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• DLL configuration file in asp.net site

  - by Tominator

  Hi, I've made a .net 2.0 librabry project, that results in a dll. I've made an app.config file in my project, with settings used in the dll, with the intention that they can be changed later. I'm attempting to use the dll in an asp.net web application now, so I made the reference to my other project's output, and I see that the dll is copied over to the site's bin folder, and everything works. However, the configuration file is not copied. When I manually copy the app.config and rename it to myDll.config, it has no influence. The contents of the config file is approximately this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="applicationSettings" type="System.Configuration.ApplicationSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" > <section name="myDLL.My.MySettings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <applicationSettings> <myDLL.My.MySettings> <setting name="myDLL_webservice_Service" serializeAs="String"> <value>https://myhost/Service.asmx</value> </setting> <setting name="ID" serializeAs="String"> <value>6</value> </setting> </myDLL.My.MySettings> </applicationSettings> </configuration> And I use its settings in the dll with this (vb.net code): Private _id As Long = My.Settings.ID How can I put my config information somewhere so it can be used? In the web.config of the site application? That has only the appSettings section, and it uses the syntax. It doesn't appear to work though. In a custom file format that I create and use? Not that pretty..

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• help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

  - by ajsie

  im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

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• Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

  - by Jonathan Leffler

  The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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• iOS: Interpreted code - where do they draw the line?

  - by d7samurai

  Apple's iOS developer guidelines state: 3.3.2 — An Application may not itself install or launch other executable code by any means, including without limitation through the use of a plug-in architecture, calling other frameworks, other APIs or otherwise. No interpreted code may be downloaded or used in an Application except for code that is interpreted and run by Apple’s Documented APIs and built-in interpreter(s). Assuming that downloading data - like XML and images (or a game level description), for example - at run-time is allowed (as is my impression), I am wondering where they draw the line between "data" and "code". Picture the scenario of an app that delivers interactive "presentations" to users (like a survey, for instance). Presentations are added continuously to the server and different presentations are made available to different users, so they cannot be part of the initial app download (this is the whole point). They are described in XML format, but being interactive, they might contain conditional branching of this sort (shown in pseudo form to exemplify): <options id="Gender"> <option value="1">Male</option> <option value="2">Female</option> </options> <branches id="Gender"> <branch value="1"> <image src="Man" /> </branch> <branch value="2"> <image src="Woman" /> </branch> </branches> When the presentation is "played" within the app, the above would be presented in two steps. First a selection screen where the user can click on either of the two choices presented ("Male" or "Female"). Next, an image will be [downloaded dynamically] and displayed based on the choice made in the previous step. Now, it's easy to imagine additional tags describing further logic still. For example, a containing tag could be added: <loop count="3"> <options... /> <branches... /> </loop> The result here being that the selection screen / image screen pair would be sequentially presented three times over, of course. Or imagine some description of a level in a game. It's easy to view that as passive "data", but if it includes, say, several doorways that the user can go through and with various triggers, traps and points attached to them etc - isn't that the same as using a script - or, indeed, interpreted code - to describe options and their conditional responses? Assuming that the interpretation engine for this XML data is already present in the app and that such presentations can only be consumed (not created or edited) in the app, how would this fare against Apple's iOS guidelines? Doesn't XML basically constitute a scripting language (couldn't any interpreted programming language simply be described by XML) in this sense? Would it be OK if the proprietary scripting language (ref the XML used above) was strictly sandboxed (how can they tell?) and not given access to the operating system in any way (but able to download content dynamically - and upload results to the authoring server)? Where does the line go?

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• Setting background-image with javascript

  - by Mattoe3k

  In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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• NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

  - by Brent Traut

  I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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• WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

  - by splate

  I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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• post row where radio button is checked

  - by ognjenb

  View: <form id="numbers-form" method="post" action="/Numbers/Numbers"> <table id="numbers"> <tr> <th> prvi_br </th> <th> drugi_br </th> <th> treci_br </th> </tr> <% int rb = 1; %> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %>'/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb)%>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %>'/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb)%>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %>'/> </td> </tr> <% rb++; %> <% } %> </table> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </form> Controller action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Numbers(int[] rb) { brojevi br = new brojevi(); for (int i = 1; i <= rb.Length; i++) //in this line I have error:Object reference not set to an instance of an object. { br.prvi_br = i; br.drugi_br = i+1; br.treci_br = i+3; } numbers.AddTobrojevi(br); numbers.SaveChanges(); return View(); } I try to post data row in wich radio button is checked but failed, what is wrong??

