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  • Can I perform some processing on the POST data before ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel happens?

    - by Domenic
    I would like to strip out non-numeric elements from the POST data before using UpdateModel to update the copy in the database. Is there a way to do this? // TODO: it appears I don't even use the parameter given at all, and all the magic // happens via UpdateModel and the "controller's current value provider"? [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index([Bind(Include="X1, X2")] Team model) // TODO: stupid magic strings { if (this.ModelState.IsValid) { TeamContainer context = new TeamContainer(); Team thisTeam = context.Teams.Single(t => t.TeamId == this.CurrentTeamId); // TODO HERE: apply StripWhitespace() to the data before using UpdateModel. // The data is currently somewhere in the "current value provider"? this.UpdateModel(thisTeam); context.SaveChanges(); this.RedirectToAction(c => c.Index()); } else { this.ModelState.AddModelError("", "Please enter two valid Xs."); } // If we got this far, something failed; redisplay the form. return this.View(model); } Sorry for the terseness, up all night working on this; hopefully my question is clear enough? Also sorry since this is kind of a newbie question that I might be able to get with a few hours of documentation-trawling, but I'm time-pressured... bleh.

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  • sybase - fails to use index unless string is hard-coded

    - by Garrett
    I'm using Sybase 12.5.3 (ASE); I'm new to Sybase though I've worked with MSSQL pretty extensively. I'm running into a scenario where a stored procedure is really very slow. I've traced the issue to a single SELECT stmt for a relatively large table. Modifying that statement dramatically improves the performance of the procedure (and reverting it drastically slows it down; i.e., the SELECT stmt is definitely the culprit). -- Sybase optimizes and uses multi-column index... fast!<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in ('NEW','SENT') ORDER BY ID -- Sybase does not use index and does very slow table scan<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in (select status from allowableStatusValues) ORDER BY ID The code above is an adapted/simplified version of the actual code. Note that I've already tried recompiling the procedure, updating statistics, etc. I have no idea why Sybase ASE would choose an index only when strings are hard-coded and choose a table scan when choosing from another table. Someone please give me a clue, and thank you in advance.

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  • iPhone code to create new NSUserDefaults objects?

    - by Rob
    I have NSUserDefaults storing a number of string variables for things like name, date of birth, address, etc. What I would like to know is how to write a code that will create a new object for each new user. For example, I have a spinning wheel that shows up immediately after the first time the user runs the app. What I want, is for that wheel to have one single option - "New User". Once that New User fills out a bunch of text fields that I am using NSUserDefaults to save, I want that user to be saved on that spinning wheel so that the next time they open up the app they have the option of returning to all of the variables that they previously put in, or creating a new user so they can input all new variables. I know how to do everything except write the code to create new users automatically. Potentially, the program should allow for a limitless number of these user objects and then just use something arbitrary like their last name to input into the spinning wheel. I would assume that the code would need to be put somewhere in the following code used to save the NSUserDefaults: NSUserDefaults *userData = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [userData setObject:txtName.text forKey:@"name"];

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  • IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

    - by Bobby Eickhoff
    I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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  • nServiceBus - No all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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  • delete UITableView row apple addMusic example

    - by Pavan
    Hi, i am trying to add a swipe to delete feature to the addmusic example project (downloaded free from apple) so that i am able able to delete a specific row. Ive added the following code just so that i can enable to delete feature but i dont know how to remove the song from the list which i believe to be the mediaItemCollection and actually deleting it from the userMediaItemCollection which is used to queue the songs to the player. - (void)tableView:(UITableView*)tableView willBeginEditingRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // If row is deleted, remove it from the list. if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { // delete your data item here // Animate the deletion from the table. [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath]withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; } } The swipe to delete feature works nicely, the delete button only appears when swiped, but when i click delete, a SIGBART error occurs, the whole application freezes, (although the musix does continue to play, lol). Can someone please tell me how i can delete the row at that index and how i can delete it from the mediaitemcollection please. When taking that single line of code out: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath]withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; the swipe to delete works, except that it does not delete anything obviously since i havent added any actual delete functionality/coding that needs to be done. All ideas appreciated.

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  • HTML form with multiple submit options

    - by phimuemue
    Hi, I'm trying to create a small web app that is used to remove items from a MySQL table. It just shows the items in a HTML table and for each item a button [delete]: item_1 [delete] item_2 [delete] ... item_N [delete] To achieve this, I dynamically generate the table via PHP into a HTML form. This form has then obviously N [delete]-buttons. The form should use the POST-method for transfering data. For the deletion I wanted to submit the ID (primary key in the MySQL table) of the corresponding item to the executing php skript. So I introduced hidden fields (all these fields have the name='ID' that store the ID of the corresponding item. However, when pressing an arbitrary [delete], it seems to submit always just the last ID (i.e. the value of the last ID hidden field). Is there any way to submit just the ID field of the corresponding item without using multiple forms? Or is it possible to submit data from multiple forms with just one submit-button? Or should I even choose any completly different way? The point why I want to do it in just one single form is that there are some "global" parameters that shall not be placed next to each item, but just once for the whole table.

