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  • New cast exception with VS2010/.Net 4

    - by Trevor
    [ Updated 25 May 2010 ] I've recently upgraded from VS2008 to VS2010, and at the same time upgraded to .Net 4. I've recompiled an existing solution of mine and I'm encountering a Cast exception I did not have before. The structure of the code is simple (although the actual implementation somewhat more complicated). Basically I have: public class SomeClass : ISomeClass { // Stuff } public static class ClassFactory { public static IInterface GetClassInstance<IInterface>(Type classType) { return (IInterface)Activator.CreateInstance(classType); // This throws a cast exception } } // Call the factory with: ISomeClass anInstance = ClassFactory.GetClassInstance<ISomeClass>(typeof(SomeClass)); Ignore the 'sensibleness' of the above - its provides just a representation of the issue rather than the specifics of what I'm doing (e.g. constructor parameters have been removed). The marked line throws the exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Namespace.SomeClass' to type 'Namespace.ISomeClass'. I suspect it may have something to do with the additional DotNet security (and in particular, explicit loading of assemblies, as this is something my app does). The reason I suspect this is that I have had to add to the config file the setting: <runtime> <loadFromRemoteSources enabled="true" /> </runtime> .. but I'm unsure if this is related. Update I see (from comments) that my basic code does not reproduce the issue by itself. Not surprising I suppose. It's going to be tricky to identify which part of a largish 3-tier CQS system is relevant to this problem. One issue might be that there are multiple assemblies involved. My static class is actually a factory provider, and the 'SomeClass' is a class factory (relevant in that the factories are 'registered' within the app via explicit assembly/type loading - see below) . Upfront I use reflection to 'register' all factories (i.e. classes that implement a particular interface) and that I do this when the app starts by identifying the relevant assemblies, loading them and adding them to a cache using (in essence): Loop over (file in files) { Assembly assembly = Assembly.LoadFile(file); baseAssemblyList.Add(assembly); } Then I cache the available types in these assemblies with: foreach (Assembly assembly in _loadedAssemblyList) { Type[] assemblyTypes = assembly.GetTypes(); _loadedTypesCache.AddRange(assemblyTypes); } And then I use this cache to do a variety of reflection operations, including 'registering' of factories, which involves looping through all loaded (cached) types and finding those that implement the (base) Factory interface. I've experienced what may be a similar problem in the past (.Net 3.5, so not exactly the same) with an architecture that involved dynamically creating classes on the server and streaming the compiled binary of those classes to the client app. The problem came when trying to deserialize an instance of the dynamic class on the client from a remote call: the exception said the class type was not know, even though the source and destination types were exactly the same name (including namespace). Basically the cross boundry versions of the class were not recognised as being the same. I solved that by intercepting the deserialization process and explicitly defining the deseriazation class type in the context of the local assemblies. This experience is what makes me think the types are considered mismatched because (somehow) the interface of the actual SomeClass object, and the interface of passed into the Generic method are not considered the same type. So (possibly) my question for those more knowledgable about C#/DotNet is: How does the class loading work that somehow my app thinks there are two versions/types of the interface type and how can I fit that? [ whew ... anyone who got here is quite patient .. thanks ]

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  • Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

    - by Greggo
    I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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  • What is GC holes?

    - by tianyi
    I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • How do I pass the value of the previous form element into an "onchange" javascript function?

    - by Jen
    Hello, I want to make some UI improvements to a page I am developing. Specifically, I need to add another drop down menu to allow the user to filter results. This is my current code: HTML file: <select name="test_id" onchange="showGrid(this.name, this.value, 'gettestgrid')"> <option selected>Select a test--></option> <option value=1>Test 1</option> <option value=2>Test 2</option> <option value=3>Test 3</option> </select> This is pseudo code for what I want to happen: <select name="test_id"> <option selected>Select a test--></option> <option value=1>Test 1</option> <option value=2>Test 2</option> <option value=3>Test 3</option> </select> <select name="statistics" onchange="showGrid(PREVIOUS.name, PREVIOUS.VALUE, THIS.value)"> <option selected>Select a data display --></option> <option value='gettestgrid'>Show averages by student</option> <option value='gethomeroomgrid'>Show averages by homeroom</option> <option value='getschoolgrid'>Show averages by school</option> </select> How do I access the previous field's name and value? Any help much appreciated, thx! Also, JS function for reference: function showGrid(name, value, phpfile) { xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp==null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url=phpfile+".php"; url=url+"?"+name+"="+value; url=url+"&sid="+Math.random(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); }

