Search Results

Search found 37654 results on 1507 pages for 'function prototypes'.

Page 594/1507 | < Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601  | Next Page >

  • Redirect Output of Capistrano

    - by Eric Lubow
    I have a Capistrano deploy file (Capfile) that is rather large, contains a few namespaces and generally has a lot of information already in it. My ultimate goal is, using the Tinder gem, paste the output of the entire deployment into Campfire. I have Tinder setup properly already. I looked into using the Capistrano capture method, but that only works for the first host. Additionally that would be a lot of work to go through and add something like: output << capture 'foocommand' Specifically, I am looking to capture the output of any deployment from that file into a variable (in addition to putting it to STDOUT so I can see it), then pass that output in the variable into a function called notify_campfire. Since the notify_campfire function is getting called at the end of a task (every task regardless of the namespace), it should have the task name available to it and the output (which is stored in that output variable). Any thoughts on how to accomplish this would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Php, socket and connecting to pop3-server

    - by Ockonal
    Hi guys, I'm trying to connect to the pop3-server with php. Here is my code: $pop3Server = 'mail.roller.ru'; $pop_conn = fsockopen($pop3Server, 110, $errno, $errstr, 10); print fgets($pop_conn, 1024); Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Temporary failure in name resolution in /home/ockonal/public_html/mail_parser.php on line 45 Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to mail.roller.ru:110 (php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Temporary failure in name resolution) in /home/ockonal/public_html/mail_parser.php on line 45 Warning: fgets() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in /home/ockonal/public_html/mail_parser.php on line 46 What's wrong? I'm sure in pop3-server address. It doesn't print anything.

    Read the article

  • Rotation Interpolation

    - by Rob
    Hello, NB: I'll present this question in degrees purely for simplicity, radians, degrees, different zero-bearing, the problem is essentially the same. Does anyone have any ideas on the code behind rotational interpolation? Given a linear interpolation function: Lerp(from, to, amount), where amount is 0...1 which returns a value between from and to, by amount. How could I apply this same function to a rotational interpolation between 0 and 360 degrees? Given that degrees should not be returned outside 0 and 360. Given this unit circle for degrees: where from = 45 and to = 315, the algorithm should take the shortest path to the angle, i.e. it should go through zero, to 360 and then to 315 - and not all the way round 90, 180, 270 to 315. Is there a nice way to achieve this? Or is it going to just be a horrid mess of if() blocks? Am I missing some well understood standard way of doing this? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do you implement file drag-and-drop upload in Google Chrome?

    - by Chris R
    I've found several tutorials online about implementing file drag/drop with Firefox 3.6 (they involve using a FileReader object to get the file binary data). However, I cannot create a FileReader object in Chrome on Windows or Mac. Does anyone know what the API is to read and manipulate data from a drag-and-dropped file in Chrome? If I can get the binary data of the file, I already have the rest of the code to perform the upload. Note: I've also tried using the getAsBinary() function call on the file object of the drag event (event.dataTransfer.file) but I believe that is a Mozilla-specific function and not implemented in Chrome. Also, I'm not interested in a solution using google gears or one that requires a user to select files from a dialog. I'm specifically trying to implement a drag-and-drop file upload.

    Read the article

  • How do you get the glyph for a character encoded as '&#333;' from a utf-8 encoded database field usi

    - by AE
    I have a MySQL database table with a collation of 'utf8_general_ci' and the value in the field is: x & #299; bán yá wén (without the spaces). When this is converted (for example by StackOverflow's editor) it looks like this: xī bán yá wén where the second character looks like a lower case i with a bar over the top. In PHP, what function converts the & #299 ; entity into the ī character? I've tried using html_entity_decode($str,ENT_COMPAT,'UTF-8'), however I get characters like the following: yÄ«n wén or zhÅ•ng wén I'm pretty sure there's something I don't understand about the decoding, which is why I'm using the wrong function. Can anyone shed some light on how to get the single character glyph that's represented by the entity & #299 and similar high-number characters above 255? Many thanks, AE

    Read the article

  • How to set Source of s:BitmapFill dinamicaly? (FLASH BUILDER, CODE INSIDE)

