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• What is the best algorithm for this problem?

  - by mark

  What is the most efficient algorithm to solve the following problem? Given 6 arrays, D1,D2,D3,D4,D5 and D6 each containing 6 numbers like: D1[0] = number D2[0] = number ...... D6[0] = number D1[1] = another number D2[1] = another number .... ..... .... ...... .... D1[5] = yet another number .... ...... .... Given a second array ST1, containing 1 number: ST1[0] = 6 Given a third array ans, containing 6 numbers: ans[0] = 3, ans[1] = 4, ans[2] = 5, ......ans[5] = 8 Using as index for the arrays D1,D2,D3,D4,D5 and D6, the number that goes from 0, to the number stored in ST1[0] minus one, in this example 6, so from 0 to 6-1, compare each res array against each D array My algorithm so far is: I tried to keep everything unlooped as much as possible. EML := ST1[0] //number contained in ST1[0] EML1 := 0 //start index for the arrays D While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[0] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 //bad row of numbers, if while ends two: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[1] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 three: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[2] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 four: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[3] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 five: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D2[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D3[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D4[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D5[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two if D6[ELM1] = ans[4] goto two ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 six: EML1 := 0 start index for arrays Ds While EML1 < EML if D1[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 //good row of numbers if D2[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D3[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D4[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D5[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 if D6[ELM1] = ans[0] return 1 ELM1 = ELM1 + 1 return 0 As language of choice, it would be pure c

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• Help choosing authentication method

  - by Dima

  I need to choose an authentication method for an application installed and integrated in customers environment. There are two types of environments - windows and linux/unix. Application is user based, no web stuff, pure Java. The requirement is to authenticate users which will use my application against customer provided user base. Meaning, customer installs my app, but uses his own users to grant or deny access to my app. Typical, right? I have three options to consider and I need to pick up the one which would be a) the most flexible to cover most common modern environments and b) would take least effort while stay robust and standard. Option (1) - Authenticate locally managing user credentials in some local storage, e.g. file. Customer would then add his users to my application and it will then check the passwords. Simple, clumsy but would work. Customers would have to punch every user they want to grant access to my app using some UI we will have to provide. Lots of work for me, headache to the customer. Option (2) - Use LDAP authentication. Customers would tell my app where to look for users and I will walk their directory resolving names into user names and trying to bind with found password. This is better approach IMO, but more fragile because I will have to walk an unknown directory structure and who knows if this will be permitted everywhere. Would be harder to test since there are many LDAP implementation out there, last thing I want is drowning in this voodoo. Option(3) - Use plain Kerberos authentication. Customers would tell my app what realm (domain) and which KDC (key distribution center) to use. In ideal world these two parameters would be all I need to set while customers could use their own administration tools to configure domain and kdc. My application would simply delegate user credentials to this third party (using JAAS or Spring security) and consider success when third party is happy with them. I personally prefer #3, but not sure what surprises I might face. Would this cover windows and *nix systems entirely? Is there another option to consider?

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• How can I test caching and cache busting?

  - by Nathan Long

  In PHP, I'm trying to steal a page from the Rails playbook (see 'Using Asset Timestamps' here): By default, Rails appends assets' timestamps to all asset paths. This allows you to set a cache-expiration date for the asset far into the future, but still be able to instantly invalidate it by simply updating the file (and hence updating the timestamp, which then updates the URL as the timestamp is part of that, which in turn busts the cache). It‘s the responsibility of the web server you use to set the far-future expiration date on cache assets that you need to take advantage of this feature. Here‘s an example for Apache: # Asset Expiration ExpiresActive On <FilesMatch "\.(ico|gif|jpe?g|png|js|css)$"> ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </FilesMatch> If you look at a the source for a Rails page, you'll see what they mean: the path to a stylesheet might be "/stylesheets/scaffold.css?1268228124", where the numbers at the end are the timestamp when the file was last updated. So it should work like this: The browser says 'give me this page' The server says 'here, and by the way, this stylesheet called scaffold.css?1268228124 can be cached for a year - it's not gonna change.' On reloads, the browser says 'I'm not asking for that css file, because my local copy is still good.' A month later, you edit and save the file, which changes the timestamp, which means that the file is no longer called scaffold.css?1268228124 because the numbers change. When the browser sees that, it says 'I've never seen that file! Give me a copy, please.' The cache is 'busted.' I think that's brilliant. So I wrote a function that spits out stylesheet and javascript tags with timestamps appended to the file names, and I configured Apache with the statement above. Now: how do I tell if the caching and cache busting are working? I'm checking my pages with two plugins for Firebug: Yslow and Google Page Speed. Both seem to say that my files are caching: "Add expires headers" in Yslow and "leverage browser caching" in Page Speed are both checked. But when I look at the Page Speed Activity, I see a lot of requests and waiting and no 'cache hits'. If I change my stylesheet and reload, I do see the change immediately. But I don't know if that's because the browser never cached in the first place or because the cache is busted. How can I tell?

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• How to delete multiple files with msbuild/web deployment project?