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  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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  • Need Google Map InfoWindow Hyperlink to Open Content in Overlay (Fusion Table Usage)

    - by McKev
    I have the following code established to render the map in my site. When the map is clicked, the info window pops up with a bunch of content including a hyperlink to open up a website with a form in it. I would like to utilize a function like fancybox to open up this link "form" in an overlay. I have read that fancybox doesn't support calling the function from within an iframe, and was wondering if there was a way to pass the link data to the DOM and trigger the fancybox (or another overlay option) in another way? Maybe a callback trick - any tips would be much appreciated! <style> #map-canvas { width:850px; height:600px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script src="http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/src/fusiontips.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var tableid = "1nDFsxuYxr54viD_fuH7fGm1QRZRdcxFKbSwwRjk"; var layer; var initialLocation; var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); var uscenter = new google.maps.LatLng(37.6970, -91.8096); function initialize() { map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map-canvas'), { zoom: 4, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }); layer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "'Geometry'", from: tableid }, map: map }); //http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/docs/reference.html layer.enableMapTips({ select: "'Contact Name','Contact Title','Contact Location','Contact Phone'", from: tableid, geometryColumn: 'Geometry', suppressMapTips: false, delay: 500, tolerance: 8 }); ; // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); //Custom Marker var pinColor = "A83C0A"; var pinImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_letter&chld=%E2%80%A2|" + pinColor, new google.maps.Size(21, 34), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10, 34)); var pinShadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_shadow", new google.maps.Size(40, 37), new google.maps.Point(0, 0), new google.maps.Point(12, 35)); new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, icon: pinImage, shadow: pinShadow }); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } // Browser doesn't support Geolocation else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { //Geolocation service failed initialLocation = uscenter; } else { //Browser doesn't support geolocation initialLocation = uscenter; } map.setCenter(initialLocation); } } google.maps.event.addDomListener(window, 'load', initialize); </script>

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  • manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

    - by Cody
    I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • What's a clean way to have the server return a JavaScript function which would then be invoked?

    - by Khnle
    My application is architected as a host of plug-ins that have not yet been written. There's a long reason for this, but with each new year, the business logic will be different and we don't know what it will be like (Think of TurboTax if that helps). The plug-ins consist of both server and client components. The server components deals with business logic and persisting the data into database tables which will be created at a later time as well. The JavaScript manipulates the DOM for the browsers to render afterward. Each plugin lives in a separate assembly, so that they won't disturb the main application, i.e., we don't want to recompile the main application. Long story short, I am looking for a way to return JavaScript functions to the client from an Ajax get request, and execute these JavaScript functions (which are just returned). Invoking a function in Javascript is easy. The hard part is how to organize or structure so that I won't have to deal with maintenance problem. So concat using StringBuilder to end up with JavaScript code as a result of calling toString() from the string builder object is out of the question. I want to have no difference between writing JavaScript codes normally and writing Javascript codes for this dynamic purpose. An alternative is to manipulate the DOM on the server side, but I doubt that it would be as elegantly as using jQuery on the client side. I am open for a C# library that supports chainable calls like jQuery that also manipulates the DOM too. Do you have any idea or is it too much to ask or are you too confused? Edit1: The point is to avoid recompiling, hence the plug-ins architecture. In some other parts of the program, I already use the concept of dynamically loading Javascript files. That works fine. What I am looking here is somewhere in the middle of the program when an Ajax request is sent to the server. Edit 2: To illustrate my question: Normally, you would see the following code. An Ajax request is sent to the server, a JSON result is returned to the client which then uses jQuery to manipulate the DOM (creating tag and adding to the container in this case). $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: someUrl, data: {'': ''}, success: function(data) { var ul = $('<ul>').appendTo(container); var decoded = $.parseJSON(data); $.each(decoded, function(i, e) { var li = $('<li>').text(e.FIELD1 + ',' + e.FIELD2 + ',' + e.FIELD3); ul.append(li); }); } }); The above is extremely simple. But next year, what the server returns is totally different and how the data to be rendered would also be different. In a way, this is what I want: var container = $('#some-existing-element-on-the-page'); $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: someUrl, data: {'': ''}, success: function(data) { var decoded = $.parseJSON(data); var fx = decoded.fx; var data = decode.data; //fx is the dynamic function that create the DOM from the data and append to the existing container fx(container, data); } }); I don't need to know, at this time what data would be like, but in the future I will, and I can then write fx accordingly.