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• Conceptual inheritance implementation

  - by TheSENDER

  Hi there, I'm writing a spatial data structure and I have a doubt about what's the best NODE implementation. According to my design I have an abstract node entity and three classes which inherit from it: EMPTYNODE, FULLNODE, INTERNALNODE. The first one has no particular data. The second one has 1 reference to a generic element. The third one has 2 references to other nodes. I have found several ways to implement this situation (that I have already coded) but I can't decide what's the best. The first solution that I have found is to use a single class Node that potentially performs all the operation in this way: private static class Node { private Elem elem = null; private Node left = null, right = null; public Elem getElem() { assert isFull(); return elem; } public boolean isEmpty() { return elem == null && left == null; } public boolean isFull() { return elem != null; } public boolean isInternal() { return elem == null && left != null; } } The second solution is to write an explicit division by classes where every class offers only its methods. Obviously in this way we are obliged to perform several casts to the node objects. private static abstract class Node { public abstract boolean isEmpty(); public abstract boolean isFull(); public abstract boolean isInternal(); } private static class FullNode extends Node{ private ITriangle elem; @Override public boolean isEmpty() { return false; } @Override public final boolean isFull() { return true; } @Override public final boolean isInternal() { return false; } public Elem getElem() { return elem; } } The third one solution is to use the inheritance allowing every classes to offer all the methods, but the object type should by check by "isEmpty()" and similar methods. In case of wrong call we'll throw an exception. private static abstract class Node { public abstract boolean isEmpty(); public abstract boolean isFull(); public abstract boolean isInternal(); public abstract Elem getElem(); } private static class Empty extends Node{ @Override public boolean isEmpty() { return true; } @Override public final boolean isFull() { return false; } @Override public final boolean isInternal() { return false; } @Override public Elem getElem() { throw new AssertionError(); } } What do you think about these three solutions? Which one would you use? Any other ideas? Thanks for your help. Every idea will be appreciated.

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• Can I use the [] operator in C++ to create virtual arrays

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a large code base, originally C ported to C++ many years ago, that is operating on a number of large arrays of spatial data. These arrays contain structs representing point and triangle entities that represent surface models. I need to refactor the code such that the specific way these entities are stored internally varies for specific scenarios. For example if the points lie on a regular flat grid, I don't need to store the X and Y coordinates, as they can be calculated on the fly, as can the triangles. Similarly, I want to take advantage of out of core tools such as STXXL for storage. The simplest way of doing this is replacing array access with put and get type functions, e.g. point[i].x = XV; becomes Point p = GetPoint(i); p.x = XV; PutPoint(i,p); As you can imagine, this is a very tedious refactor on a large code base, prone to all sorts of errors en route. What I'd like to do is write a class that mimics the array by overloading the [] operator. As the arrays already live on the heap, and move around with reallocs, the code already assumes that references into the array such as point *p = point + i; may not be used. Is this class feasible to write? For example writing the methods below in terms of the [] operator; void MyClass::PutPoint(int Index, Point p) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); StoreGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs,p.z); } else m_PointArray[Index] = p; } } Point MyClass::GetPoint(int Index) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); return GetGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs); // GetGridPoint returns Point } else return m_PointArray[Index]; } } My concern is that all the array classes I've seen tend to pass by reference, whereas I think I'll have to pass structs by value. I think it should work put other than performance, can anyone see any major pitfalls with this approach. n.b. the reason I have to pass by value is to get point[a].z = point[b].z + point[c].z to work correctly where the underlying storage type varies.

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• C++ vector of strings, pointers to functions, and the resulting frustration.

  - by Kyle

  So I am a first year computer science student, for on of my final projects, I need to write a program that takes a vector of strings, and applies various functions to these. Unfortunately, I am really confused on how to use pointer to pass the vector from function to function. Below is some sample code to give an idea of what I am talking about. I also get an error message when I try to deference any pointer. thanks. #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; vector<string>::pointer function_1(vector<string>::pointer ptr); void function_2(vector<string>::pointer ptr); int main() { vector<string>::pointer ptr; vector<string> svector; ptr = &svector[0]; function_1(ptr); function_2(ptr); } vector<string>::pointer function_1(vector<string>::pointer ptr) { string line; for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { cout << "enter some input ! \n"; // i need to be able to pass a reference of the vector getline(cin, line); // through various functions, and have the results *ptr.pushback(line); // reflectedin main(). But I cannot use member functions } // of vector with a deferenced pointer. return(ptr); } void function_2(vector<string>::pointer ptr) { for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { cout << *ptr[i] << endl; } }