  - by Alex

  I have an odd issue with how msbuild is behaving with a VS2008 Web Deployment Project and would like to know why it seems to randomly misbehave. I need to remove a number of files from a deployment folder that should only exist in my development environment. The files have been generated by the web application during dev/testing and are not included in my Visual Studio project/solution. The configuration I am using is as follows: <!-- Partial extract from Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Web Deployment Project --> <ItemGroup> <DeleteAfterBuild Include="$(OutputPath)data\errors\*.xml" /> <!-- Folder 1: 36 files --> <DeleteAfterBuild Include="$(OutputPath)data\logos\*.*" /> <!-- Folder 2: 2 files --> <DeleteAfterBuild Include="$(OutputPath)banners\*.*" /> <!-- Folder 3: 1 file --> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="AfterBuild"> <Message Text="------ AfterBuild process starting ------" Importance="high" /> <Delete Files="@(DeleteAfterBuild)"> <Output TaskParameter="DeletedFiles" PropertyName="deleted" /> </Delete> <Message Text="DELETED FILES: $(deleted)" Importance="high" /> <Message Text="------ AfterBuild process complete ------" Importance="high" /> </Target> The problem I have is that when I do a build/rebuild of the Web Deployment Project it "sometimes" removes all the files but other times it will not remove anything! Or it will remove only one or two of the three folders in the DeleteAfterBuild item group. There seems to be no consistency in when the build process decides to remove the files or not. When I've edited the configuration to include only Folder 1 (for example), it removes all the files correctly. Then adding Folder 2 and 3, it starts removing all the files as I want. Then, seeming at random times, I'll rebuild the project and it won't remove any of the files! I have tried moving these items to the ExcludeFromBuild item group (which is probably where it should be) but it gives me the same unpredictable result. Has anyone experienced this? Am I doing something wrong? Why does this happen?

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• How to designing a generic databse whos layout may change over time?

  - by mawg

  Here's a tricky one - how do I programatically create and interrogate a database who's contents I can't really foresee? I am implementing a generic input form system. The user can create PHP forms with a WYSIWYG layout and use them for any purpose he wishes. He can also query the input. So, we have three stages: a form is designed and generated. This is a one-off procedure, although the form can be edited later. This designs the database. someone or several people make use of the form - say for daily sales reports, stock keeping, payroll, etc. Their input to the forms is written to the database. others, maybe management, can query the database and generate reports. Since these forms are generic, I can't predict the database structure - other than to say that it will reflect HTML form fields and consist of a the data input from collection of edit boxes, memos, radio buttons and the like. Questions and remarks: A) how can I best structure the database, in terms of tables and columns? What about primary keys? My first thought was to use the control name to identify each column, then I realized that the user can edit the form and rename, so that maybe "name" becomes "employee" or "wages" becomes ":salary". I am leaning towards a unique number for each. B) how best to key the rows? I was thinking of a timestamp to allow me to query and a column for the row Id from A) C) I have to handle column rename/insert/delete. Foe deletion, I am unsure whether to delete the data from the database. Even if the user is not inputting it from the form any more he may wish to query what was previously entered. Or there may be some legal requirements to retain the data. Any gotchas in column rename/insert/delete? D) For the querying, I can have my PHP interrogate the database to get column names and generate a form with a list where each entry has a database column name, a checkbox to say if it should be used in the query and, based on column type, some selection criteria. That ought to be enough to build searches like "position = 'senior salesman' and salary 50k". E) I probably have to generate some fancy charts - graphs, histograms, pie charts, etc for query results of numerical data over time. I need to find some good FOSS PHP for this. F) What else have I forgotten? This all seems very tricky to me, but I am database n00b - maybe it is simple to you gurus?

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• Complex relationship between tables in NHibernate

  - by Ilya Kogan

  Hi all, I'm writing a Fluent NHibernate mapping for a legacy Oracle database. The challenge is that the tables have composite primary keys. If I were at total freedom, I would redesign the relationships and auto-generate primary keys, but other applications must write to the same database and read from it, so I cannot do it. These are the two tables I'll focus on: Example data Trips table: 1, 10:00, 11:00 ... 1, 12:00, 15:00 ... 1, 16:00, 19:00 ... 2, 12:00, 13:00 ... 3, 9:00, 18:00 ... Faults table: 1, 13:00 ... 1, 23:00 ... 2, 12:30 ... In this case, vehicle 1 made three trips and has two faults. The first fault happened during the second trip, and the second fault happened while the vehicle was resting. Vehicle 2 had one trip, during which a fault happened. Constraints Trips of the same vehicle never overlap. So the tables have an optional one-to-many relationship, because every fault either happens during a trip or it doesn't. If I wanted to join them in SQL, I would write: select ... from Faults left outer join Trips on Faults.VehicleId = Trips.VehicleId and Faults.FaultTime between Trips.TripStartTime and Trips.TripEndTime and then I'd get a dataset where every fault appears exactly once (one-to-many as I said). Note that there is no Vehicles table, and I don't need one. But I did create a view that contains all VehicleIds from both tables, so I can use it as a junction table. What am I actually looking for? The tables are huge because they cover years of data, and every time I only need to fetch a range of a few hours. So I need a mapping and a criteria that will run something like the following SQL underneath: select ... from Faults left outer join Trips on Faults.VehicleId = Trips.VehicleId and Faults.FaultTime between Trips.TripStartTime and Trips.TripEndTime where Faults.FaultTime between :p0 and :p1 Do you have any ideas how to achieve it? Note 1: Currently the application shouldn't write to the database, so persistence is not a must, although if the mapping supports persistence, it may help at some point in the future. Note 2: I know it's a tough one, so if you give me a great answer, you will be properly rewarded :) Thank you for reading this long question, and now I only hope for the best :)

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• need to get the context value in top of page, where the context value will be set only at the bottom

