdapter = new telephone2010TableAdapter(); employeeTable = employeeTableAdapter.GetData(); this.DataContext = employeeTable; } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I get the following error messages when building Error 1 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' does not contain a definition for 'DataContext' and no extension method 'DataContext' accepting a first argument of type 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Projects\VS2010\Telephone Directory 2010\Telephone Directory 2010\DataAccess\EmployeeRepository.cs 23 90 Telephone Directory 2010

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• IE won't load PDF in a window created with window.open

  - by Dean

  Here's the problem, which only occurs in Internet Explorer (IE). I have a page that has links to several different types of files. Links from these files execute a Javascript function that opens a new window and loads the specific file. This works great, unless the file I need to open in the new window is a PDF in which case the window is blank, even though the URL is in the address field. Refreshing that window using F5 doesn't help. However, if I put the cursor in the address field and press <enter> the PDF loads right up. This problem only occurs in IE. I have seen it in IE 7 and 8 and am using Adobe Acrobat Reader 9. In Firefox (PC and Mac) everything works perfectly. In Chrome (Mac), the PDF is downloaded. In Safari (Mac) it works. In Opera (Mac) it prompts me to open or save. Basically, everything probably works fine, except for IE. I have searched for similar problems and have seen some posts where it was suggested to adjust some of the Internet Options on IE. I have tried this but it doesn't help, and the problem wasn't exactly the same anyway. Here's the Javascript function I use to open the new window. function newwin(url,w,h) { win = window.open(url,"temp","width="+w+",height="+h+",menubar=yes,toolbar=yes,location=yes,status=yes,scrollbars=auto,resizable=yes"); win.focus(); } You can see that I pass in the URL as well as the height, h, and width, w, of the window. I've used a function like this for years and as far as I know have never had a problem. I call the newwin() function using this. <a href="javascript:newwin('/path/document.pdf',400,300)">document.pdf</a> (Yes, I know there are other, better ways than using inline JS, and I've even tried some of them because I've run out of things to try, but nothing works.) So, if anyone has an idea as to what might be causing this problem, I'd love to hear it.

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• Tearing my hair out - ASP.Net AJAX AutoComplete not working

  - by Dave

  Hope someone can help with this. I've been up and down the web and through this site looking for an answer, but still can't get the Autocomplete AJAX control to work. I've gone from trying to include it in an existing site to stripping it right back to a very basic form and it's still not functioning. I'm having a little more luck using Page Methods rather than a local webservice, so here is my code <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="droptest.aspx.cs" Inherits="droptest" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePageMethods="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" runat="server" MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="getResults" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </form> </body> </html> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Web.Services; public partial class droptest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public string[] getResults(string prefixText, int count) { string[] test = new string[5] { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five" }; return test; } } Tried to keep things as simple as possible, but all I get is either the autocomplete dropdown with the source of the page (starting with the <! doctype...) letter by letter, or in IE7 it just says "UNDEFINED" all the way down the list. I'm using Visual Web Developer 2008 at the moment, this is running on Localhost. I think I've exhausted all the "Try this..." options I can find, everything from adding in [ScriptMethod] to changing things in Web.Config. Is there anything obviously wrong with this code? Only other thing that may be having an effect is in Global.asax I do a Context.RewritePath to rewrite URLs - does this have any effect on AJAX? Thanks for any help you can give.

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• Minimum permission required to access Site Columns page and edit site columns