    - by Ole Jak
    In Flash Builder (flex 4) I try to use next code to set selected by user (from file system) Image as a repeated background. It worked with mx:Image but I want to use cool repited capabiletis of s:BitmapFill. BTW: Technic I use also does not work with S:BitmapImage. Also FP does not return any errors. What Shall I do with my code to make it work? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" xmlns:net="flash.net.*" minWidth="955" minHeight="600" > <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.utils.ObjectUtil; private function btn_click(evt:MouseEvent):void { var arr:Array = []; arr.push(new FileFilter("Images", ".gif;*.jpeg;*.jpg;*.png")); fileReference.browse(arr); } private function fileReference_select(evt:Event):void { fileReference.load(); } private function fileReference_complete(evt:Event):void { img.source = fileReference.data; Alert.show(ObjectUtil.toString(fileReference)); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <net:FileReference id="fileReference" select="fileReference_select(event);" complete="fileReference_complete(event);" /> </fx:Declarations> <s:Rect id="backgroundRect" left="0" right="0" top="0" bottom="0"> <s:fill> <s:BitmapFill id="img" source="@Embed('1.jpg')" fillMode="repeat" /> </s:fill> </s:Rect> <mx:Button id="btn" label="Browse and preview..." click="btn_click(event);" /> </s:Application> Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • jquery noConflict not working in IE8 only

    - by slik
    I have a website using the prootype framework and I am looking to use a jquery plugin. Everything works just not in IE8. It works in ie7 which amazes me. Any idea what maybe wrong? jQuery.noConflict(); function OpenUp(sURL){ window.open(sURL,null,'height=560,width=820,status=yes,toolbar=yes,menubar=yes,location=yes,resizable=yes,scrollbars=yes',false); } jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("head").append("<link>"); css = $("head").children(":last"); css.attr({ rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: "/my/docs/jquery.simplyscroll.css" }); $("#scroller").simplyScroll({ autoMode: 'loop', framerate: 1, speed: 1 }); }); I also tired the following: var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); var j = jQuery.noConflict(); everythig works just not in IE8 alone.

    Read the article

  • How can I hide tracing code in Visual Studio IDE C# ?

    - by Mark
    As I'm starting to put more tracing in my code, i'm realizing it adds a lot of clutter. I know Visual Studio allows you to hide and reveal code, however, i'd like to be able group code into "tracing" code and then hide it and reveal at will as i'm reading the code. I suppose it could do this either per file or per class or per function. Is there any way to do this? What do you guys do? Adding some clarification The hide current feature kind of allows you to do this except that when the code is hidden, you can't tell if its tracing or not. You also can't say "hide all tracing code" and "reveal all tracing code" which is useful when reading a function depending on what you are trying to do.

    Read the article

  • If the UIApplicationMain() never returns then when does the autorelease pool gets released?

    - by sid
    For code: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; int retVal = UIApplicationMain(argc, argv, nil, nil); [pool release]; return retVal; } Apple's doc clearly specifies: Return Value: Even though an integer return type is specified, this function never returns. When users terminate an iPhone application by pressing the Home button, the application immediately exits by calling the exit system function with an argument of zero. Secondly, in int UIApplicationMain ( int argc, char *argv[], NSString *principalClassName, NSString *delegateClassName ); how can we access the argv from our UIApplication subclass?

    Read the article

  • Simple Custom rule for Jquery validator

    - by thatweblook
    Hi, I read your reply regarding the jQuery validator where you outline a method to check a username against a value in a database. Ive tried implementing this method but no matter what is returned from the PHP file I always get the message that the username is already taken. Here is ths custom method... $.validator.addMethod("uniqueUserName", function(value, element) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/get_save_status.php", data: "checkUsername="+value, dataType:"html", success: function(msg) { // if the user exists, it returns a string "true" if(msg == "true") return false; // already exists return true; // username is free to use } })}, "Username is Already Taken"); And here is the validate code... username: { required: true, uniqueUserName: true }, Is there a specific way i am supposed to return the message from php. Thanks A

    Read the article

  • Jquery Datepicker not selecting the default date

    - by Chirantan
    I have my datepicker set up like this $("#scheduled_date_163").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText, inst) { jQuery.get("/tasks/inplace_edit?id=scheduled_date_163&class_name=Task&value=" + dateText, function(data){ $('#scheduled_date_163').html(data); $('#scheduled_date_163').removeClass('hasDatepicker'); }) } }); $('#scheduled_date_163').datepicker( "option", "defaultDate", $.datepicker.parseDate("d m y", "31 8 2009") ); As you can see the date is hardcoded. It is supposed to be replaced with some code. However, the datepicker refuses to pick the date up! It always shows me the current date. Unable to figure out why. I even tried giving the date in string and +7 etc. But today's date itself is shown as the default date. What could be causing this?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Clear / reset .Queue() ?