  - by Mahadevan Alagar

  <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("Page Load:"); } public string setContext(string sName, string sVal) { HttpContext.Current.Items[sName] = sVal; return sVal; } public string getContext(string sName) { string sVal = "default"; if (HttpContext.Current.Items[sName] != null) sVal = HttpContext.Current.Items[sName].ToString(); else sVal = "empty"; return sVal; } </script> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Get Context in TOP ???</title> </head> <body> <div> <div id="divDest" name="divDest"> Top Content: Get1 :<%= getContext("topcontent") %> // returns "empty", BUT I Need "value to set" </div> <br /> Set1 : <%= setContext("topcontent", "value to set")%> <br /> // set the value <br /> Get2 : <%= getContext("topcontent") %><br /> // returns "value to set" <br /> <script language="javascript"> var elval = getElementVal("divTest"); document.getElementById("divDest").innerHTML = elval; //alert(elval); function getElementVal(elemid) { var elemval = document.getElementById(elemid); return elemval.innerHTML; } </script> </body> </html> I need to get the context value in top of page, where the context value will be set at the bottom of the page. Get context value == "empty", BUT need "something" Set context value to "something" Get context value == "something" I may use JS/AJAX, where the page source the value won't be present. BUT I need the TEXT in the View Source of the page too. Is there a way to wait for the context to set and then get, I have tried with User Control, prerender and render methods too. But I can't able to get it right. Any idea?

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• Why does Python's math.factorial not play nice with threads?

  - by W1N9Zr0

  Why does math.factorial act so weird in a thread? Here is an example, it creates three threads: thread that just sleeps for a while thread that increments an int for a while thread that does math.factorial on a large number. It calls start on the threads, then join with a timeout The sleep and spin threads work as expected and return from start right away, and then sit in the join for the timeout. The factorial thread on the other hand does not return from start until it runs to the end! import sys from threading import Thread from time import sleep, time from math import factorial # Helper class that stores a start time to compare to class timed_thread(Thread): def __init__(self, time_start): Thread.__init__(self) self.time_start = time_start # Thread that just executes sleep() class sleep_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): sleep(15) print "st DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # Thread that increments a number for a while class spin_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): x = 1 while x < 120000000: x += 1 print "sp DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # Thread that calls math.factorial with a large number class factorial_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): factorial(50000) print "ft DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # the tests print print "sleep_thread test" time_start = time() st = sleep_thread(time_start) st.start() print "st.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) st.join(2) print "st.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "sleep alive:\t%r" % st.isAlive() print print "spin_thread test" time_start = time() sp = spin_thread(time_start) sp.start() print "sp.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) sp.join(2) print "sp.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "sp alive:\t%r" % sp.isAlive() print print "factorial_thread test" time_start = time() ft = factorial_thread(time_start) ft.start() print "ft.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) ft.join(2) print "ft.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "ft alive:\t%r" % ft.isAlive() And here is the output on Python 2.6.5 on CentOS x64: sleep_thread test st.start: 0.000675 st.join: 2.006963 sleep alive: True spin_thread test sp.start: 0.000595 sp.join: 2.010066 sp alive: True factorial_thread test ft DONE: 4.475453 ft.start: 4.475589 ft.join: 4.475615 ft alive: False st DONE: 10.994519 sp DONE: 12.054668 I've tried this on python 2.6.5 on CentOS x64, 2.7.2 on Windows x86 and the factorial thread does not return from start on either of them until the thread is done executing. I've also tried this with PyPy 1.8.0 on Windows x86, and there result is slightly different. The start does return immediately, but then the join doesn't time out! sleep_thread test st.start: 0.001000 st.join: 2.001000 sleep alive: True spin_thread test sp.start: 0.000000 sp DONE: 0.197000 sp.join: 0.236000 sp alive: False factorial_thread test ft.start: 0.032000 ft DONE: 9.011000 ft.join: 9.012000 ft alive: False st DONE: 12.763000

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• image upload problem.

  - by Bluemagica

  I wrote a function to resize and upload images...it works, but only for one image. So if I call the function three times, I end up with 3 copies of the last image..... function uploadImage($name,$width,$height,$size,$path='content/user_avatars/') { //=================================================== //Handle image upload $upload_error=0; //Picture $img = $_FILES[$name]['name']; if($img) { $file = stripslashes($_FILES[$name]['name']); $ext = strtolower(getExt($file)); if($ext!='jpg' && $ext!='jpeg' && $ext!='png' && $ext!='gif') { $error_msg = "Unknown extension"; $upload_error = 1; return array($upload_error,$error_msg); } if(filesize($_FILES[$name]['tmp_name'])>$size*1024) { $error_msg = "Max file size of ".($size*1024)."kb exceeded"; $upload_error = 2; return array($upload_error,$error_msg); } $newFile = time().'.'.$ext; resizeImg($_FILES[$name]['tmp_name'],$ext,$width,$height); $store = copy($_FILES[$name]['tmp_name'],$path.$newFile); if(!$store) { $error_msg = "Uploading failed"; $upload_error = 3; return array($upload_error,$error_msg); } else { return array($upload_error,$newFile); } } } //========================================================================================= //Helper Functions function getExt($str) { $i = strpos($str,"."); if(!$i) { return ""; } $l = strlen($str)-$i; $ext = substr($str,$i+1,$l); return $ext; } function resizeImg($file,$ext,$width,$height) { list($aw,$ah) = getimagesize($file); $scaleX = $aw/$width; $scaleY = $ah/$height; if($scaleX>$scaleY) { $nw = round($aw*(1/$scaleX)); $nh = round($ah*(1/$scaleX)); } else { $nw = round($aw*(1/$scaleY)); $nh = round($ah*(1/$scaleY)); } $new_image = imagecreatetruecolor($nw,$nh); imagefill($new_image,0,0,imagecolorallocatealpha($new_image,255,255,255,127)); if($ext=='jpg'||$ext=='jpeg') { $src_image = imagecreatefromjpeg($file); } else if($ext=='gif') { $src_image = imagecreatefromgif($file); } else if($ext=='png') { $src_image = imagecreatefrompng($file); } imagecopyresampled($new_image,$src_image,0,0,0,0,$nw,$nh,$aw,$ah); if($ext=='jpg'||$ext=='jpeg') { imagejpeg($new_image,$file,100); } else if($ext=='gif') { imagegif($new_image,$file); } else if($ext=='png') { imagepng($new_image,$file,9); } imagedestroy($src_image); imagedestroy($new_image); } I have a form with two upload fields, 'face_pic' and 'body_pic', and I want to upload these two to the server and resize them before storing. Any ideas?