  - by ParanoidMike

  We've started to adopt SharePoint 2010, and are starting to manually migrate content from SharePoint 2007 sites to new sites we're rebuilding from scratch in SP2010. One of the things we previously had supported was to delegate responsibility for managing some of our site columns to a member of the team. The team member is not familiar with SharePoint internals, and doesn't want the responsibility of full permissions to the site and all its objects. We're now trying to figure out what the minimum permission is that we need to grant our team member, so they can continue to edit (& propagate) the content of the site columns we've defined. Permissions he currently has (which are obviously insufficient): Site permissions (according to _layouts/user.aspx): Read, Contribute, Manage Lists Permissions for specific objects in the site (according to _layouts/people.aspxMembershipGroupId=xxx, then choosing Settings, View Group Permissions): server/sites/[sitename]: Contribute server/sites/[sitename]/Lists/[a list with columns that inherit from site columns]: "Contribute No Delete" Note: the "Contribute No Delete" permission is a custom permission I designed by copying the SharePoint-native "Contribute" permission set and deselecting the Delete permission. The "Manage Lists" permission is a custom permission I designed that includes the following specific permissions: (List Permissions) Manage Lists, View Items; (Site Permissions) View Pages, Open. Operations that are throwing access denied errors: _layouts/mngfield.aspx: SharePoint returns the "Error: Access Denied" dialog, and provides three clickable options: "Sign in as a different user", "Request access", and "Go back to site" _layouts/fldedit.aspx?field=Level%5Fx0020%5F3 [one of the site columns we've defined]: can load the page and type in changes to the textboxes "...but when I press OK (save changes) I get the same message above." When our team member clicks the "Request access" link, the email I receive sends me to a page that recommends that I grant the user membership in the "[sitename] Users" group - of which he's already a member. So while SP2010 tries to request access, it doesn't actually direct me to either (a) a valid group that has the correct permissions or (b) the specific object to which I need to grant our team member access. Also note: on the SP2007 (MOSS) site (where our team member was successful in managing Site Column edits), they had dozens of additional permissions throughout the site that we do not wish to blindly re-allocate in SP2010 until we know they're necessary. Any help anyone can provide would be greatly appreciated.

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• Is this asking too much of a browser?

  - by Matt Ball

  I'm embedding a large array in <script> tags in my HTML, like this (nothing surprising): <script> var largeArray = [/* lots of stuff in here */]; </script> In this particular example, the array has 210,000 elements. That's well below the theoretical maximum of 231 - by 4 orders of magnitude. Here's the fun part: if I save JS source for the array to a file, that file is 44 megabytes (46,573,399 bytes, to be exact). If you want to see for yourself, you can download it from my Dropbox. (All the data in there is canned, so much of it is repeated. This will not be the case in production.) Now, I'm really not concerned about serving that much data. My server gzips its responses, so it really doesn't take all that long to get the data over the wire. However, there is a really nasty tendency for the page, once loaded, to crash the browser. I'm not testing at all in IE (this is an internal tool). My primary targets are Chrome 8 and Firefox 3.6. In Firefox, I can see a reasonably useful error in the console: Error: script stack space quota is exhausted In Chrome, I simply get the sad-tab page: Cut to the chase, already Is this really too much data for our modern, "high-performance" browsers to handle? Is there anything I can do* to gracefully handle this much data? Incidentally, I was able to get this to work (read: not crash the tab) on-and-off in Chrome. I really thought that Chrome, at least, was made of tougher stuff, but apparently I was wrong... Edit 1 @Crayon: I wasn't looking to justify why I'd like to dump this much data into the browser at once. Short version: either I solve this one (admittedly not-that-easy) problem, or I have to solve a whole slew of other problems. I'm opting for the simpler approach for now. @various: right now, I'm not especially looking for ways to actually reduce the number of elements in the array. I know I could implement Ajax paging or what-have-you, but that introduces its own set of problems for me in other regards. @Phrogz: each element looks something like this: {dateTime:new Date(1296176400000), terminalId:'terminal999', 'General___BuildVersion':'10.05a_V110119_Beta', 'SSM___ExtId':26680, 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___Valid':'false', 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___PngAttempt':0} @Will: but I have a computer with a 4-core processor, 6 gigabytes of RAM, over half a terabyte of disk space ...and I'm not even asking for the browser to do this quickly - I'm just asking for it to work at all! ? *other than the obvious: sending less data to the browser

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• Implementing EAV pattern with Hibernate for User -> Settings relationship