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• Maximum nametable char count exceeded

  - by doc

  I'm having issues with the maximum nametable char count quota, I followed a couple of answers here and it solved the problem for a while, but now I'm having the same issue. My Server side config is as follows: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="GenericBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="1000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="REMWCF.RemWCFSvc"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="REMWCF.IRemWCFSvc" bindingConfiguration="GenericBinding" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I also have the same tcp binding on the devenv configuration. Have I reached the limit of contracts supported? Is there a way to turn off that quota? EDIT Error Message: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=65455.WS-Metadata Exchange Error URI: net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex'. There is an error in the XML document. The maximum nametable character count quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. The nametable is a data structure used to store strings encountered during XML processing - long XML documents with non-repeating element names, attribute names and attribute values may trigger this quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxNameTableCharCount property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. I'm getting that error when trying to run the WCF (which is hosted in a windows service app).

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• What is GC holes?

  - by tianyi

  I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

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• Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

  - by Tommy Fisk

  Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

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• NullReferenceException at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.LoadAssemblies(ITaskItem[] R

  - by Eugene Larchick

  Hi, I updated my Visual Studio 2010 to the version 10.0.30319.1 RTM Rel and start getting the following exception during the build: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.LoadAssemblies(ITaskItem[] ReferenceAssemblies) at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.get_GetXamlSchemaContext() at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.GenerateCode(ITaskItem item, Boolean isApplication) at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.Execute() at Bohr.Silverlight.BuildTasks.BohrCompileXaml.Execute() The code of BohrCompileXaml.Execute is the following: public override bool Execute() { List<TaskItem> pages = new List<TaskItem>(); foreach (ITaskItem item in SilverlightPages) { string newFileName = getGeneratedName(item.ItemSpec); String content = File.ReadAllText(item.ItemSpec); String parentClassName = getParentClassName(content); if (null != parentClassName) { content = content.Replace("<UserControl", "<" + parentClassName); content = content.Replace("</UserControl>", "</" + parentClassName + ">"); content = content.Replace("bohr:ParentClass=\"" + parentClassName + "\"", ""); } File.WriteAllText(newFileName, content); pages.Add(new TaskItem(newFileName)); } if (null != SilverlightApplications) { foreach (ITaskItem item in SilverlightApplications) { Log.LogMessage(MessageImportance.High, "Application: " + item.ToString()); } } foreach (ITaskItem item in pages) { Log.LogMessage(MessageImportance.High, "newPage: " + item.ToString()); } CompileXaml xamlCompiler = new CompileXaml(); xamlCompiler.AssemblyName = AssemblyName; xamlCompiler.Language = Language; xamlCompiler.LanguageSourceExtension = LanguageSourceExtension; xamlCompiler.OutputPath = OutputPath; xamlCompiler.ProjectPath = ProjectPath; xamlCompiler.RootNamespace = RootNamespace; xamlCompiler.SilverlightApplications = SilverlightApplications; xamlCompiler.SilverlightPages = pages.ToArray(); xamlCompiler.TargetFrameworkDirectory = TargetFrameworkDirectory; xamlCompiler.TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory = TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory; xamlCompiler.BuildEngine = BuildEngine; bool result = xamlCompiler.Execute(); // HERE we got the error! And the definition of the task: <BohrCompileXaml LanguageSourceExtension="$(DefaultLanguageSourceExtension)" Language="$(Language)" SilverlightPages="@(Page)" SilverlightApplications="@(ApplicationDefinition)" ProjectPath="$(MSBuildProjectFullPath)" RootNamespace="$(RootNamespace)" AssemblyName="$(AssemblyName)" OutputPath="$(IntermediateOutputPath)" TargetFrameworkDirectory="$(TargetFrameworkDirectory)" TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory="$(TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory)" > <Output ItemName="Compile" TaskParameter="GeneratedCodeFiles" /> <!-- Add to the list list of files written. It is used in Microsoft.Common.Targets to clean up for a next clean build --> <Output ItemName="FileWrites" TaskParameter="WrittenFiles" /> <Output ItemName="_GeneratedCodeFiles" TaskParameter="GeneratedCodeFiles" /> </BohrCompileXaml> What can be the reason? And how can I get more info what's happening inside CompileXaml class?