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• jQuery, get datas in AJAX (done) then, display them as star (error)

  - by Tristan

  Hello, In my website, there are 2 steps : I get values from another domain with AJAX, it's numbers 100% working Then, i want to display those numbers in stars with this plugin (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1987524/turn-a-number-into-star-rating-display-using-jquery-and-css) The error : the stars plugin does not work for the value i recieve from my ajax request, but it's working for my values for my domain which are not JS manipulated you can see a demo here http://www.esl.eu/fr/test/test_atome/?killcache=true PS: the data in ajax are provided in JSON-P so i wrote a parser which look like this: jQuery.ajax({ type: "get", dataType: "jsonp", url: "http://www.foo.com/", data: {demandeur: "monkey" }, cache: true, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest){ var obj = null, length = data.length; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { widget = "<p>AVERAGES<p>"; widget += "<p><span class='stars'>"; widget += data[i].services; widget += "</span></p>"; widget += "<p><span class='stars'>"; widget += data[i].qualite; widget += "</span></p>"; jQuery('#gotserv').html(widget); } } }); }); Then i have the star plugin after this function : $.fn.stars = function() { $(this).each(function() { // Get the value var val = parseFloat($(this).html()); // Make sure that the value is in 0 - 5 range val = val 5 ? 5 : (val < 0 ? 0 : val); // Calculate physical size var size = 16 * val; // Create stars holder var stars = $(''); // Adjust yellow stars' width stars.find('span').width(size); // Replace the numerical value with stars $(this).replaceWith(stars); }); I hope you understand, i don't know if i'm clear Thank you

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• Frustration with generics

  - by sbi

  I have a bunch of functions which are currently overloaded to operate on int and string: bool foo(int); bool foo(string); bool bar(int); bool bar(string); void baz(int p); void baz(string p); I then have a bunch of functions taking 1, 2, 3, or 4 arguments of either int or string, which call the aforementioned functions: void g(int p1) { if(foo(p1)) baz(p1); } void g(string p1) { if(foo(p1)) baz(p1); } void g(int p2, int p2) { if(foo(p1)) baz(p1); if(bar(p2)) baz(p2); } void g(int p2, string p2) { if(foo(p1)) baz(p1); if(bar(p2)) baz(p2); } void g(string p2, int p2) { if(foo(p1)) baz(p1); if(bar(p2)) baz(p2); } void g(string p2, string p2) { if(foo(p1)) baz(p1); if(bar(p2)) baz(p2); } // etc. (The implementation of the g() family is just a placeholder. actually they are more complicated.) More types than the current int or string might have to be introduced at any time. The same goes for functions with more arguments than 4. The current number of identical functions is barely manageable. Add one more variant in either dimension and the combinatoric explosion will be so huge, it might blow away the application. In C++, I'd templatize g() and be done. I understand that .NET generics are different. <sigh> But I have been fighting them for two hours trying to come up with a solution that doesn't involve too much copy&paste of code. To no avail. Surely, C#/.NET/generics/whatever won't require me to type out identical code for a family of functions taking five arguments of either of three types? So what am I missing here?

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• Keeping WPF grids from getting out of parent bounds

  - by Jonathan Perry

  In my UI, I have a big grid with two columns and one row. in the right column, I have a grid with three rows where in the top row I have a user control, and in the two bottom rows I have two Expander objects, each containing an ItemsControl with a list that gets populated in runtime. Sometimes, that list gets really long and "spills" from the screen towards the bottom. What I want to do is to allow the user to see both expanders, be able to expand or collapse them while keeping them both in sight. I tried wrapping them in WrapPanels or StackPanel but to no avail. Here's some code to help explain my problem: <Grid Grid.Row="1" x:Name="grid1"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Expander Grid.Row="0" Header="Expander 1" x:Name="expander1" FontSize="14" IsExpanded="True"> <Expander.Background> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FFC4C4C4" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="White" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Expander.Background> <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding ViewModel.OpenAlerts, ElementName=m_viewControl}" ClipToBounds="True"/> </Expander> <Expander Grid.Row="1" x:Name="expander2" Header="Expander 2" FontSize="14" IsExpanded="True"> <Expander.Background> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FFC4C4C4" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="White" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Expander.Background> <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding ViewModel.ClosedAlerts, ElementName=m_viewControl}" ClipToBounds="True"/> </Expander> </Grid> Any assistance or tips will be highly appreciated! Thanks, John.