  - by Trevor

  I'm trying to setup a simple EAV pattern in my web app using Java/Spring MVC and Hibernate. I can't seem to figure out the magic behind the hibernate XML setup for this scenario. My database table "SETUP" has three columns: user_id (FK) setup_item setup_value The database composite key is made up of user_id | setup_item Here's the Setup.java class: public class Setup implements CommonFormElements, Serializable { private Map data = new HashMap(); private String saveAction; private Integer speciesNamingList; private User user; Logger log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Setup.class); public String getSaveAction() { return saveAction; } public void setSaveAction(String action) { this.saveAction = action; } public User getUser() { return user; } public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public Integer getSpeciesNamingList() { return speciesNamingList; } public void setSpeciesNamingList(Integer speciesNamingList) { this.speciesNamingList = speciesNamingList; } public Map getData() { return data; } public void setData(Map data) { this.data = data; } } My problem with the Hibernate setup, is that I can't seem to figure out how to map out the fact that a foreign key and the key of a map will construct the composite key of the table... this is due to a lack of experience using Hibernate. Here's my initial attempt at getting this to work: <composite-id> <key-many-to-one foreign-key="id" name="user" column="user_id" class="Business.User"> <meta attribute="use-in-equals">true</meta> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <map lazy="false" name="data" table="setup"> <key column="user_id" property-ref="user"/> <composite-map-key class="Command.Setup"> <key-property name="data" column="setup_item" type="string"/> </composite-map-key> <element column="setup_value" not-null="true" type="string"/> </map> Any insight into how to properly map this common scenario would be most appreciated!

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• jquery - loading inline javascript via AJAX

  - by yaya3

  I have thrown together a quick prototype to try and establish a few very basic truths regarding what inline JavaScript can do when it is loaded with AJAX: index.html <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','white'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIRST but is "undefined" $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ajax-loaded-content-wrapper').load('loaded-by-ajax.html', function(){ $('p').css('color','grey'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS LAST (as expected) }); $('p').css('color','purple'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SECOND }); </script> <p>Content not loaded by ajax</p> <div id="ajax-loaded-content-wrapper"> </div> </body> </html> loaded-by-ajax.html <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','yellow'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS THIRD $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','pink'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FOURTH }); </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','blue'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIFTH }); $('p').css('color','green'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SIX </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> Notes: a) All of the above (except the first) successfully change the colour of all the paragraphs (in firefox 3.6.3). b) I've used alert instead of console.log as console is undefined when called in the 'loaded' HTML. Truths(?): $(document).ready() does not treat the 'loaded' HTML as a new document, or reread the entire DOM tree including the loaded HTML, it is pointless inside AJAX loaded content JavaScript that is contained inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can successfully use the jQuery library inside 'loaded' HTML to effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can not use the firebug inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the existing DOM (proven by Note a) Am I correct in deriving these 'truths' from my tests (test validity)? If not, how would you test for these?

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• Enable real fixed positioning on Samsung Android browsers

  - by Mr. Shiny and New ??

  The Android browser, since 2.2, supports fixed positioning, at least under certain circumstances such as when scaling is turned off. I have a simple HTML file with no JS, but the fixed positioning on three Samsung phones I've tried is simply wrong. Instead of true fixed positioning, the header scrolls out of view then pops back into place after the scrolling is done. This doesn't happen on the Android SDK emulator for any configuration I've tested (2.2, 2.3, 2.3 x86, 4.0.4). It also doesn't happen when using the WebView in an app on the Samsung phones: in those cases the positioning works as expected. Is there a way to make the Samsung Android "stock" browser use real fixed positioning? I've tested: 1. Samsung Galaxy 551, Android 2.2 2. Samsung Galaxy S, Android 2.3 3. Samsung Galaxy S II, Android 2.3 Sample code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no,width=device-width,height=device-height"> <style> h1 { position: fixed; top: 0; left: 0; height: 32px; background-color: #CDCDCD; color: black; font-size: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding: 2px; width: 100%; margin: 0;} p { margin-top: 36px; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>Header</h1> <p>Long text goes here</p> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is that the grey header fills the top of the screen and stays put no matter how much you scroll. On Samsung Android browsers it seems to scroll out of view then pop back into place once the scrolling is done, as if the fixed-positioning is being simulated using Javascript, which it isn't. Edit Judging by the comments and "answers" it seems that maybe I wasn't clear on what I need. I am looking for a meta tag or css rule/hack or javascript toggle which turns off Samsung's broken fixed-positioning and turns on the Android browser's working fixed-positioning. I am not looking for a Javascript solution that adds broken fixed-positioning to a browser that has no support whatsoever; the Samsung fixed-positioning does that already, it just looks stupid.