    - by Wes
    I have the following code that triggers two functions whenever a button is clicked. However it only fires the functions once. If i click it again, it does nothing. I need to reset this queue so it fires the functions everytime I click the button. Also, I'm only doing this so I can delay the functions from be fired 1000ms - is there another way to do this? $('#play').click(function() { // other code.. $(this).delay(1000).queue(function(){ countHourly(); countFlights() }); });

    Read the article

  • Date javascript object from IE cannot be automatically bound to Datetime in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Sergio
    Hi There, I have a site that uses a jquery calendar to display events. I have noticed than when using the system from within IE (all versions) ASP.NET MVC will fail to bind the datetime to the action that send back the correct events. The sequence of events goes as follows. Calendar posts to server to get events Server ActionMethod accepts start and end date, automatically bound to datetime objects In every browser other than IE the start and end date come through as: Mon, 10 Jan 2011 00:00:00 GMT When IE posts the date, it comes through as Mon, 10 Jan 2011 00:00:00 UTC ASP.NET MVC 2 will then fail to automatically bind this to the action method parameter. Is there a reason why this is happening? The code that posts to the server is as follows: data: function (start, end, callback) { $.post('/tracker/GetTrackerEvents', { start: start.toUTCString(), end: end.toUTCString() }, function (result) { callback(result); }); },

    Read the article

  • Entering and retrieving data from SQLite for an android List View

    - by Infiniti Fizz
    Hi all, I started learning android development a few weeks ago and have gone through the developer.android.com tutorials etc. But now I have a problem. I'm trying to create an app which tracks the usage of each installed app. Therefore I'm pulling the names of all installed apps using the PackageManager and then trying to put them into an SQLite database table. I am using the Notepad Tutorial SQLite implementation but I'm running into some problems that I have tried for days to solve. I have 2 classes, the DBHelper class and the actual ListActivity class. For some reason the app force closes when I try and run my fillDatabase() function which gets all the app names from the PackageManager and tries to put them into the database: private void fillDatabase() { PackageManager manager = this.getPackageManager(); List<ApplicationInfo> appList = manager.getInstalledApplications(0); for(int i = 0; i < appList.size(); i++) { mDbHelper.addApp(manager.getApplicationLabel(appList.get(i)).toString(), 0); } } addApp() is a function defined in my AppsDbHelper class and looks as follows: public long createApp(String name, int usage) { ContentValues initialValues = new ContentValues(); initialValues.put(KEY_NAME, name); initialValues.put(KEY_USAGE, usage); return mDb.insert(DATABASE_TABLE, null, initialValues); } The database create is defined as follows: private static final String DATABASE_CREATE = "create table notes (_id integer primary key autoincrement, " + "title text not null, usage integer not null);"; I have commented out all statements that follow fillDatabase(); in the onCreate() method of the ListActivity and so know that it is definetely the problem but I don't know why. I am taking the appName and putting it into the KEY_NAME field of the row and putting 0 into the KEY_USAGE field of the row (because initially, my app will default the usage of each app to 0 (not used yet)). If my addApp() function doesn't take the usage and just puts KEY_NAME into the ContentValues and into the database, it seems to work fine, but I want a column for usage. Any ideas why it is not working? Have I overlooked something? Thanks for your time, InfinitiFizz

    Read the article

  • how do arguments work with dojo.connect?

    - by sprugman
    I've read the docs, but I must be missing something. I've got a grid, I want to connect to the event that fires when the column headers are clicked for sorting, thus: dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ var grid = dijit.byId("grid"); dojo.connect(grid, "setSortInfo", 'afterSort'); }); function afterSort() { console.info('after sort'); } That works fine as far as it goes. I know the setSortInfo method has an argument which is the column number. How do I get that value? I've tried putting a parameter in the sig for afterSort to no avail. The docs say "the method receives the same arguments as the event", but where are they???

    Read the article

  • How to update a table row with save button using .ajax

    - by Randall
    I have a table which has one row and only one cell will be editable. I have accomplished this with the following code. $("td#effEndDate").click(function() { if (!$(this).hasClass("edit")) { var value = jQuery.trim($(this).html()); $(this).html("<input id=\"txtEdit\" type=\"text\" value=\"" + value + "\" />"); $(this).addClass("edit"); $("#txtEdit").focus(); } }); Now this is the part where i'm stuck. After the field is updated a save button must be clicked to call the proper .ajax method to update the database. But how can I compare the previous value to the current value on a button press? Since i'm not using the onblur property where I could have saved the old value and passed it to the update function.

