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  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

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  • Please suggest other ways of communicating between server & client.

    - by Geo
    I'm writing a TCP chat server ( programming language does not mather ). It's a school project for my nephew, so it won't be released, and all questions I'm asking are just for my knowledge :). . Some of the things it will support: chatting between users ( doh ), it will be multithreaded sending each other files I know I could easily get away with all the stuff above if I go with serialization, and just send objects from client to server and back. But, if I do that, it will be limited to a specific programming language ( meaning clients written in other programming languages may not be able to deserialize the objects ). What would be the way to go so that other clients written in other languages could be supported? One way to go, off the top of my head, would be to go in this direction: the server & the client communicate by sending messages & chunks ( in lieu of other names ). Here's what I mean by this: every time the client/server wants to send something ( text message or file ) it will first send a simple text message ( newline terminated ) with the number of the chunks it will send. Example: command 4,20,30,40,50 Where command would be something like instant-message or file,4 would be the number of chunks to be sent, 20 would be the size in bytes of the first chunk, 30 of the 2nd, and so forth. after the message was sent, the client/server will start sending chunks ( of sizes mentioned in the sent message ). What do you think about implementing the client/server communication this way? What better options are there?

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  • Getting the eventargs of registered events

    - by Bjorn Vdkerckhove
    i'm new with maps and openlayers, but i'm playing around with openlayers because i'll need mapfunctionality in my next project. The map is an image (because it's a drawn map of a medieval town). I found how i can register events, and it's working. But the problem is, that the "eventargs" is not working as in the examples i found. In one of the examples they are getting the x and y values after the users panned like this: map.events.register('moveend', map, function (e) { alert(e.xy); }); If i try this in visual studio, e doesn't have a 'xy' property. What am i missing? This is the code i have right now: <script type="text/javascript"> var map, layer; function init() { var windowHeight = $(window).height(); var windowWidth = $(window).width(); var mapdiv = $('#map'); mapdiv.css({width: windowWidth + 'px', height: windowHeight + 'px'}); map = new OpenLayers.Map('map', { maxResolution: 1000 }); layer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Image( 'Globe ESA', '[url]', new OpenLayers.Bounds(-180.0, -12333.5, 21755.5, 90.0), new OpenLayers.Size(windowWidth, windowHeight), { numZoomLevels: 100 }); map.addLayer(layer); nav = new OpenLayers.Control.Navigation(); map.addControl(nav); //events test map.events.register('moveend', map, function (e) { alert(e.xy); }); map.zoomToMaxExtent(); } </script> In the examples of openlayer, they don't use the eventargs, but there must be a way to get the zoomlevel, or the x and y after panning, right? Thank you!

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  • Windows Form UserControl design time properties

    - by Raffaeu
    I am struggling with a UserControl. I have a UserControl that represent a Pager and it has a Presenter object property exposed in this way: [Browsable(false)] [DesignSerializationAttribute(DesignSerializationAttribute.Hidden)] public object Presenter { get; set; } The code itself works as I can drag and drop a control into a Windows From without having Visual Studio initializing this property. Now, because in the Load event of this control I call a method of the Presenter that at run-time is null ... I have introduced this additional code: public override void OnLoad(...) { if (this.DesignMode) { base.OnLoad(e); return; } presenter.OnViewReady(); } Now, every time I open a Window that contains this UserControl, Visual Studio modifies the Windows designer code. So, as soon as I open it, VS ask me if I want to save it ... and of course, if I add a control to the Window, it doesn't keep the changes ... As soon as I remove the UserControl Pager the problem disappears ... How should I tackle that in the proper way? I just don't want that the presenter property is initialized at design time as it is injected at runtime ...

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  • Cannot understand the behaviour of dotnet compiler while instantiating a class thru interface(C#)

    - by Newbie
    I have a class that impelemnts an interface. The interface is public interface IRiskFactory { void StartService(); void StopService(); } The class that implements the interface is public class RiskFactoryService : IRiskFactory { } Now I have a console application and one window service. From the console application if I write the following code static void Main(string[] args) { IRiskFactory objIRiskFactory = new RiskFactoryService(); objIRiskFactory.StartService(); Console.ReadLine(); objIRiskFactory.StopService(); } It is working fine. However, when I mwrite the same piece of code in Window service public partial class RiskFactoryService : ServiceBase { IRiskFactory objIRiskFactory = null; public RiskFactoryService() { InitializeComponent(); objIRiskFactory = new RiskFactoryService(); <- ERROR } /// <summary> /// Starts the service /// </summary> /// <param name="args"></param> protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { objIRiskFactory.StartService(); } /// <summary> /// Stops the service /// </summary> protected override void OnStop() { objIRiskFactory.StopService(); } } It throws error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'RiskFactoryService' to 'IRiskFactory'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) When I type casted to the interface type, it started working objIRiskFactory = (IRiskFactory)new RiskFactoryService(); My question is why so? Thanks.(C#)

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  • managedObjectContext question...