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  • DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

    - by singer
    Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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  • To what degree should I use Marshal.ReleaseComObject with Excel Interop objects?

    - by DanM
    I've seen several examples where Marshal.ReleaseComObject() is used with Excel Interop objects (i.e., objects from namespace Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel), but I've seen it used to various degrees. I'm wondering if I can get away with something like this: var application = new ApplicationClass(); try { // do work with application, workbooks, worksheets, cells, etc. } finally { Marashal.ReleaseComObject(application) } Or if I need to release every single object created, as in this method: public void CreateExcelWorkbookWithSingleSheet() { var application = new ApplicationClass(); var workbook = application.Workbooks.Add(_missing); var worksheets = workbook.Worksheets; for (var worksheetIndex = 1; worksheetIndex < worksheets.Count; worksheetIndex++) { var worksheet = (WorksheetClass)worksheets[worksheetIndex]; worksheet.Delete(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheet); } workbook.SaveAs( WorkbookPath, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, XlSaveAsAccessMode.xlExclusive, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing); workbook.Close(true, _missing, _missing); application.Quit(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheets); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(workbook); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(application); } What prompted me to ask this question is that, being the LINQ devotee I am, I really want to do something like this: var worksheetNames = worksheets.Cast<Worksheet>().Select(ws => ws.Name); ...but I'm concerned I'll end up with memory leaks or ghost processes if I don't release each worksheet (ws) object. Any insight on this would be appreciated.

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  • Java operator overloading

    - by nimcap
    Not using operators makes my code obscure. (aNumber / aNother) * count is better than aNumber.divideBy(aNother).times(count) After 6 months of not writing a single comment I had to write a comment to the simple operation above. Usually I refactor until I don't need comment. And this made me realize that it is easier to read and perceive math symbols and numbers than their written forms. For example TWENTY_THOUSAND_THIRTEEN.plus(FORTY_TWO.times(TWO_HUNDERED_SIXTY_ONE)) is more obscure than 20013 + 42*261 So do you know a way to get rid of obscurity while not using operator overloading in Java? Update: I did not think my exaggeration on comments would cause such trouble to me. I am admitting that I needed to write comment a couple of times in 6 months. But not more than 10 lines in total. Sorry for that. Update 2: Another example: budget.plus(bonusCoefficient.times(points)) is more obscure than budget + bonusCoefficient * points I have to stop and think on the first one, at first sight it looks like clutter of words, on the other hand, I get the meaning at first look for the second one, it is very clear and neat. I know this cannot be achieved in Java but I wanted to hear some ideas about my alternatives.

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  • dynamically add listener to ajax created content in jQuery

    - by davidP
    I am trying to get the html value of a linked clicked. The links are created dynamically with Ajax so I don't think .bind will work and I don't have latest version with .live $('div#message').click(function() { var valueSelected = $(this).html(); // picks up the whole id. I juust want single href! alert(valueSelected); return false; }); <div id="message"> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location A</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location B</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location C</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location D</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location E</a> <br/> </div>

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  • conditional update records mysql query

    - by Shakti Singh
    Hi, Is there any single msql query which can update customer DOB? I want to update the DOB of those customers which have DOB greater than current date. example:- if a customer have dob 2034 update it to 1934 , if have 2068 updated with 1968. There was a bug in my system if you enter date less than 1970 it was storing it as 2070. The bug is solved now but what about the customers which have wrong DOB. So I have to update their DOB. All customers are stored in customer_entity table and the entity_id is the customer_id Details is as follows:- desc customer_entity -> ; +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_set_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | website_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | email | varchar(255) | NO | MUL | | | | group_id | smallint(3) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | increment_id | varchar(50) | NO | | | | | store_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | 0 | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | is_active | tinyint(1) unsigned | NO | | 1 | | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 11 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the DOB is stored in the customer_entity_datetime table the column value contain the DOB. but in this table values of all other attribute are also stored such as fname,lname etc. So the attribute_id with value 11 is DOB attribute. mysql> desc customer_entity_datetime; +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | value_id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | value | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) Thanks.

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  • Why is curl in Ruby slower than command-line curl?

    - by Stiivi
    I am trying to download more than 1m pages (URLs ending by a sequence ID). I have implemented kind of multi-purpose download manager with configurable number of download threads and one processing thread. The downloader downloads files in batches: curl = Curl::Easy.new batch_urls.each { |url_info| curl.url = url_info[:url] curl.perform file = File.new(url_info[:file], "wb") file << curl.body_str file.close # ... some other stuff } I have tried to download 8000 pages sample. When using the code above, I get 1000 in 2 minutes. When I write all URLs into a file and do in shell: cat list | xargs curl I gen all 8000 pages in two minutes. Thing is, I need it to have it in ruby code, because there is other monitoring and processing code. I have tried: Curl::Multi - it is somehow faster, but misses 50-90% of files (does not download them and gives no reason/code) multiple threads with Curl::Easy - around the same speed as single threaded Why is reused Curl::Easy slower than subsequent command line curl calls and how can I make it faster? Or what I am doing wrong? I would prefer to fix my download manager code than to make downloading for this case in a different way. Before this, I was calling command-line wget which I provided with a file with list of URLs. Howerver, not all errors were handled, also it was not possible to specify output file for each URL separately when using URL list. Now it seems to me that the best way would be to use multiple threads with system call to 'curl' command. But why when I can use directly Curl in Ruby? Code for the download manager is here, if it might help: Download Manager (I have played with timeouts, from not-setting it to various values, it did not seem help) Any hints appreciated.