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  • Pass param to a silverlight application

    - by Lucas_Santos
    In my javascript I create my <OBJECT> tag var htmlEmbedSilverlight = "<div id='silverlightControlHost'> " + "<object data='data:application/x-silverlight-2,' type='application/x-silverlight-2' width='550px' height='250px'> " + "<param name='source' value='../../ClientBin/FotoEmprestimoChave.xap'/> " + "<param name='onError' value='onSilverlightError' /> " + "<param name='background' value='white' /> " + "<param name='minRuntimeVersion' value='4.0.60310.0' /> " + "<param name='autoUpgrade' value='true' /> " + "<param name='initparams' values='chave_id=" + data + "' /> " + "<a href='http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=4.0.60310.0' style='text-decoration:none'> " + "<img src='http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=161376' alt='Get Microsoft Silverlight' style='border-style:none'/> " + "</a> " + "</object><iframe id='_sl_historyFrame' style='visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px'></iframe></div>"; $("#tiraFotoSilverlight").html(htmlEmbedSilverlight); This is a reference to my Silverlight application where I call in my Web Application. The problem is my <param name='initparams' values='chave_id=" + data + "' /> " because in my App.xaml in Silverlight, I have the code below private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { if (e.InitParams != null) { foreach (var item in e.InitParams) { this.Resources.Add(item.Key, item.Value); } } this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } Where InitParams always has Count = 0 and I don't know why. Can someone help me ? I'm just trying to pass a value to my Silverlight application, without a PostBack. Rendered <object width="550px" height="250px" type="application/x-silverlight-2" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2,"> <param value="../../ClientBin/FotoEmprestimoChave.xap" name="source"> <param value="onSilverlightError" name="onError"> <param value="white" name="background"> <param value="4.0.60310.0" name="minRuntimeVersion"> <param value="true" name="autoUpgrade"> <param values="chave_id=1" name="initparams"> <a style="text-decoration:none" href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=4.0.60310.0"> </object>

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  • What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

    - by Anthony
    Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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  • Selecting and Populating a unFocused tab.

    - by Deyon
    I'm having a problem displaying data from a function to text box within a tab. If you run the code and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." I get an error; "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." I'm guessing this is because "Tab 2" is/was not rendered yet. Now if I run the code, select "Tab 2" then select "Tab 1" and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." it works the way I would like. Dose any one know a way around this problem. ----Full Flex 4/Flash Builder Code just copy paste---- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:WindowedApplication xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" creationComplete=" "> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function showtab2():void { mytextbox.text="I made it!"; tn.selectedIndex=1; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Panel title="TabNavigator Container Example" height="90%" width="90%" paddingTop="10" paddingLeft="10" paddingRight="10" paddingBottom="10"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select the tabs to change the panel."/> <mx:TabNavigator id="tn" width="100%" height="100%"> <!-- Define each panel using a VBox container. --> <mx:VBox label="Panel 1"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 1"/> <mx:Button label="Select Tab 2 and Fill with Text" click="showtab2()"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Panel 2"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 2"/> <s:TextInput id="mytextbox" /> </mx:VBox> </mx:TabNavigator> <mx:HBox> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> </s:WindowedApplication>

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  • One Controller is Sometimes Bound Twice with Ninject