    - by treasure
    Hello, I have an app which is a UITabBarController, I have defined two subviews Both tabs have their Class attribute in the Identity Inspector set to UINavigationController. Now i have managed to get this far with my coding after VERY LONG trials. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myAppDelegate *appDelegate = (myAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; { NSError *error = nil; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; NSEntityDescription *entityDesc = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; // replace the old data with new. this DOESNT WORK if (fetchedItems.count > 0) { Usr *newUsr; for (newUsr in fetchedItems) { if ([newUsr.name isEqualToString:@"Line One"]) { newUsr.uName = @"Line One (new)"; } } } //add a new default data. THIS ADDS DATA TO MY TABLEVIEW BUT IT DOESNT SAVE THEM TO THE SQLITE User *addedDefaultdata = nil; addedDefaultdata = [[User alloc] initWithEntity:entityDesc insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; addedDefaultdata.name = @"Added new 1"; [addedDefaultdata release]; } NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } and my appdelegate looks like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [application setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackOpaque]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } now I cannot quire the "User" at all! although i get no errors or warnings! Any suggestions would be much appreciated! Thanks

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  • Shell Script Variable Quoting Problem

    - by apinstein
    I have an sh script that contains the line $PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();' I can not edit this script, but I need the eventual command line to be (equivalent to) php -d include_path='/path/with spaces/dir' -r 'echo get_include_path();' How can I achieve this? Below is a script that demonstrates the problem. #!/bin/sh # shell script quoting problem demonstration # I need to be able to set a shell variable with a command with # some options, like so PHP_COMMAND="php -d 'include_path=/path/with spaces/dir'" # then use PHP_COMMAND to run something in another script, like this: $PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();' # the above fails when executed. However, if you copy/paste the output # from this line and run it in the CLI, it works! echo "$PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();'" php -d include_path='/path/with spaces/dir' -r 'echo get_include_path();' # what's going on? # this is also interesting echo "\n--------------------" # this works great, but only works if include_path doesn't need quoting PHP_COMMAND="php -d include_path=/path/to/dir" echo "$PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();'" $PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();' echo "\n--------------------" # this one doesn't when run in the sh script, but again if you copy/paste # the output it does work as expected. PHP_COMMAND="php -d 'include_path=/path/to/dir'" echo "$PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();'" $PHP_COMMAND -r 'echo get_include_path();' Script also available online: http://gist.github.com/276500

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  • Make form redirect users after posting

    - by Liso22
    I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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  • Writing own Unix shell in C - Problems with PATH and execv

    - by user1287523
    I'm writing my own shell in C. It needs to be able to display the users current directory, execute commands based on the full path (must use execv), and allow the user to change the directory with cd. This IS homework. The teacher only gave us a basic primer on C and a very brief skeleton on how the program should work. Since I'm not one to give up easily I've been researching how to do this for three days, but now I'm stumped. This is what I have so far: Displays the user's username, computername, and current directory (defaults to home directory). Prompts the user for input, and gets the input Splits the user's input by " " into an array of arguments Splits the environment variable PATH by ":" into an array of tokens I'm not sure how to proceed from here. I know I've got to use the execv command but in my research on google I haven't really found an example I understand. For instance, if the command is bin/ls, how does execv know the display all files/folders from the home directory? How do I tell the system I changed the directory? I've been using this site a lot which has been helpful: http://linuxgazette.net/111/ramankutty.html but again, I'm stumped. Thanks for your help. Let me know if I should post some of my existing code, I'm wasn't sure if it was necessary though.

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  • Sharepoint page menu items gone?