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• Effective optimization strategies on modern C++ compilers

  - by user168715

  I'm working on scientific code that is very performance-critical. An initial version of the code has been written and tested, and now, with profiler in hand, it's time to start shaving cycles from the hot spots. It's well-known that some optimizations, e.g. loop unrolling, are handled these days much more effectively by the compiler than by a programmer meddling by hand. Which techniques are still worthwhile? Obviously, I'll run everything I try through a profiler, but if there's conventional wisdom as to what tends to work and what doesn't, it would save me significant time. I know that optimization is very compiler- and architecture- dependent. I'm using Intel's C++ compiler targeting the Core 2 Duo, but I'm also interested in what works well for gcc, or for "any modern compiler." Here are some concrete ideas I'm considering: Is there any benefit to replacing STL containers/algorithms with hand-rolled ones? In particular, my program includes a very large priority queue (currently a std::priority_queue) whose manipulation is taking a lot of total time. Is this something worth looking into, or is the STL implementation already likely the fastest possible? Along similar lines, for std::vectors whose needed sizes are unknown but have a reasonably small upper bound, is it profitable to replace them with statically-allocated arrays? I've found that dynamic memory allocation is often a severe bottleneck, and that eliminating it can lead to significant speedups. As a consequence I'm interesting in the performance tradeoffs of returning large temporary data structures by value vs. returning by pointer vs. passing the result in by reference. Is there a way to reliably determine whether or not the compiler will use RVO for a given method (assuming the caller doesn't need to modify the result, of course)? How cache-aware do compilers tend to be? For example, is it worth looking into reordering nested loops? Given the scientific nature of the program, floating-point numbers are used everywhere. A significant bottleneck in my code used to be conversions from floating point to integers: the compiler would emit code to save the current rounding mode, change it, perform the conversion, then restore the old rounding mode --- even though nothing in the program ever changed the rounding mode! Disabling this behavior significantly sped up my code. Are there any similar floating-point-related gotchas I should be aware of? One consequence of C++ being compiled and linked separately is that the compiler is unable to do what would seem to be very simple optimizations, such as move method calls like strlen() out of the termination conditions of loop. Are there any optimization like this one that I should look out for because they can't be done by the compiler and must be done by hand? On the flip side, are there any techniques I should avoid because they are likely to interfere with the compiler's ability to automatically optimize code? Lastly, to nip certain kinds of answers in the bud: I understand that optimization has a cost in terms of complexity, reliability, and maintainability. For this particular application, increased performance is worth these costs. I understand that the best optimizations are often to improve the high-level algorithms, and this has already been done.

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• c++ std::ostringstream vs std::string::append

  - by NickSoft

  In all examples that use some kind of buffering I see they use stream instead of string. How is std::ostringstream and << operator different than using string.append. Which one is faster and which one uses less resourses (memory). One difference I know is that you can output different types into output stream (like integer) rather than the limited types that string::append accepts. Here is an example: std::ostringstream os; os << "Content-Type: " << contentType << ";charset=" << charset << "\r\n"; std::string header = os.str(); vs std::string header("Content-Type: "); header.append(contentType); header.append(";charset="); header.append(charset); header.append("\r\n"); Obviously using stream is shorter, but I think append returns reference to the string so it can be written like this: std::string header("Content-Type: "); header.append(contentType) .append(";charset=") .append(charset) .append("\r\n"); And with output stream you can do: std::string content; ... os << "Content-Length: " << content.length() << "\r\n"; But what about memory usage and speed? Especially when used in a big loop. Update: To be more clear the question is: Which one should I use and why? Is there situations when one is preferred or the other? For performance and memory ... well I think benchmark is the only way since every implementation could be different. Update 2: Well I don't get clear idea what should I use from the answers which means that any of them will do the job, plus vector. Cubbi did nice benchmark with the addition of Dietmar Kühl that the biggest difference is construction of those objects. If you are looking for an answer you should check that too. I'll wait a bit more for other answers (look previous update) and if I don't get one I think I'll accept Tolga's answer because his suggestion to use vector is already done before which means vector should be less resource hungry.