    - by Dusda
    I have the following NinjectModule, where we bind our repositories and business objects: /// <summary> /// Used by Ninject to bind interface contracts to concrete types. /// </summary> public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { /// <summary> /// Loads this instance. /// </summary> public override void Load() { //bindings here. //Bind<IMyInterface>().To<MyImplementation>(); Bind<IUserRepository>().To<SqlUserRepository>(); Bind<IHomeRepository>().To<SqlHomeRepository>(); Bind<IPhotoRepository>().To<SqlPhotoRepository>(); //and so on //business objects Bind<IUser>().To<Data.User>(); Bind<IHome>().To<Data.Home>(); Bind<IPhoto>().To<Data.Photo>(); //and so on } } And here are the relevant overrides from our Global.asax, where we inherit from NinjectHttpApplication in order to integrate it with Asp.Net Mvc (The module lies in a separate dll called Thing.Web.Configuration): protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); //routes and areas AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //Initializes a singleton that must reference this HttpApplication class, //in order to provide the Ninject Kernel to the rest of Thing.Web. This //is necessary because there are a few instances (currently Membership) //that require manual dependency injection. NinjectKernel.Instance = new NinjectKernel(this); //view model factory. NinjectKernel.Instance.Kernel.Bind<IModelFactory>().To<MasterModelFactory>(); } protected override NinjectControllerFactory CreateControllerFactory() { return base.CreateControllerFactory(); } protected override Ninject.IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load("Thing.Web.Configuration.dll"); return kernel; } Now, everything works great, with one exception: For some reason, sometimes Ninject will bind the PhotoController twice. This leads to an ActivationException, because Ninject can't discern which PhotoController I want. This causes all requests for thumbnails and other user images on the site to fail. Here is the PhotoController in it's entirety: public class PhotoController : Controller { public PhotoController() { } public ActionResult Index(string id) { var dir = Server.MapPath("~/" + ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["UserPhotos"]); var path = Path.Combine(dir, id); return base.File(path, "image/jpeg"); } } Every controller works in exactly the same way, but for some reason the PhotoController gets double-bound. Even then, it only happens occasionally (either when re-building the solution, or on staging/production when the app pool kicks in). Once this happens, it continues to happen until I redeploy without changing anything. So...what's up with that?

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  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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  • Saving JQuery Draggable Sitemap Values Correctly

    - by mdolon
    I am trying to implement Boagworld's Sitemap tutorial, however I am running into difficulty trying to correctly save the child/parent relationships. The HTML is as follows, however populated with other items as well: <input type="hidden" name="sitemap-order" id="sitemap-order" value="" /> <ul id=”sitemap”> <li id="1"> <dl> <dt><a href=”#”>expand/collapse</a> <a href=”#”>Page Title</a></dt> <dd>Text Page</dd> <dd>Published</dd> <dd><a href=”#”>delete</a></dd> </dl> <ul><!–child pages–></ul> </li> </ul> And here is the JQuery code: $('#sitemap li').prepend('<div class="dropzone"></div>'); $('#sitemap li').draggable({ handle: ' > dl', opacity: .8, addClasses: false, helper: 'clone', zIndex: 100 }); var order = ""; $('#sitemap dl, #sitemap .dropzone').droppable({ accept: '#sitemap li', tolerance: 'pointer', drop: function(e, ui) { var li = $(this).parent(); var child = !$(this).hasClass('dropzone'); //If this is our first child, we'll need a ul to drop into. if (child && li.children('ul').length == 0) { li.append('<ul/>'); } //ui.draggable is our reference to the item that's been dragged. if (child) { li.children('ul').append(ui.draggable); }else { li.before(ui.draggable); } //reset our background colours. li.find('dl,.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '', backgroundColor: '' }); li.find('.dropzone').css({ height: '8px', margin: '0' }); // THE PROBLEM: var parentid = $(this).parent().attr('id'); menuorder += ui.draggable.attr('id')+'=>'+parentid+','; $("#sitemap-order").val(order); }, over: function() { $(this).filter('dl').css({ backgroundColor: '#ccc' }); $(this).filter('.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '#aaa', height: '30px', margin: '5px 0'}); }, out: function() { $(this).filter('dl').css({ backgroundColor: '' }); $(this).filter('.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '', height: '8px', margin: '0' }); } }); When moving items into the top-level (without parents), the parentid value I get is of the first list item (the parent container), so I can never remove the parent value and have a top-level item. Is there a no-brainer answer that I'm just not seeing right now? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Inserting a string array as a row into an Excel document using the Open XML SDK 2.0