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• Delphi: how to set the length of a RTTI-accessed dynamic array using DynArraySetLength?

  - by conciliator

  I'd like to set the length of a dynamic array, as suggested in this post. I have two classes TMyClass and the related TChildClass defined as TChildClass = class private FField1: string; FField2: string; end; TMyClass = class private FField1: TChildClass; FField2: Array of TChildClass; end; The array augmentation is implemented as var RContext: TRttiContext; RType: TRttiType; Val: TValue; // Contains the TMyClass instance RField: TRttiField; // A field in the TMyClass instance RElementType: TRttiType; // The kind of elements in the dyn array DynArr: TRttiDynamicArrayType; Value: TValue; // Holding an instance as referenced by an array element ArrPointer: Pointer; ArrValue: TValue; ArrLength: LongInt; i: integer; begin RContext := TRTTIContext.Create; try RType := RContext.GetType(TMyClass.ClassInfo); Val := RType.GetMethod('Create').Invoke(RType.AsInstance.MetaclassType, []); RField := RType.GetField('FField2'); if (RField.FieldType is TRttiDynamicArrayType) then begin DynArr := (RField.FieldType as TRttiDynamicArrayType); RElementType := DynArr.ElementType; // Set the new length of the array ArrValue := RField.GetValue(Val.AsObject); ArrLength := 3; // Three seems like a nice number ArrPointer := ArrValue.GetReferenceToRawData; DynArraySetLength(ArrPointer, ArrValue.TypeInfo, 1, @ArrLength); { TODO : Fix 'Index out of bounds' } WriteLn(ArrValue.IsArray, ' ', ArrValue.GetArrayLength); if RElementType.IsInstance then begin for i := 0 to ArrLength - 1 do begin Value := RElementType.GetMethod('Create').Invoke(RElementType.AsInstance.MetaclassType, []); ArrValue.SetArrayElement(i, Value); // This is just a test, so let's clean up immediatly Value.Free; end; end; end; ReadLn; Val.AsObject.Free; finally RContext.Free; end; end. Being new to D2010 RTTI, I suspected the error could depend on getting ArrValue from the class instance, but the subsequent WriteLn prints "TRUE", so I've ruled that out. Disappointingly, however, the same WriteLn reports that the size of ArrValue is 0, which is confirmed by the "Index out of bounds"-exception I get when trying to set any of the elements in the array (through ArrValue.SetArrayElement(i, Value);). Do anyone know what I'm doing wrong here? (Or perhaps there is a better way to do this?) TIA!

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• jquery sortable item cached? #sortable items: '.class1' filter is not working when class is changed

  - by liz

  hello everyone, i came across a weird problem today: i created a sortable list of divs. each div has a class="class1" and items is set to 'class1' (see below simplified code). each div has an a href link that calls a function toggleLock. this function replaces class="class1" with class="locked" for that div. for example: will become the problem is: even though #sortable is set to "make" only items with class="class1" sortable, replacing the class still allows to be sortable. seems like item class is cached at some point. i've tried to refresh #sortable ($('#sortable').sortable("refreshPosition") and $('#sortable').sortable("");), but that didn't work. i've tried both ways of replacing the class: attr('class','lock') and removeClass(), then addClass(). still is sortable. if class is not changed dynamically, but loads into DOM as , then it's not sortable as expected. why wouldn't replacement of the class from class1 to locked prevent that div from being sortable? am i missing something? sample code: <div id="sortable"> <div class="class1" id="1"> <div class="sortHandle">....</div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R1">lock</a> <p>This is item 1</p> </div> <div class="class1" id="2"> <div class="sortHandle"></div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R2">lock</a> <p>This is item 2</p> </div> <div class="class1" id="3"> <div class="sortHandle"></div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R3">lock</a> <p>This is item 3</p> </div> </div> js: $(function() { $("#sortable").sortable({ items: '.class1', handle: '.sortHandle', cursor: 'move', start: function(e,ui) { el = e.target; startPos = ui.item.prevAll().length+1; }, update: function(event, ui) { data = $('.class1').sortable('toArray'); newPos = ui.item.prevAll().length+1; alert("position: "+startPos+"; newposition: "+newPos); } }).disableSelection(); });