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• angular, try to display object in ng-repeat fails

  - by Simone M

  i'm writing an mobile application in javascript with angularJS and ionicframework (last beta v.11), i create dinamically an object and want to display all objects inside in a ng-repeat. Why nr-repeat don't display anything? This is screen from my object: I use this code for put values in scope: $scope.distanceSuppliers = myCar; And this is the code in html: <ion-item ng-repeat="(id, supplier) in distanceSuppliers"> <div class="items item-button-right" ng-click="openDetails(id)"> {{supplier.name}}<br /> {{supplier.address}}<br /> </div> </ion-item> This is my complete code for JS: .controller('suppliers', function($scope, cw_db, $ionicPopup, $ionicActionSheet, appdelegate, $rootScope, $firebase, $location, $ionicLoading, cw_position) { $ionicLoading.show({ template: 'Updating data..' }); var geocoder; var tot = 0; var done = 0; geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); cw_db.getData(cw_db.getSuppliers(), "", function(suppliers) { cw_position.getPosition(function (error, position) { suppliers.on('value', function(supp) { $scope.distanceSuppliers = {}; tot = 0; done = 0; supp.forEach(function(childSnapshot) { tot++; var childData = childSnapshot.val(); if (childData.address) { calculateDistance(childData, position.coords.latitude, position.coords.longitude); } }); }); $ionicLoading.hide(); }); }); function calculateDistance(childData, usrLat, usrLon) { var service = new google.maps.DistanceMatrixService(); service.getDistanceMatrix( { origins: [new google.maps.LatLng(usrLat, usrLon)], destinations: [childData.address], travelMode: google.maps.TravelMode.DRIVING, unitSystem: google.maps.UnitSystem.METRIC, avoidHighways: false, avoidTolls: false }, function(response, status) { if (status != google.maps.DistanceMatrixStatus.OK) { alert('Error was: ' + status); } else { done++; var results = response.rows[0].elements; childData.distance = results[0].distance.value; $scope.distanceSuppliers.push(childData); if (done == tot) { console.log($scope.distanceSuppliers); } } }); } $scope.openDetails = function(index) { //appdelegate.setCallId(index); //$location.path("/app/supplierDetails"); } }) what's wrong?

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• Problem with final branch in a parallel activity

  - by Dan Revell

  This might seem like a silly thing to say, the final branch in a parallel activity so I'll clarify. It's a parallel activity with three branches each containing a simple create task, on task changed and complete task. The branch containing the task that is last to complete seems to break. So every task works in it's own right, but the last one encounters a problem. Say the user clicks the final tasks link to open the attached infopath form and submits that. Execution gets to the event handler for that onTaskChanged where a taskCompleted variable gets set to true which will exit the while loop. I've successfully hit a breakpoint on this line so I know that happens. However the final activity in that branch, the completeTask doesn't get hit. When submit is clicked in the final form, the operation in progess screen says of for quite a while before returning to the workflow status page. The task that was opened and submitted says "Not Started". I can disable any of the branches to leave only two, but the same problem happens with the last to be completed. Earlier on in the workflow I do essencially the same thing. I have another 3 branch parallel activity with each brach containing a task. This one works correctly which leads me to believe that it might be a problem with having two parallel activites in the same sequential workflow. I've considered the possibility that it might be a correlation token problem. The token that every task branch uses is unique to that branch and it's owner activity name is est to that of the branch. It stands to reason that if the task complete variable is indeed getting set to true but the while loop isn't being exited, then there's a wire crossing with the variable somewhere. However I'd still have thought that the task status back on the workflow status page would at least say that the task is in progress. This is a frustrating show stopper of a bug for me. Any thoughts or suggestions would be much appricated so I can investigate them.

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• replacing div content with a click using jquery

  - by Joel

  I see this question asked a lot in the related questions, but my need seems very simple compared to those examples, and sadly I'm just still too new at js to know what to remove...so at the risk of being THAT GUY, I'm going to ask my question... I'm trying to switch out the div contents in a box depending on the button pushed. Right now I have it working using the animatedcollapse.toggle function, but it doesn't look very good. I want to replace it with a basic fade in on click and fade in new content on next button. Basic idea: <div> <ul> <li><a href="this will fade in the first_div"></li> <li><a href="this will fade in the second_div"></li> <li><a href="this will fade in the third_div"></li> </ul> <div class="first_container"> <ul> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> </ul> </div> <div class="second_container"> <ul> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> </ul> </div> <div class="third_container"> <ul> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> </ul> </div> </div> I've got everything working with the animated collapse, but it's just an ugly effect for this situation, so I want to change it out. Thanks! Joel

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• jquery ajax post callback - manipulation stops after the "third" call