    - by Sam
    The code runs, but corrupts my excel document. Any help would be mucho appreciated! I used this as a reference. public void AddRow(string fileName, string[] values) { using (SpreadsheetDocument doc = SpreadsheetDocument.Open(fileName, true)) { SharedStringTablePart sharedStringPart = GetSharedStringPart(doc); WorksheetPart worksheetPart = doc.WorkbookPart.WorksheetParts.First(); uint rowIdx = AppendRow(worksheetPart); for (int i = 0; i < values.Length; ++i) { int stringIdx = InsertSharedString(values[i], sharedStringPart); Cell cell = InsertCell(i, rowIdx, worksheetPart); cell.CellValue = new CellValue(stringIdx.ToString()); cell.DataType = new EnumValue<CellValues>( CellValues.SharedString); worksheetPart.Worksheet.Save(); } } } private SharedStringTablePart GetSharedStringPart( SpreadsheetDocument doc) { if (doc.WorkbookPart. GetPartsCountOfType<SharedStringTablePart>() > 0) return doc.WorkbookPart. GetPartsOfType<SharedStringTablePart>().First(); else return doc.WorkbookPart. AddNewPart<SharedStringTablePart>(); } private uint AppendRow(WorksheetPart worksheetPart) { SheetData sheetData = worksheetPart.Worksheet. GetFirstChild<SheetData>(); uint rowIndex = (uint)sheetData.Elements<Row>().Count(); Row row = new Row() { RowIndex = rowIndex }; sheetData.Append(row); return rowIndex; } private int InsertSharedString(string s, SharedStringTablePart sharedStringPart) { if (sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable == null) sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable = new SharedStringTable(); int i = 0; foreach (SharedStringItem item in sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable. Elements<SharedStringItem>()) { if (item.InnerText == s) return i; ++i; } sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable.AppendChild( new Text(s)); sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable.Save(); return i; } private Cell InsertCell(int i, uint rowIdx, WorksheetPart worksheetPart) { SheetData sheetData = worksheetPart.Worksheet. GetFirstChild<SheetData>(); string cellReference = AlphabetMap.Instance[i] + rowIdx; Cell cell = new Cell() { CellReference = cellReference }; Row row = sheetData.Elements<Row>().ElementAt((int)rowIdx); row.InsertAt(cell, i); worksheetPart.Worksheet.Save(); return cell; }

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  • Maximum nametable char count exceeded

    - by doc
    I'm having issues with the maximum nametable char count quota, I followed a couple of answers here and it solved the problem for a while, but now I'm having the same issue. My Server side config is as follows: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="GenericBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="1000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="REMWCF.RemWCFSvc"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="REMWCF.IRemWCFSvc" bindingConfiguration="GenericBinding" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I also have the same tcp binding on the devenv configuration. Have I reached the limit of contracts supported? Is there a way to turn off that quota? EDIT Error Message: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=65455.WS-Metadata Exchange Error URI: net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex'. There is an error in the XML document. The maximum nametable character count quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. The nametable is a data structure used to store strings encountered during XML processing - long XML documents with non-repeating element names, attribute names and attribute values may trigger this quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxNameTableCharCount property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. I'm getting that error when trying to run the WCF (which is hosted in a windows service app).

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  • NHibernate and objects with value-semantics

    - by Groo
    Problem: If I pass a class with value semantics (Equals method overridden) to NHibernate, NHibernate tries to save it to db even though it just saved an entity equal by value (but not by reference) to the database. What am I doing wrong? Here is a simplified example model for my problem: Let's say I have a Person entity and a City entity. One thread (producer) is creating new Person objects which belong to a specific existing City, and another thread (consumer) is saving them to a repository (using NHibernate as DAL). Since there is lot of objects being flushed at a time, I am using Guid.Comb id's to ensure that each insert is made using a single SQL command. City is an object with value-type semantics (equal by name only -- for this example purposes only): public class City : IEquatable<City> { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual bool Equals(City other) { if (other == null) return false; return this.Name == other.Name; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as City); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode(); } } Fluent NH mapping is something like: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.City) .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } } public class CityMap : ClassMap<City> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); } } Right now (with my current NHibernate mapping config), my consumer thread maintains a dictionary of cities and replaces their references in incoming person objects (otherwise NHibernate will see a new, non-cached City object and try to save it as well), and I need to do it for every produced Person object. Since I have implemented City class to behave like a value type, I hoped that NHibernate would compare Cities by value and not try to save them each time -- i.e. I would only need to do a lookup once per session and not care about them anymore. Is this possible, and if yes, what am I doing wrong here?