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• Getting PHP error/warnings when using CodeIgniter 2 to send email

  - by Sparky672

  I'm using Ion Auth and trying to implement the forgotten password feature which relies upon an email being sent from CI. My LAMP server is on a shared cPanel account and uses sendmail. However, I have the ability to over-ride any PHP settings with my own php.ini file in the public_html directory. As per the CodeIgniter 2 documentation for configuring email sending, I have done the following... 1) created a file called located at application/config/email.php 2) email.php contains this code: <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); /* | ------------------------------------------------------------------- | EMAIL SENDING SETTINGS | ------------------------------------------------------------------- */ $config['protocol'] = 'sendmail'; /* End of file email.php */ /* Location: ./application/config/email.php */ 3) The in the application/config/ion_auth.php file, I set this value to TRUE $config['use_ci_email'] = TRUE; The email is successfully sent, but I get a variety of PHP Error Warnings on all pages. These appear on all pages, sometimes two or three times in a row: A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Warning Message: date() [function.date]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are required to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/New_York' for 'EST/-5.0/no DST' instead Filename: libraries/Email.php Line Number: 704 A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Warning Message: date() [function.date]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are required to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/New_York' for 'EST/-5.0/no DST' instead Filename: libraries/Email.php Line Number: 709 In addition to the above, these two also show up after the forgotten password form is submitted: A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Warning Message: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/username/codeigniter/system/core/Exceptions.php:185) Filename: libraries/Session.php Line Number: 675 A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Warning Message: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/username/codeigniter/system/core/Exceptions.php:185) Filename: helpers/url_helper.php Line Number: 540 I'm not sure why I would be getting these Error Warnings or how else I am supposed to configure my email sending options. I don't see any other email sending options in the documentation that is related to these particular Warning Messages. When I remove my config/email.php file AND set Ion Auth's use_ci_email to FALSE, the Error Warnings go away. Where did I go wrong? Just before I hit the submit button, I solved this problem. I'm still going to post this question as a learning experience for others. If nobody solves this after a reasonable amount of time, I'll post the solution.

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• Google Chrome audit on caching

  - by Álvaro G. Vicario

  If I run an audit on my sites with Google Chrome, I get this message in the Leverage browser caching section: The following resources are missing a cache expiration. Resources that do not specify an expiration may not be cached by browsers: A list of all the pictures follows. I get a similar notice in Leverage proxy caching: Consider adding a "Cache-Control: public" header to the following resources: Apart from pictures, I also get a notice about HTML, CSS and JavaScript files: The following resources are explicitly non-cacheable. Consider making them cacheable if possible: Its funny because I've worked hard to cache all static contents (except for pictures, where I just left Apache's default settings). Firefox does indeed store all these items in cache. Is there anything I should improve in my HTTP headers? Here's the complete header set of some items as loaded after removing the browser caché. Pictures use default settings I didn't really check before, the rest should be cachéd for three hours. I can set headers with both .htaccess and PHP. PNG HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:14 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:54 GMT Etag: "c48024-230-4821a15d6c580" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 560 Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: image/png HTML HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:13 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:46:13 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Wed, 24 Mar 2010 20:30:36 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15 CSS HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/css JavaScript HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/x-javascript Update I've tested Jumby's suggestion and set my CSS's expire to 1 year: Cache-Control:max-age=31536000, s-maxage=31536000, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:4198 Content-Type:text/css Date:Mon, 02 Aug 2010 20:48:56 GMT Expires:Tue, 02 Aug 2011 20:48:56 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=5, max=99 Last-Modified:Thu, 18 Mar 2010 20:40:12 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 Vary:Accept-Encoding X-Powered-By:PHP/5.3.1 However, Chrome still claims "explicitly non-cacheable".