    - by Richard
    I'm running MOSS 2007 and have created a new site under an existing one using sitemanager.aspx. I've done this on two machines. on one of those everything works correctly, while on the other some of the menu items for pages in the site seem to be gone. Also on the faulty site I get "Access denied" when I click "Version history". The permissions on both sites should be the same. I attach a screenshot of how the menus differ from each other. The one to the right (the faulty one) is unfortunately not in English but the items appearing on it are "Open link in a new window", "Copy", "Edit page settings" and "Version history". "View properties" and some more items are missing! What could have caused this? Screenshot: I'm running MOSS 2007 and have created a new site under an existing one using sitemanager.aspx. I've done this on two machines. on one of those everything works correctly, while on the other some of the menu items for pages in the site seem to be gone. Also on the faulty site I get "Access denied" when I click "Version history". The permissions on both sites should be the same. I attach a screenshot of how the menus differ from each other. The one to the right (the faulty one) is unfortunately not in English but the items appearing on it are "Open link in a new window", "Copy", "Edit page settings" and "Version history". "View properties" and some more items are missing! What could have caused this? Screenshot: hxxp://i40.tinypic.com/302naxx.jpg

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  • Redirect To Another Site With Header Information Attached Javascript

    - by Nick LaMarca
    I am trying to make a client side click and redirect to another site with header information added, my client side code for the onclick is this: function selectApp(appGUID, userId ,embedUrl) { if(embedUrl==="") { var success = setAppGUID(appGUID); window.location.replace('AppDetail.aspx'); } else { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: embedUrl, contentType: "text/html", beforeSend: function (xhr, settings) { xhr.setRequestHeader("UserId", userId); }, success: function (msg) { //go to slx window.location.replace(embedUrl); } }); } } And the server side code in "embedUrl" is protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string isSet = (String)HttpContext.Current.Session["saveUserID"]; if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(isSet)) { NameValueCollection headers = base.Request.Headers; for (int i = 0; i < headers.Count; i++) { if (headers.GetKey(i).Equals("UserId")) { HttpContext.Current.Session["saveUserID"] = headers.Get(i); } } } else { TextBox1.Text = HttpContext.Current.Session["saveUserID"].ToString(); } } This seems to work but its not too elegant. Is there a way to redirect with header data? Without (what Im doing) Saving header info in a session var then doing a redirect in 2 seperate pieces.

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  • Increase content size of UIWebView using Javascript

    - by Sam
    Hi folks, I have a translucent toolbar over the bottom of my UIWebView. The trouble is, if there is a link at the bottom of the page, I can't press it because the webview will always bounce back down to the bottom. I don't want to shrink the webview and use a solid colour toolbar, and UIWebViews interface doesn't open much up. What I would like to do, ideally, is to actually increase the size of the web page by one toolbar height, so that I can scroll that extra bit and have all the content above the toolbar, but when scrolling down I will be able to see the page content through the toolbar. I could use the stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: function of UIWebView. I'm very rusty on JavaScript- is it possible for me to do this? Increase the window height or something? I tried: [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"window.resizeBy(0,%d);", TOOLBAR_HEIGHT] ]; but it didn't do anything. Any pointers welcome. Thanks.

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  • Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Forcing size of a complex Flash object.

    - by John
    As I've found recently, setting width/height properties on a Sprite only forces the Sprite to fit the given dimensions by scaling the actual size, which is calculated by Flash based on the rendered content. This leaves me confused. If I have a custom Sprite subclass which draws using Graphics, how can I do layout before an initial render - the size will be zero until it is first drawn? For a more complex issue, let's say I have a 2D game world with objects spread over a wide area with world coordinates from (0,0) to (5000,5000), where each object has a size of maybe up to 100x100. I want to have a Flash component which is the "game window", and has a fixed size like 400x300, rendering part of the game world. So how do I force the game window size to 400x300 pixels? I can draw a 400x300 rectangle to get the size correct but then if I draw any objects which are partly in-view, they can screw this up. Is the right approach to provide a custom setSize(w,h) method which is used rather than width & height setters? But even so, is there no way to make a Sprite force to the size I want? Do you really have to catch it every render and re-scale it?

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  • JavaScript Key Codes

    - by Jonathan Wood
    I'm working with a JavaScript routine I didn't write. It is called from a text box's onkeydown attribute to prevent unwanted keystrokes. The first argument is apparently not used. The second argument is a list of characters that should be allowed. function RestrictChars(evt, chars) { var key; var keychar; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; else if (e) key = e.which; else return true; keychar = String.fromCharCode(key); if ((key == null) || (key == 0) || (key == 8) || (key == 9) || (key == 13) || (key == 27)) // Control key return true; else if (((chars).indexOf(keychar) > -1)) return true; else return false; } This seems to work for alpha-numeric characters. However, characters such as . and / cause this function to return false, even when these characters are included in the chars parameter. For example, if the . key is pressed, key is set to 190, and keychar gets set to the "3/4" character. Can anyone see how this was meant to work and/or why it doesn't? I don't know enough about JavaScript to see what it's trying to do.