  - by shanyu

  EDIT: The problem is not related to Boxy, I've run into the same issue when I've used JQuery 's load method. EDIT 2: When I take out link.remove() from inside the ajax callback and place it before ajax load, the problem is no more. Are there restrictions for manipulating elements inside an ajax callback function. I am using JQuery with Boxy plugin. When the 'Flag' link on the page is clicked, a Boxy modal pops-up and loads a form via ajax. When the user submits the form, the link (<a> tag) is removed and a new one is created from the ajax response. This mechanism works for, well, 3 times! After the 3rd, the callback function just does not remove/replace/append (tested several variations of manipulation) the element. The only hint I have is that after the 3rd call, the parent of the link becomes non-selectable. However I can't make anything of this. Sorry if this is a very trivial issue, I have no experience in client-side programming. The relevant html is below: <div class="flag-link"> <img class="flag-img" style="width: 16px; visibility: hidden;" src="/static/images/flag.png" alt=""/> <a class="unflagged" href="/i/flag/showform/9/1/?next=/users/1/ozgurisil">Flag</a> </div> Here is the relevant js code: $(document).ready(function() { $('div.flag-link a.unflagged').live('click', function(e){ doFlag(e); return false; }); ... }); function doFlag(e) { var link = $(e.target); var url = link.attr('href'); Boxy.load(url, {title:'Inappropriate Content', unloadOnHide:true, cache:false, behaviours: function(r) { $("#flag-form").live("submit", function(){ var post_url = $("#flag-form").attr('action'); boxy = Boxy.get(this); boxy.hideAndUnload(); $.post(post_url, $("#flag-form").serialize(), function(data){ par = link.parent(); par.append(data); alert (par.attr('class')); //BECOMES UNDEFINED AT THE 3RD CALL!! par.children('img.flag-img').css('visibility', 'visible'); link.remove(); }); return false; }); }}); }

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• Complex Entity Framework linked-graphs issue: how to limit change set / break the graph?

  - by Hightechrider

  I have an EDMX containing Sentences, and Words, say and a Sentence contains three Words, say. Appropriate FK relationships exist between the tables. I create some words: Word word1 = new Word(); Word word2 = ... I build a Sentence: Sentence x = new Sentence (word1, word2, word3); I build another Sentence: Sentence y = new Sentence (word1, word4, word5); I try to save x to the database, but EF builds a change set that includes everything, including y, word4 and word5 that aren't ready to save to the database. When SaveChanges() happens it throws an exception: Unable to determine the principal end of the ... relationship. Multiple added entities may have the same primary key. I think it does this because Word has an EntityCollection<Sentence> on it from the FK relationship between the two tables, and thus Sentence y is inextricably linked to Sentence x through word1. So I remove the Navigation Property Sentences from Word and try again. It still tries to put the entire graph into the change set. What suggestions do the Entity Framework experts have for ways to break this connection. Essentially what I want is a one-way mapping from Sentence to Word; I don't want an EntityCollection<Sentence> on Word and I don't want the object graph to get intertwined like this. Code sample: This puts two sentences into the database because Verb1 links them and EF explores the entire graph of existing objects and added objects when you do Add/SaveChanges. Word subject1 = new Word(){ Text = "Subject1"}; Word subject2 = new Word(){ Text = "Subject2"}; Word verb1 = new Word(){ Text = "Verb11"}; Word object1 = new Word(){ Text = "Object1"}; Word object2 = new Word(){ Text = "Object2"}; Sentence s1 = new Sentence(){Subject = subject1, Verb=verb1, Object=object1}; Sentence s2 = new Sentence(){Subject=subject2, Verb=verb1, Object=object2}; context.AddToSentences(s1); context.SaveChanges(); foreach (var s in context.Sentences) { Console.WriteLine(s.Subject + " " + s.Verb + " " + s.Object); }

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• asp.net repeater returns weird html

  - by emre

  I have a repeater that is supposed to create div tags with their onclick functions from databind. Which is like onclick='<%# "functionname('" + Eval("somestring") +"');" %>' but the single quotes ' after the js func ( and before ) , they become something like ?,= .. I don't understand what's happening. .. the full code is below <div id="dvPager"> <asp:Repeater ID="pagerSorular" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div class='<%# "pageritem pagertext" + ((this.PageNumber == int.Parse(Container.DataItem.ToString())) ? " pagerselected" : "") %>' onclick='<%# "gotopage('" + this.PageName + "', " + Container.DataItem + ");" %>'> <%# Container.DataItem %> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </div> and codebehind is: public int PageNumber { get { string strPgNum = Request.QueryString["pg"] as String; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(strPgNum)) { int pgnum; if (int.TryParse(strPgNum, out pgnum)) { if (pgnum <= 0) { return pgnum; } else { return 1; } } else { return 1; } } else { return 1; } } } public string PageName { get { string url = Request.Url.ToString(); string[] parts = url.Split(new char[]{'/'}); return parts[parts.Length - 1]; } } public void Doldur(List<SoruGridView> sorulistesi) { gridSorular.DataSource = sorulistesi; gridSorular.DataBind(); /// PagerYap(sorulistesi); } protected void PagerYap(List<SoruGridView> sorulistesi) { List<int> numpgs = new List<int>(); int count = 1; foreach (SoruGridView sgv in sorulistesi) { numpgs.Add(count); count++; } pagerSorular.DataSource = numpgs.ToArray(); pagerSorular.DataBind(); }

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• Grails Twitter Bootstrap Plugin Issue with navbar-fixed-top