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• Video playback with jQuery Mobile and Phonegap

  - by aritchie

  I'm fairly new to mobile apps, so am trying to knock up a simple video player using Phonegap and jQuery Mobile. The problem is, jQuery mobile appears to be blocking the video playback for some reason. To troubleshoot I stripped it right back to the following HTML, but get the same result, ie a black rectangle where the video should be, but no video playback or controls. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,initial-scale=1"/> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/index.css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.min.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="cordova-2.2.0.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/index.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery-1.8.3.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.js"></script> <title></title> </head> <body> <div> <video controls autoplay> <source src="video/video1.mp4" type="video/mp4" > </video> </div> </body> </html> If I remove the link to jquery.mobile-1.2.0.js the video shows up and plays, otherwise, just the black rectangle. I don't know jQuery mobile at all, but searching in the js for a reference to the video elements doesn't show up, so I've no idea what is blocking it. The code works fine in Chrome and Firefox. There are no console messages in Xcode. I also tried hooking up to http://debug.phonegap.com/ but this gave no error messages either. Any ideas??

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• Directly Jump to another C++ function

  - by maligree

  I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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• Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

  - by Justin

  Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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• .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

  - by 1001001

  I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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• An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: Object

  - by Ben

  I get this error when attempting to debug my form, I cannot see where at all the error could be (also does not highlight where), anyone have any suggestions? An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Public Class Form1 Dim dateCrap As String = "Date:" Dim IPcrap As String = "Ip:" Dim pcCrap As String = "Computer:" Dim programCrap As String = "Program:" Dim textz As String = TextBox1.Text Dim sep() As String = {vbNewLine & vbNewLine} Dim sections() As String = Text.Split(sep, StringSplitOptions.None) Dim NewArray() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(vbNewLine) Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click For i = 0 To sections.Count - 1 TextBox2.Text = sections(i) Dim text2 As String = TextBox2.Text Dim sep2() As String = {vbNewLine & vbNewLine} Dim sections2() As String = Text.Split(sep, StringSplitOptions.None) Dim FTPinfo() As String = TextBox2.Text.Split(vbNewLine) Dim clsRequest As System.Net.FtpWebRequest = _ DirectCast(System.Net.WebRequest.Create(sections2(0).Replace("Url/Host:", "")), System.Net.FtpWebRequest) clsRequest.Credentials = New System.Net.NetworkCredential(sections2(1).Replace("Login:", ""), (sections2(2).Replace("Password:", ""))) clsRequest.Method = System.Net.WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile ' read in file... Dim bFile() As Byte = System.IO.File.ReadAllBytes(txtShellDir.Text) ' upload file... Dim clsStream As System.IO.Stream = clsRequest.GetRequestStream() clsStream.Write(bFile, 0, bFile.Length) clsStream.Close() clsStream.Dispose() Next End Sub Private Sub Button3_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button3.Click ListBox1.Items.Clear() Dim fdlg As OpenFileDialog = New OpenFileDialog() fdlg.Title = "Browse for the FTP List you wish to use." fdlg.InitialDirectory = Application.ExecutablePath fdlg.Filter = "All files (*.txt)|*.txt|txt files (*.txt)|*.txt" fdlg.FilterIndex = 2 fdlg.RestoreDirectory = True If fdlg.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then 'ListBox1.Items.AddRange(Split(My.Computer.FileSystem.ReadAllText(fdlg.FileName), vbNewLine)) TextBox1.Text = My.Computer.FileSystem.ReadAllText(fdlg.FileName) End If Dim tmp() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(CChar(vbNewLine)) For Each line As String In tmp If line.Length > 1 Then TextBox1.AppendText(line & vbNewLine) End If Next TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text.Replace(" ", "") TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text.Replace("----------------------------------------------------------", vbNewLine) For Each item As String In NewArray ListBox1.Items.Add(item) Next Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(dateCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(IPcrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(pcCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(programCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try TextBox1.Text = "" For Each thing As Object In ListBox1.Items TextBox1.AppendText(thing.ToString & vbNewLine) Next End Sub Private Sub Button4_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) For i = 0 To ListBox1.SelectedItems.Count - 1 TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text & ListBox1.Items.Item(i).ToString() & vbNewLine Next End Sub End Class

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• Parsing CSV: how can NSScanner recognize empty field (i.e. ,,)?