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  • how to user ajax with json in ruby on rails

    - by fenec
    I am implemeting a facebook application in rails using facebooker plugin, therefore it is very important to use this architecture if i want to update multiple DOM in my page. if my code works in a regular rails application it would work in my facebook application. i am trying to use ajax to let the user know that the comment was sent, and update the comments bloc. migration: class CreateComments < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :comments do |t| t.string :body t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :comments end end controller: class CommentsController < ApplicationController def index @comments=Comment.all end def create @comment=Comment.create(params[:comment]) if request.xhr? @comments=Comment.all render :json=>{:ids_to_update=>[:all_comments,:form_message], :all_comments=>render_to_string(:partial=>"comments" ), :form_message=>"Your comment has been added." } else redirect_to comments_url end end end view: <script> function update_count(str,message_id) { len=str.length; if (len < 200) { $(message_id).innerHTML="<span style='color: green'>"+ (200-len)+" remaining</span>"; } else { $(message_id).innerHTML="<span style='color: red'>"+ "Comment too long. Only 200 characters allowed.</span>"; } } function update_multiple(json) { for( var i=0; i<json["ids_to_update"].length; i++ ) { id=json["ids_to_update"][i]; $(id).innerHTML=json[id]; } } </script> <div id="all_comments" > <%= render :partial=>"comments/comments" %> </div> Talk some trash: <br /> <% remote_form_for Comment.new, :url=>comments_url, :success=>"update_multiple(request)" do |f|%> <%= f.text_area :body, :onchange=>"update_count(this.getValue(),'remaining');" , :onkeyup=>"update_count(this.getValue(),'remaining');" %> <br /> <%= f.submit 'Post'%> <% end %> <p id="remaining" >&nbsp;</p> <p id="form_message" >&nbsp;</p> <br><br> <br> if i try to do alert(json) in the first line of the update_multiple function , i got an [object Object]. if i try to do alert(json["ids_to_update"][0]) in the first line of the update_multiple function , there is no dialog box displayed. however the comment got saved but nothing is updated. questions: 1.how can javascript and rails know that i am dealing with json objects? 2.how can i debug this problem? 3.how can i get it to work?

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  • iOS: Interpreted code - where do they draw the line?

    - by d7samurai
    Apple's iOS developer guidelines state: 3.3.2 — An Application may not itself install or launch other executable code by any means, including without limitation through the use of a plug-in architecture, calling other frameworks, other APIs or otherwise. No interpreted code may be downloaded or used in an Application except for code that is interpreted and run by Apple’s Documented APIs and built-in interpreter(s). Assuming that downloading data - like XML and images (or a game level description), for example - at run-time is allowed (as is my impression), I am wondering where they draw the line between "data" and "code". Picture the scenario of an app that delivers interactive "presentations" to users (like a survey, for instance). Presentations are added continuously to the server and different presentations are made available to different users, so they cannot be part of the initial app download (this is the whole point). They are described in XML format, but being interactive, they might contain conditional branching of this sort (shown in pseudo form to exemplify): <options id="Gender"> <option value="1">Male</option> <option value="2">Female</option> </options> <branches id="Gender"> <branch value="1"> <image src="Man" /> </branch> <branch value="2"> <image src="Woman" /> </branch> </branches> When the presentation is "played" within the app, the above would be presented in two steps. First a selection screen where the user can click on either of the two choices presented ("Male" or "Female"). Next, an image will be [downloaded dynamically] and displayed based on the choice made in the previous step. Now, it's easy to imagine additional tags describing further logic still. For example, a containing tag could be added: <loop count="3"> <options... /> <branches... /> </loop> The result here being that the selection screen / image screen pair would be sequentially presented three times over, of course. Or imagine some description of a level in a game. It's easy to view that as passive "data", but if it includes, say, several doorways that the user can go through and with various triggers, traps and points attached to them etc - isn't that the same as using a script - or, indeed, interpreted code - to describe options and their conditional responses? Assuming that the interpretation engine for this XML data is already present in the app and that such presentations can only be consumed (not created or edited) in the app, how would this fare against Apple's iOS guidelines? Doesn't XML basically constitute a scripting language (couldn't any interpreted programming language simply be described by XML) in this sense? Would it be OK if the proprietary scripting language (ref the XML used above) was strictly sandboxed (how can they tell?) and not given access to the operating system in any way (but able to download content dynamically - and upload results to the authoring server)? Where does the line go?