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  • Switching between 2 UINavigationControllers

    - by Smikey
    Hi all, I seem to have a problem switching between 2 UINavigationControllers, i.e. one which controls the main (selection) menu of my application, and the second which controls the main session (i.e. the user can't go back to the selection menu once they're started a new session). The first works just fine, but I get into trouble when trying to load the second. I have a class called GameViewController which contains the second UINavigationController instance. I set this up as usual, linking it as an IBOutlet to the delegate and setting up the NavController in the GameViewController.xib file with its 'Class' property pointing at GameScreenViewController (my main game screen), and its NIB Name property pointing to the GameScreenViewController nib file. I then create a new instance of GameViewController and load it. In IB, the navigation controller looks fine, with its View 'loaded from "GameScreenViewController"', however when the NavigationController is loaded in the game, it actually loads the GameViewController's UIWindow instance (just a blank window). I'm not sure how to make it load the Navigation Controller's view rather than its own window? Also, another quick question. When I load the second navigation controller from the first, which makes more sense to use: [self.view addSubview:gameViewController.view]; or [self presentModalViewController:gameViewController animated:YES]; Thanks for any help, much appreciated :D Michael

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  • parsing ssid with iwconfig in c

    - by user1781595
    I am about building a bar for DWM (ubuntu linux), showing wifi details such as the ssid. Thats my code: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { FILE *fp; int status; char path[1035]; /* Open the command for reading. */ fp = popen("iwconfig", "r"); if (fp == NULL) { printf("Failed to run command\n" ); exit; } char s[500]; /* Read the output a line at a time - output it. */ while (fgets(path, sizeof(path)-1, fp) != NULL) { sprintf(s,"%s%s",s, path); } //printf("%s",s); /* close */ pclose(fp); char delimiter[1] = "s"; char *ptr; ptr = strtok(s, delimiter); printf("SSID: %s\n", ptr); return 0; } i am getting overflowerrors and dont know what to do. I dont think, thats a good way to get the ssid either... :/ Suggestions?

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  • SQL Server Connection Timeout C#

    - by Termin8tor
    First off I'd like to let everyone know I have searched my particular problem and can't seem to find what's causing my problem. I have an SQL Server 2008 instance running on a network machine and a client I have written connecting to it. To connect I have a small segment of code that establishes a connection to an sql server 2008 instance and returns a DataTable populated with the results of whatever query I run against the server, all pretty standard stuff really. Anyway the issue is, whenever I open my program and call this method, upon the first call to my method, regardless as to what I've set my Connection Timeout value as in the connection string, it takes about 15 seconds and then times out. Bizarrely though the second or third call I make to the method will work without a problem. I have opened up the ports for SQL Server on the server machine as outlined in this article: How to Open firewall ports for SQL Server and verified that it is correctly configured. Can anyone see a particular problem in my code? string _connectionString = "Server=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlServer + "; Initial Catalog=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlInitialCatalog + ";User Id=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlUsername + ";Password=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlPassword + "; Connection Timeout=1"; private DataTable ExecuteSqlStatement(string command) { using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { try { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataAdapter adaptor = new SqlDataAdapter(command, conn)) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); adaptor.Fill(table); return table; } } catch (SqlException e) { throw e; } } } The SqlException that is caught at my catch is : "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." This occurs at the conn.Open(); line in the code snippet I have included. If anyone has any ideas that'd be great!

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  • How to automatically extend the tab control as items are added to it without creating a scroll bar?

    - by MICHELINE
    I am using a WPF user control (tab control) to add tab items dynamically in the simplified code below: .... foreach (string id in ids) { TabControl.Items.Add(CreateTabItem(id)); } private TabItem CreateTabItem(string name) { StackPanel txtBlock = new TextBlock(); txtblock.Text = name; txtBlock.HorizontalAlignment = Horizontalalignment.Center; panel.Children.Add(txtBlock); TabItem item = new TabItem(); item.Header = panel; <SomeControl> control = new <SomeControl>(); item.Content = control; return item; } In the xaml file I specified the following to stack all my tab items to the left column: MinWidth="100" MinHeight="300" TabStripPlacement="Left" How do I make my tab control automatically extending (ie. stretching) its height to show all the tab items as I add them in? For now, I have to manually extend the height of the display window to see all the tab items. Your insights/tips are greatly appreciated. PS: if you know how to make the vertical scroll bar appears (without adding scroll bar to my control) as soon as the tab items exceed the window height, I can settle for that if there are no answers for my original intent.