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• EJB client can't find a DataSource that tests successfully in WebLogic admin console

  - by suszterpatt

  Disclaimer: I'm completely new to JEE/EJB and all that, so bear with me. I have a simple EJB that I can successfully deploy using JDeveloper 11g's integrated WebLogic server and a remote database connection (JDBC). I have a DataSource named "PGY2" defined in WebLogic, and I can test it successfully from the admin console. Here's the code of the client I'm trying to test it with (generated entirely by JDev except for the three method calls on adminManager): public class AdminManagerClient { public static void main(String [] args) { try { final Context context = getInitialContext(); AdminManager adminManager = (AdminManager)context.lookup("Uran-AdminManager#hu.elte.pgy2.BACNAAI.UranEJB.AdminManager"); adminManager.addAdmin("root", "root", "Kovács Isten"); adminManager.addStudent("BACNAAI", "matt", "B Cs", 2005); adminManager.addTeacher("SIPKABT", "patt", "S P", "numanal", "Dr."); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } private static Context getInitialContext() throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); // WebLogic Server 10.x connection details env.put( Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory" ); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "t3://127.0.0.1:7101"); return new InitialContext( env ); } } But when I try to run this, I get the following error on the line with adminManager.addAdmin (that is, after the lookup): javax.ejb.EJBException: EJB Exception: ; nested exception is: Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 1.0.2 (Build 20081024)): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Internal error: Cannot obtain XAConnection Creation of XAConnection for pool PGY2 failed after waitSecs:30 : java.sql.SQLException: Data Source PGY2 does not exist. Why can't the client find the data source, and how do I make it find it? EDIT: I took a closer look at WebLogic's output during deployment, and I found this. I have no idea what it means, but it may be relevant: <2010.05.20. 0:50:43 CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149231> <Unable to set the activation state to true for the application 'PGY2'. weblogic.application.ModuleException: at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:349) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$2.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:411) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.activate(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:74) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace weblogic.common.ResourceException: is already bound at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.RmiDataSource.start(RmiDataSource.java:387) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:136) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:97) at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:346) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace >

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• Winforms connection strings from App.config

  - by Geo Ego

  I have a Winforms app that I am developing in C# that will serve as a frontend for a SQL Server 2005 database. I rolled the executable out to a test machine and ran it. It worked perfectly fine on the test machine up until the last round of changes that I made. However, now on the test machine, it throws the following exception immediately upon opening: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at PSRD_Specs_Database_Administrat.mainMenu.mainMenu_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.OnCreateControl() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmShowWindow(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.WmShowWindow(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) The only thing that I changed in this version that pertains to mainMenu_Load is the way that the connection string to the database is called. Previously, I had set a string with the connection string on every form that I needed to call it from, like: string conString = "Data Source = SHAREPOINT;Trusted_Connection = yes;" + "database = CustomerDatabase;connection timeout = 15"; As my app grew and I added forms to it, I decided to add an App.config to the project. I defined the connection string in it: <connectionStrings> <add name="conString" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" connectionString="Data Source = SHAREPOINT;Trusted_Connection = yes;database = CustomerDatabase;connection timeout = 15" /> </connectionStrings> I then created a static string that would return the conString: public static string GetConnectionString(string conName) { string strReturn = string.Empty; if (!(string.IsNullOrEmpty(conName))) { strReturn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[conName].ConnectionString; } else { strReturn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["conString"].ConnectionString; } return strReturn; } I removed the conString variable and now call the connection string like so: PublicMethods.GetConnectionString("conString").ToString() It appears that this is giving me the error. I changed these instances to directly call the connection string from App.config without using GetConnectionString. For instance, in a SQLConnection: using (SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["conString"].ConnectionString)) This also threw the exception. However, when I went back to using the conString variable on each form, I had no issues. What I don't understand is why all three methods work fine on my development machine, while using the App.config directly or via the static string I created throw exceptions.