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  • cellForRowAtIndexPath called too late

    - by Mihai Fonoage
    Hi, I am trying to re-load a table every time some data I get from the web is available. This is what I have: SearchDataViewController: - (void)parseDatatXML { parsingDelegate = [[XMLParsingDelegate alloc] init]; parsingDelegate.searchDataController = self; // CONTAINS THE TABLE THAT NEEDS RE-LOADING; ImplementedSearchViewController *searchController = [[ImplementedSearchViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ImplementedSearchView" bundle:nil]; ProjectAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UINavigationController *nav = (UINavigationController *)[delegate.splitViewController.viewControllers objectAtIndex: 0]; NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:nav, searchController, nil]; self.splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers; [viewControllers release]; // PASS A REFERENCE TO THE PARSING DELEGATE SO THAT IT CAN CALL reloadData on the table parsingDelegate.searchViewController = searchController; [searchController release]; // Build the url request used to fetch data ... NSURLRequest *dataURLRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:dataURL]]; parsingDelegate.feedConnection = [[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:dataURLRequest delegate:parsingDelegate] autorelease]; } ImplementedSearchViewController: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSLog(@"count = %d", [keys count]); // keys IS A NSMutableArray return [self.keys count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ... cell.textLabel.text = [keys objectAtIndex:row]; ... } XMLParsingDelgate: -(void) updateSearchTable:(NSArray *)array { ... [self.currentParseBatch addObject:(NSString *)[array objectAtIndex:1]]; // RELOAD TABLE [self.searchViewController.table reloadData]; } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qualifiedName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict { if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"..."]) { self.currentParseBatch = [NSMutableArray array]; searchViewController.keys = self.currentParseBatch; ... } ... } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"..."]) { ... [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateSearchTable:) withObject:array waitUntilDone:NO]; } ... } My problem is that when I debug, the calls go between reloadData and numberOfRowsInSection until the keys array is filled with the last data, time at which the cellForRowAtIndexPath gets called. I wanted the table to be updated for each element I send, one by one, instead of just in the end. Any ideas why this behavior? Thank you!

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  • Clearcase - selective merge.

    - by Keshav
    Hi, I have a peculiar Clearcase doubt. I cannot fully describe why I'm doing such a confusing architecture, but I need to do it (thanks to the mistake done by someone long back). Ok, here's a bit of detail: B1 is a contaminated branch where both my group's changes and another group's changes got mixed together so badly that there is no way of finding which code is whose). So the solution proposed is to create a new branch called B2 (at the same level as B1) and put all the unmodified code of the other group on it (The way to do that would be to merge B1 with B2 and then go about removing all changes from it till it becomes original). Then create a CR branch on B1 and keep only my group's newly added files or modified files on that branch. Finally create an integration branch out of B2 and merge the changes from CR branch of B1 to integration branch of B2. So here is what I did: (The use case is where I have dir D where file a, b and c are there. My group ended up modifying file a while b and c are not modified at all). There is a branch B1 on which there are files a, b and c. There is another branch B2. A merge is done from B1 to B2. Now B2 also has a, b and c. At this point both branch B1 and B2 are same. Now I delete file a from branch B2 (rmname). Now B2 has b and c only. I put a label to this branch called Label1. This makes the code with label Label1 as the unmodified code from other group. Now I create a sub branch called CR1 from B1 and delete all the files that are there in B2 branch (i.e b and c) such that it contains only the modified code from original code on it. In my case it is file a. At this point branch B2 with label Label1 has files b and c (those are unmodified code) and branch CR1 coming off B1 has only a (that is modified by us). Now I create another branch called integration branch that comes off B2 Label1. And then I do a merge of CR branch on to that expecting that it will have all three files a, b and c for me. All I'd need to do is to do a version tree view and see who modified what. But the problem I face is that since I had done a rmname of file a on branch B2 earlier to putting Label. The merge does not really take the file a from CR branch. How to I get around that problem. I want to selectively merge. Is it possible? sorry if it is a bad design. I'm not really conversant with Clear case and have limited options and time to clear some one else's mess.

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