  - by Philip Tenn

  I am using Grails 2.1.0 and Twitter Bootstrap Plugin 2.1.1 and am encountering an issue with navbar-fixed-top. In order to get the Navbar fixed to the top of the page to behave correctly during resize, the Twitter Bootstrap Docs states: Add .navbar-fixed-top and remember to account for the hidden area underneath it by adding at least 40px padding to the . Be sure to add this after the core Bootstrap CSS and before the optional responsive CSS. How can I do this when using the Grails Plugin for Twitter Bootstrap? Here is what I have tried: main.gsp <head> ... <r:require modules="bootstrap-css"/> <style type="text/css"> body { padding-top: 60px; padding-bottom: 40px; } .sidebar-nav { padding: 9px 0; } </style> <r:require modules="bootstrap-responsive-css"/> <r:layoutResources/> </head> The problem is that Grails Plugin for Twitter Bootstrap takes the content of bootstrap.css and bootstrap-responsive.css and combines them into the following merged file: static/bundle-bundle_bootstrap_head.css. Thus, I am not able to put the body padding style "after core Bootstrap CSS and before Responsive CSS" as per Twitter Bootstrap docs. Here is the View Source HTML that I get from the main.gsp above <style type="text/css"> body { padding-top: 60px; padding-bottom: 40px; } .sidebar-nav { padding: 9px 0; } </style> <link href="/homes/static/bundle-bundle_bootstrap_head.css" type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" media="screen, projection" /> If there is no way to do this, I could always just drop the Grails Twitter Bootstrap Plugin and manually download Twitter Bootstrap and put it my Grails Project's web-app/css, web-app/images, and web-app/js. However, I would like to be able to use the Grails Twitter Bootstrap Plugin. Thank you very much in advance, I appreciate it!

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• Rails Google Maps integration Javascript problem

  - by JZ

  I'm working on Rails 3.0.0.beta2, following Advanced Rails Recipes "Recipe #32, Mark locations on a Google Map" and I hit a road block: I do not see a google map. My @adds view uses @adds.to_json to connect the google maps api with my model. My database contains "latitude" "longitude", as floating points. And the entire project can be accessed at github. Can you see where I'm not connecting the to_json output with the javascript correctly? Can you see other glairing errors in my javascript? Thanks in advance! My application.js file: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof adds != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(37.4419, -122.1419), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, add) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+add.first_name+"</strong><br />"+add.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < adds.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(adds[i].latitude,adds[i].longitude) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, adds[i])); } map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter(),map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds)); } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload; Layouts/adds.html.erb: <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;sensor=true_or_false&amp;key=ABQIAAAAeH4ThRuftWNHlwYdvcK1QBTJQa0g3IQ9GZqIMmInSLzwtGDKaBQvZChl_y5OHf0juslJRNx7TbxK3Q" type="text/javascript"></script> <% if @adds -%> <script type="text/javascript"> var maps = <%= @adds.to_json %>; </script> <% end -%>

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• Rails / ActiveRecord Modeling Help

  - by JM

  I’m trying to model a relationship in ActiveRecord and I think it’s a little beyond my skill level. Here’s the background. This is a horse racing project and I’m trying to model a horses Connections over time. Connections are defined as the Horse’s Current: Owner, Trainer and Jockey. Over time, a horse’s connections can change for a lot of different reasons: The owner sells the horse in a private sale The horse is claimed (purchase in a public sale) The Trainer switches jockeys The owner switches trainers In my first attempt at modeling this, I created the following tables: Horses, Owners, Trainers, Jockeys and Connections. Essentially, the Connections table was the has-many-through join table and was structured as follows: Connections Table 1 Id Horse_id Owner_id Trainer_id Jockey_id Status_Code Status_Date Change_Code The Horse, Owner, Trainer and Jockey foreign keys are self explanatory. The status code is 1 or 0 (1 active, 0 inactive) and the status date is the date the status changed. Change_code is and integer or string value that represent the reason for the change (private sale, claim, jockey change, etc) The key benefit of this approach is that the Connection is represented as one record in the connections table. The downside is that I have to have a table for Owner (1), Trainer (2) and Jockey (3) when one table could due. In my second attempt at modeling this I created the following tables: Horses, Connections, Entities The Entities tables has the following structure Entities Table id First_name Last_name Role where Role represents if the entity is a Owner, Trainer or Jockey. Under this approach, my Connections table has the following structure Connections Table 2 id Horse_id Entity_id Role Status_Code Status_Date Change_Code 1 1 1 1 1 1/1/2010 2 1 4 2 1 1/1/2010 3 1 10 3 1 1/1/2010 This approach has the benefit of eliminating two tables, but on the other hand the Connection is now comprised of three different records as opposed to one in the first approach. What believe I’m looking for is an approach that allows me to capture the Connection in one record, but also uses an Entities table with roles instead of the Owner, Trainer and Jockey tables. I’m new to ActiveRecord and rails so any and all input would be greatly appreciated. Perhaps there are other ways that would even be better. Thanks!

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• How to make this sub-sub-query work?