    Read the article

  • Creating Mock object of Interface with type-hint in method fails on PHPUnit

    - by Mark
    I created the following interface: <?php interface Action { public function execute(\requests\Request $request, array $params); } Then I try to make a Mock object of this interface with PHPUnit 3.4, but I get the following error: Fatal error: Declaration of Mock_Action_b389c0b1::execute() must be compatible with that of Action::execute() in D:\Xampp\xampp\php\PEAR\PHPUnit\Framework\TestCase.php(1121) : eval()'d code on line 2 I looked through the stack trace I got from PHPUnit and found that it creates a Mock object that implements the interface Action, but creates the execute method in the following way: <?php public function execute($request, array $params) As you can see, PHPUnit takes over the array type-hint, but forgets about \requests\Request. Which obviously leads to an error. Does anyone knows a workaround for this error? I also tried it without namespaces, but I still get the same error.

    Read the article

  • combobox dataprovider

    - by FALCONSEYE
    I have the following: <mx:RemoteObject id="myCFC" destination="ColdFusion" source="components.myCFC" showBusyCursor="true"> <mx:method name="getStuff" result="UserHandler(event);"/> </mx:RemoteObject> ... <mx:ComboBox id="propertyCode" dataProvider="{qry_stuff}" labelField="name" /> Index.as has: [Bindable] public var qry_stuff:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection; private function UserHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { qry_stuff= event.result as ArrayCollection; } public function init():void { /* call my remote Object to get my data */ myCFC.getStuff(); } my problem is the combobox displays [object Object] I know there is nothing wrong with the cfc and there is a field called "name" in getStuff. Why does it not display the value of the object? thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Reinforcement learning And POMDP

    - by Betamoo
    I am trying to use Multi-Layer NN to implement probability function in Partially Observable Markov Process.. I thought inputs to the NN would be: current state, selected action, result state; The output is a probability in [0,1] (prob. that performing selected action on current state will lead to result state) In training, I fed the inputs stated before, into the NN, and I taught it the output=1.0 for each case that already occurred. The problem : For nearly all test case the output probability is near 0.95.. no output was under 0.9 ! Even for nearly impossible results, it gave that high prob. PS:I think this is because I taught it happened cases only, but not un-happened ones.. But I can not at each step in the episode teach it the output=0.0 for every un-happened action! Any suggestions how to over come this problem? Or may be another way to use NN or to implement prob function? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Partial overriding in Java (or dynamic overriding while overloading)

    - by Lie Ryan
    If I have a parent-child that defines some method .foo() like this: class Parent { public void foo(Parent arg) { System.out.println("foo in Function"); } } class Child extends Parent { public void foo(Child arg) { System.out.println("foo in ChildFunction"); } } When I called them like this: Child f = new Child(); Parent g = f; f.foo(new Parent()); f.foo(new Child()); g.foo(new Parent()); g.foo(new Child()); the output is: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Parent But, I want this output: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Child I have a Child class that extends Parent class. In the Child class, I want to "partially override" the Parent's foo(), that is, if the argument arg's type is Child then Child's foo() is called instead of Parent's foo(). That works Ok when I called f.foo(...) as a Child; but if I refer to it from its Parent alias like in g.foo(...) then the Parent's foo(..) get called irrespective of the type of arg. As I understand it, what I'm expecting doesn't happen because method overloading in Java is early binding (i.e. resolved statically at compile time) while method overriding is late binding (i.e. resolved dynamically at compile time) and since I defined a function with a technically different argument type, I'm technically overloading the Parent's class definition with a distinct definition, not overriding it. But what I want to do is conceptually "partially overriding" when .foo()'s argument is a subclass of the parent's foo()'s argument. I know I can define a bucket override foo(Parent arg) in Child that checks whether arg's actual type is Parent or Child and pass it properly, but if I have twenty Child, that would be lots of duplication of type-unsafe code. In my actual code, Parent is an abstract class named "Function" that simply throws NotImplementedException(). The children includes "Polynomial", "Logarithmic", etc and .foo() includes things like Child.add(Child), Child.intersectionsWith(Child), etc. Not all combination of Child.foo(OtherChild) are solvable and in fact not even all Child.foo(Child) is solvable. So I'm best left with defining everything undefined (i.e. throwing NotImplementedException) then defines only those that can be defined. So the question is: Is there any way to override only part the parent's foo()? Or is there a better way to do what I want to do?