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  • Image on mouseover takes space on PageLoad.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I am trying to show an image on Mouseover and hide it on Mouseout. I am successful in mouseover and mouseout but the image is actually taking the space around the text though i have visibility as hidden.. The text is surrounded with the space of image but the image is displayed on mouseover. Here is the code: <td valign="middle" class="table_td td top" style="width: 347px"> <div id="Style16" style="position:relative; height:100%; left:50%; bottom:700%; visibility:hidden; border:solid 0px #CCC; padding:5px"><img src="images/window-decal-image.gif"></div> <span class="feature_text" style="cursor:pointer" onmouseover="ShowPicture('Style16',1)" onmouseout="ShowPicture('Style16',0)" id="a16">Storefront Window Decal</span> <span class="feature_text_small">(5"x3.5" double sided decal)</span></td> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function ShowPicture(id,Source) { var vis, elem; if (1 == Source) { vis = "visible"; } else if (0 == Source) { vis = "hidden"; } else { throw new RangeError("Unknown Flag"); } if (elem = document.getElementById(id)) { elem.style.visibility = vis; } else { throw new TypeError("Element with id '"+id+"' does not exist."); } return vis; } </script>

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  • How to append query parametr @runtime using jquery

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, Through javascript I am appending one query parameter to the page url and I am facing one strange behaiviour <div> <a href="Default3.aspx?id=2">Click me</a> </div> $(function () { window.location.href = window.location.href + "&q=" + "aa"; }); Now I am appending &q in default3.aspx and in this page the &q is getting added continuously I mean the url become http://localhost:1112/WebSite2/Default3.aspx?id=2&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa one would say just pass it like <a href="Default3.aspx?id=2&q=aa">Click me</a> but I cant do that , value of this query parameter is actually value of an html element which is in default3.aspx..I have to add it in run time. what are the ways to achieve this. Thanks.

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  • Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

    - by Derrek
    I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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  • Responsive: two different toggles on same element

    - by Mathijs Delva
    I'm having difficulties with the following problem. For a responsive website, i need to use the same toggle element for both a toggle system for one window width, and another toggle system for a second window width. I have the following snippets: 1.A simple hover for a language dropdown, which should be executed for resolutions greater than 980px. $('#clickme').hover(function() { $(this).parent().find("#select-language").show(); $(this).find("> a span").css({"opacity":"0.5"}); }, function() { $(this).parent().find("#select-language").hide(); $(this).find("> a span").css({"opacity":"1"}); }); 2.A simple click for the same language toggle, which should be executed for resolutions smaller than 980px. jQuery('#clickme').click(function() { jQuery("#select-language-mobile").slideToggle("fast"); }); I need to nest these two, so that when the user is viewing the website in one resolution, the click function with be fired, and in the other case the hover function. Can anybody help me with this? PS: I'm sorry, but the code blocks don't seem to work at the moment.

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  • JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

    - by Benj
    When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

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  • Linux: Find all symlinks of a given 'original' file? (reverse 'readlink')

    - by sdaau
    Hi all, Consider the following command line snippet: $ cd /tmp/ $ mkdir dirA $ mkdir dirB $ echo "the contents of the 'original' file" > orig.file $ ls -la orig.file -rw-r--r-- 1 $USER $USER 36 2010-12-26 00:57 orig.file # create symlinks in dirA and dirB that point to /tmp/orig.file: $ ln -s $(pwd)/orig.file $(pwd)/dirA/ $ ln -s $(pwd)/orig.file $(pwd)/dirB/lorig.file $ ls -la dirA/ dirB/ dirA/: total 44 drwxr-xr-x 2 $USER $USER 4096 2010-12-26 00:57 . drwxrwxrwt 20 root root 36864 2010-12-26 00:57 .. lrwxrwxrwx 1 $USER $USER 14 2010-12-26 00:57 orig.file -> /tmp/orig.file dirB/: total 44 drwxr-xr-x 2 $USER $USER 4096 2010-12-26 00:58 . drwxrwxrwt 20 root root 36864 2010-12-26 00:57 .. lrwxrwxrwx 1 $USER $USER 14 2010-12-26 00:58 lorig.file -> /tmp/orig.file At this point, I can use readling to see what is the 'original' (well, I guess the usual term here is either 'target' or 'source', but those in my mind can be opposite concepts as well, so I'll just call it 'original') file of the symlinks, i.e. $ readlink -f dirA/orig.file /tmp/orig.file $ readlink -f dirB/lorig.file /tmp/orig.file ... However, what I'd like to know is - is there a command I could run on the 'original' file, and find all the symlinks that point to it? In other words, something like (pseudo): $ getsymlinks /tmp/orig.file /tmp/dirA/orig.file /tmp/dirB/lorig.file Thanks in advance for any comments, Cheers!

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