  - by Josh Weissbock

  I am trying to do this in one query. I asked a similar question a few days ago but my personal requirements have changed. I have a game type website where users can attend "classes". There are three tables in my DB. I am using MySQL. I have four tables: hl_classes (int id, int professor, varchar class, text description) hl_classes_lessons (int id, int class_id, varchar lessonTitle, varchar lexiconLink, text lessonData) hl_classes_answers (int id, int lesson_id, int student, text submit_answer, int percent) hl_classes stores all of the classes on the website. The lessons are the individual lessons for each class. A class can have infinite lessons. Each lesson is available in a specific term. hl_classes_terms stores a list of all the terms and the current term has the field active = '1'. When a user submits their answers to a lesson it is stored in hl_classes_answers. A user can only answer each lesson once. Lessons have to be answered sequentially. All users attend all "classes". What I am trying to do is grab the next lesson for each user to do in each class. When the users start they are in term 1. When they complete all 10 lessons in each class they move on to term 2. When they finish lesson 20 for each class they move on to term 3. Let's say we know the term the user is in by the PHP variable $term. So this is my query I am currently trying to massage out but it doesn't work. Specifically because of the hC.id is unknown in the WHERE clause SELECT hC.id, hC.class, (SELECT MIN(output.id) as nextLessonID FROM ( SELECT id, class_id FROM hl_classes_lessons hL WHERE hL.class_id = hC.id ORDER BY hL.id LIMIT $term,10 ) as output WHERE output.id NOT IN (SELECT lesson_id FROM hl_classes_answers WHERE student = $USER_ID)) as nextLessonID FROM hl_classes hC My logic behind this query is first to For each class; select all of the lessons in the term the current user is in. From this sort out the lessons the user has already done and grab the MINIMUM id of the lessons yet to be done. This will be the lesson the user has to do. I hope I have made my question clear enough.

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• Joomla - Force File Download / CSV Export

  - by lautaro.dragan

  I'm in need of help... this is my first time asking a question in SO, so please be kind :) I'm trying to force-download a file from php, so when the user hits a certain button, he gets a file download. The file is a csv (email, username) of all registered users. I decided to add this button to the admin users screen, as you can see in this screenshot. So I added the following code to the addToolbar function in administrator/components/com_users/views/users/view.html.php: JToolBarHelper::custom('users.export', 'export.png', 'export_f2.png', 'Exportar', false); This button is mapped to the following function in the com_users\controller\users.php controller: public function exportAllUsers() { ob_end_clean(); $app = JFactory::getApplication(); header("Content-type: text/csv"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=ideary_users.csv"); header("Pragma: no-cache"); header("Expires: 0"); echo "email,name\n"; $model = $this->getModel("Users"); $users = $model->getAllUsers(); foreach ($users as $user) { echo $user->email . ", " . ucwords(trim($user->name)) . "\r\n"; } $app->close(); } Now, this is actually working perfectly fine. The issue here is that after I download a file, if I hit any button in the admin that causes a POST, instead of it performing the action it should, it just downloads the file over again! For example: I hit the "Export" button "users.csv" downloads Then, I hit the "search" button "users.csv" downloads... what the hell? I'm guessing that when I hit the export button, a JS gets called and sets a form's action attribute to an URL... and expects a response or something, and then other button's are prevented from re-setting the form's action attribute. I can't think of any real solution for this, but I'd rather avoid hacks if possible. So, what would be the standard, elegant solution that joomla offers in this case?

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• Error in jquery attribute selector and IE6-7

  - by Guillermo Vasconcelos

  Hi, I'm trying to implement a JQuery script to process some areas inside an image map. I'm using $('area[shape="poly"]') as a selector to obtain the areas I'm interested in. It is working fine in IE8 and Firefox, but it is not selecting the elements in IE6 or IE7. This is a test page that shows this problem. I don't know if this is a JQuery bug or I am doing something wrong. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ $(document).ready(function() { var areas = $('area[shape="poly"]'); alert('areas: ' + areas.length); }); //]]> </script> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <img id="img1" src="nothing.gif" style="width:300px; height:300px; border: 2px solid black" usemap="#map1"/> <map id="map1"> <area shape="rect" title="rectArea" coords="126,112,231,217" alt=""/> <area shape="poly" title="polyArea1" coords="274,72,262,70,251,68,240,67,228,66,217,67,206,68,194,70,183,72,181,63,192,60,204,58,216,57,228,56,240,57,252,58,264,60,276,63" alt=""/> <area shape="poly" title="polyArea2" coords="241,194,235,193,228,193,222,193,216,194,196,119,204,117,212,116,220,115,228,115,237,115,245,116,253,117,261,119" alt=""/> </map> </body> </html> This is showing 2 in IE8 and Firefox and 0 in IE6-7 Thanks, Guillermo

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• Wait 300ms and then slide down menu using jQuery

  - by Derfder

  I tried this js code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function() { var timer; $('.top-menu-first-ul li').hover(function(){ if(timer) { clearTimeout(timer); timer = null } timer = setTimeout(function() { $(this).find('ul').slideToggle(100); }, 500) }, // mouse out }); }); </script> with this html: <ul class="top-menu-first-ul"> <li> <a href="http://google.com">Google</a> <ul class="top-menu-second-ul"> <li><a href="http://translate.google.com">Google Translate</a></li> <li><a href="http://images.google.com">Google Images</a></li> <li><a href="http://gmail.google.com">Gmail</a></li> <li><a href="http://plus.google.com">Google Plus</a></li> </ul> </li> <li> <a href="http://facebook.com">Facebook</a> </li> <li> <a href="http://twitter.com">Twitter</a> </li> </ul> but it is not working. I would like to show the submenu when hovering over e.g. Google link and other will appear after 300ms. So, I need to prevent loading submenu when the user just quickly hover over it and not stay on hover link for at least 300ms. Then I need to stop executing code (or slide up) when he leaves the link. Because if he go over and back and over and back a copule of times he stop doing hovering anfd the code is still executing itself how many times he had hover over the link. I need somehow prevent this to happen. EDIT: I need to solve this without plugins like hoverIntent etc. if possible, just plain javascript and jQuery

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