    Read the article

  • jquerymobile conflict with autocomplete : $this.attr("href") is undefined

    - by sweets-BlingBling
    When I use jquery ui autocomplete version 1.8.5 with jquery mobile alpha 2. I get an error when I click an item from the autocomplete list: $this.attr("href") is undefined. Does anyone know any fix for it? EDITED: <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.custom.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/autocomplete.css"> </head> <body> <div id="formWrap"> <form id="messageForm" action="#"> <fieldset> <label id="toLabel">select:</label> <div id="friends" class="ui-helper-clearfix"> <input id="to" type="text"> </div> </fieldset> </form> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.mobile-1.0a2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ var availableTags = [ "ActionScript", "AppleScript", "Asp", "BASIC", "C", "C++", "Clojure", "COBOL", "ColdFusion", "Erlang", "Fortran", "Groovy", "Haskell", "Java", "JavaScript", "Lisp", "Perl", "PHP", "Python", "Ruby", "Scala", "Scheme" ]; //attach autocomplete $("#to").autocomplete({ source:availableTags , //define select handler select: function(e, ui) { var contact = ui.item.value; createSpan(contact); $("#to").val("").css("top", 2); return false; } }); }); function createSpan(contact){ //create formatted friend span = $("<span>").text(contact) //add contact to contact div span.insertBefore("#to"); } </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How do I do an AJAX post to a url within a class library but not the same IIS Web Application?

    - by Mark Adesina
    I have been working with ajax and there has been no problems below is how my ajax post code look like: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '<%=ResolveUrl("TodoService.asmx/CreateNewToDo")%>', data: jsonData, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", datatype: "json", success: function () { //if (msg.d) { $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_useridHiddenField').val(""); $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_titleTextBox').val(""); $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_destTextBox').val(""); $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_duedateTextBox').val(""); alert('Your todo has been saved'); // } }, error: function (msg) { alert('There was an error processing your request'); } }); However, the problem came up when I try to get the url to a webservice that is located in a class library within the same solution.

    Read the article

  • Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

    - by Dennis Zickefoose
    I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

    Read the article

  • How to use derived class shared variables in shared methods of base class

    - by KoolKabin
    Hi guys, I am trying to add shared members in derived classes and use that values in base classes... I have base class DBLayer public shared function GetDetail(byval UIN as integer) dim StrSql = string.format("select * from {0} where uin = {1}", tablename, uin) .... end function end class my derived class class User inherits dblayer public shared tabledname as string = "users" end class class item inherits dblayer public shared tabledname as string = "item" end class class category inherits dblayer public shared tabledname as string = "category" end class currently there is error using the tablename variable of derived class in base class but i want to use it... coz i dun know other techniques... if other solutions are better then u can post it or u can say how can i make it work? confused...

    Read the article

  • simple jquery callback works on .net3.5 but nothing fires on .net 2.0?

    - by CliffC
    hi i have the following jquery postback method on the client <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="CallServerWithParameters.aspx.cs" Inherits="CallServerWithParameters" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="jquery-1.2.6.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#txtNoOfMales").change(function() { var ticketRequired = this.value; var options = { type: "POST", url: "CallServerWithParameters.aspx/GetAvailableTicketsForMales", data: "{no:'" + ticketRequired + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { if (response.d != "") { alert(response.d); $("#txtNoOfMales").focus(); } } }; //Call the PageMethods $.ajax(options); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> No of Male Tickets:<asp:TextBox ID="txtNoOfMales" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </div> </form> </body> </html> and the following web method on the server side using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Services; public partial class CallServerWithParameters : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public static string GetAvailableTicketsForMales(int no) { string result = ""; int NoOfTicketsAvailable = 5; if (no > NoOfTicketsAvailable) { result = "Only " + NoOfTicketsAvailable.ToString() + " Male ticket(s) avaialable. Please eneter a lower number!"; } return result; } } problem is everything works fine on .net 3.5 but if i use the same code on .net 2.0 the webmethod event does not get call at all, anybody have any idea what i did wrong? thanks updated with full source code

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601  | Next Page >