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • Excel CSV into Nested Dictionary; List Comprehensions

    - by victorhooi
    heya, I have a Excel CSV files with employee records in them. Something like this: mail,first_name,surname,employee_id,manager_id,telephone_number [email protected],john,smith,503422,503423,+65(2)3423-2433 [email protected],george,brown,503097,503098,+65(2)3423-9782 .... I'm using DictReader to put this into a nested dictionary: import csv gd_extract = csv.DictReader(open('filename 20100331 original.csv'), dialect='excel') employees = dict([(row['employee_id'], row) for row in gp_extract]) Is the above the proper way to do it - it does work, but is it the Right Way? Something more efficient? Also, the funny thing is, in IDLE, if I try to print out "employees" at the shell, it seems to cause IDLE to crash (there's approximately 1051 rows). 2. Remove employee_id from inner dict The second issue issue, I'm putting it into a dictionary indexed by employee_id, with the value as a nested dictionary of all the values - however, employee_id is also a key:value inside the nested dictionary, which is a bit redundant? Is there any way to exclude it from the inner dictionary? 3. Manipulate data in comprehension Thirdly, we need do some manipulations to the imported data - for example, all the phone numbers are in the wrong format, so we need to do some regex there. Also, we need to convert manager_id to an actual manager's name, and their email address. Most managers are in the same file, while others are in an external_contractors CSV, which is similar but not quite the same format - I can import that to a separate dict though. Are these two items things that can be done within the single list comprehension, or should I use a for loop? Or does multiple comprehensions work? (sample code would be really awesome here). Or is there a smarter way in Python do it? Cheers, Victor

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • Javascript : Submitting a form outside the actual form doesn't work

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hello all, I'm trying to achieve a fairly easy triggering mechanism for deleting multiple items from a tablegrid. If a user has enough access he/she is able to delete multiple users from a table. In the table I have set up checkboxes, one per row/user. The name of the checkboxes is UsersToDeletep[], and the value per row is the unique UserID. When a user clicks the button 'Delete selected users' a simple validation takes place to make sure at least one checkbox is selected. After that I call my simple function Submit(form). The function works perfectly when called within the form-tags, where I also use it to delete a single user. The function: function Submit(form) { document.forms[form].submit(); } I've also alerted document.forms[form]. The result is, as expected [object HTMLFormElement]. But for some reason the form just won't submit and a pagereload takes place. I'm a bit confused and can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance! Ben

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

    - by javafueled
    I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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  • preg_match_all and newlines inside quotes

    - by David
    Another noob regex problem/question. I'm probably doing something silly so I thought I'd exploit the general ingenuity of the SO regulars ;) Trying to match newlines but only if they occur within either double quotes or single quotes. I also want to catch strings that are between quotes but contain no newlines. Okay so there's what i got, with output. Below that, will be the output I would like to get. Any help would be greatly appreciated! :) I use Regex Coach to help me create my patterns, being a novice and all. According to RC, The pattern I supply does match all occurances within the data, but in my PHP, it skips over the multi-line part. I have tried with the 'm' pattern modifier already, to no avail. Contents of $CompressedData: <?php $Var = "test"; $Var2 = "test2"; $Var3 = "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah"; $Var4 = "hello"; ?> Pattern / Code: preg_match_all('!(\'|")(\b.*\b\n*)*(\'|")!', $CompressedData, $Matches); Current print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "hello" ) ... } DESIRED print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah" [3] => "hello" ) ... }

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  • JQuery UI Tabs: Apply opacity toggle to only specific inner element?

    - by Kerri
    I am using Jquery UI tabs, and have it set to toggle the opacity with each slide change. I'm wondering if there's a way to apply the opacity toggle to only a single element within each tab, instead of the entire tab. My understanding of jQuery is pretty basic, so bear with me. So, If I have something like this: <div id="tabs"> <ul id="tabs-nav><li></li></ul> <div id="tab-1"> <img /> <p /> </div> <div id="tab-2"> <img /> <p /> </div> ...etc </div> How could I set it so that only the <img> has an effect applied, and the rest just switches normally? Here are the basics of the call I have for UI tabs: var $tabs = $('#slides').tabs({fx: { opacity: 'toggle' } }); $(".ui-tabs-panel").each(function(i){ //stuff to create previous/next links }); $('.next-tab, .prev-tab').click(function() { $tabs.tabs('select', $(this).attr("rel")); return false; });

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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