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• How to detect page zoom level in all modern browsers?

  - by understack

  How can I detect page zoom level in all modern browsers? While this thread tells how to do it in IE7 and IE8, I can't find good solution for FF, Safari and Chrome. For FF one of the suggested solution FF stores page zoom level for future. So on first page load would I be able to get zoom level? Somewhere I read it works if you're changing zoom level on that page after its loaded. Is there a way to trap 'zoom' event? I need this because some of my calculations are based on no of pixels and they get changed on Zoom. Thanks. Modified sample given by tfl. This would alert different height based on zoom level. <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.1/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"/></script> <title></title> </head> <body> <div id="xy" style="border:1px solid #f00; width:100px;"> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Pellentesque sollicitudin tortor in lacus tincidunt volutpat. Integer dignissim imperdiet mollis. Suspendisse quis tortor velit, placerat tempor neque. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus. Praesent bibendum auctor lorem vitae tempor. Nullam condimentum aliquam elementum. Nullam egestas gravida elementum. Maecenas mattis molestie nisl sit amet vehicula. Donec semper tristique blandit. Vestibulum adipiscing placerat mollis. </div> <div> <button onclick="alert($('#xy').height());">Show</button> </div> </body> </html>

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• Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

  - by Nix

  I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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• Problem with jQuery selector and MasterPage

  - by Daemon

  Hi, I have a problem with a master page containing a asp:textbox that I'm trying to access using jQuery. I have read lot sof thread regarding this and tried all the different approaches I have seen, but regardless, the end result end up as Undefined. This is the relevant part of the MasterPage code: <p><asp:Label ID="Label1" AssociatedControlID="osxinputfrom" runat="server">Navn</asp:Label><asp:TextBox CssClass="osxinputform" ID="osxinputfrom" runat="server"></asp:TextBox></p> When I click the button, the following code from a jQuery .js file is run: show: function(d) { $('#osx-modal-content .osxsubmitbutton').click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); if (OSX.validate()){ $('#osx-modal-data').fadeOut(200); d.container.animate( {height:80}, 500, function () { $('#osx-modal-data').html("<h2>Sender...</h2>").fadeIn(250, function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetDate", data: "{'from':'" + $("#osxinputfrom").val() + "','mailaddress':'" + $("#osxinputmail").val() + "','header':'Test3','message':'Test4'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { $('#osx-modal-data').fadeOut(200, function () { $('#osx-modal-data').html('<h2>Meldingen er sendt!</h2>'); $('#osx-modal-data').fadeIn(200); }); }, error: function(msg){ $('#osx-modal-data').fadeOut(200, function () { $('#osx-modal-data').html('<h2>Feil oppstod ved sending av melding!</h2>'); $('#osx-modal-data').fadeIn(200); }); } }); }); } ); } else{ $('#osxinputstatus').fadeOut(250, function () { $('#osxinputstatus').html('<p id="osxinputstatus">' + OSX.message + '</a>'); $('#osxinputstatus').fadeIn(250); }); } }); }, So the problem here is that $("#osxinputfrom").val() evaluated to Undefined. I understand that the masterpage will add some prefix to the ID, so I tried using the ID from the page when it's run that ends up as ct100_osxinputfrom, and I also tried some other hinds that I found while searching like $("#<%=osxinputfrom.ClientID%"), but it ends up as Undefined in the method that is called from the jQuery ajax method anyway. The third and fourth parameters to the ajay function that is hardcoded as Test3 and Test4 comes fine in the C# backend method. So my question is simply: How can I rewrite the jQuery selector to fetch the correct value from the textbox? (before I used master pages it worked fine by the way) Best regards Daemon

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