  - by Fabrizio Prosperi

  I am very new to Xcode and trying - as millions - to parse a CSV file. I have read many contributions and I am managing it but I have a problem when my NSScanner intercepts an empty field: "Field_A, Field_B,, Field_D". I guess it is because it ignores empty space by default, or in this case no space at all. String is: "Personal","2011-01-01","Personal","Cigarettes",,4.60,"Cash","", I tried to debug it using scanLocation: 2011-04-22 15:57:32.414 Spending[42015:a0f] Before while...scan location is:0 2011-04-22 15:57:32.414 Spending[42015:a0f] Account: "Personal" - scan location is:10 2011-04-22 15:57:32.415 Spending[42015:a0f] Date: "2011-01-01" - scan location is:23 2011-04-22 15:57:32.415 Spending[42015:a0f] Category: "Personal" - scan location is:34 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Subcategory: "Cigarettes" - scan location is:47 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Income: 4.600000 - scan location is:53 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Expense: 0.000000 - scan location is:53 2011-04-22 15:57:32.417 Spending[42015:a0f] Payment: "Cash" - scan location is:60 2011-04-22 15:57:32.417 Spending[42015:a0f] Note: "" - scan location is:63 And as you can see after that even expense field gets no value (should be 4.60). Here is the relevant piece of code: NSScanner *scanner = [NSScanner scannerWithString:fileString]; [scanner setCharactersToBeSkipped: [NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@"\n, "]]; NSString *account, *date, *category, *subcategory, *payment, *note; float income, expense; // Set up data delimiter using comma NSCharacterSet *commaSet; commaSet = [NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@","]; NSLog (@"Before while...scan location is:%d\n", scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&account]; NSLog(@"Account: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",account, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&date]; NSLog(@"Date: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",date, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&category]; NSLog(@"Category: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",category, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&subcategory]; NSLog(@"Subcategory: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",subcategory, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanFloat:&income]; NSLog(@"Income: %f - scan location is:%d\n",income, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanFloat:&expense]; NSLog(@"Expense: %f - scan location is:%d\n",expense, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&payment]; NSLog(@"Payment: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",payment, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&note]; NSLog(@"Note: %@\n - scan location is:%d",note, scanner.scanLocation); I tried looking carefully through NSScanner Class Reference, but could not get an idea? Do you have any? Thanks, Fabrizio.

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• get attributes from xml tree using linq

  - by nelsonwebs

  I'm working with an xml file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element1 xmlns="http://namespace1/"> <element2> <element3> <element4 attr1="2009-11-09"> <element5 attr2="NAME1"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="1" attr5="5.5" attr6="3.4"/> </element6> </element5> <element5 attr2="NAME2"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="3" attr5="4" attr6="4.5"/> </element6> </element5> </element4> </element3> </element2> </element1> Where I need to loop through element5 and retrieve the attributes in an Ienumberable like this: attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 using linq to xml and c#. I can loop through the element5 and get all the attribute2 info using but I can't figure out how to get the parent or child attributes I need. UPDATE: Thanks for the feeback thus far. For clarity, I need to do a loop through attribute5. So basically, what I have right now (which isn't much) is . . . XElement xel = XElement.Load(xml); IEnumberable<XElement> cList = from el in xel.Elements(env + "element2").Element (n2 + "element3").Elements(n2 + "element4").Elements(ns + "element5") select el; foreach (XElement e in cList) Console.WriteLine(e.Attribute("attr2").Value.ToString()); This will give me the value all the attr 2 in the loop but I could be going about this all wrong for what I'm trying to acheive. I also need to collect the other attributes mentioned above in a collection (the Console reference is just me playing with this right now but the end result I need is a collection). So the end results would be a collection like attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 2009-11-09, name1, 1, 1, 5.5, 3.4 2009-11-09, name2, 1, 3, 4, 4.5 Make Sense?

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• Need simple Twitter API v1.1 example to show timeline using jQuery or C# ASP.NET

  - by Ken Palmer

  With Twitter turning off the API 1.0 faucet on 6/11/2013, we have several sites that now fail to display timelines. I've been looking for an "If you did that, now do this" example. Here was Twitter's announcement. https://dev.twitter.com/blog/api-v1-is-retired Here is what we were originally doing to show the Twitter timeline via API 1.0. <div id="twitter"> <ul id="twitter_update_list"></ul> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> <div style="float:left;"><a href="https://twitter.com/companytwitterhandle" target="_blank">@companytwitterhandle</a> | </div> <div class="twitterimg">&nbsp;</div> </div> Initially I tried changing the version in the JavaScript reference URL like so, which did not work. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> Then I looked at the Twitter API documentation (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/overview) which lacks a clear transition example. I don't have 4 or 5 hours to delve into that, or into this disheveled FAQ (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/faq#17750). Then I found this API documentation regarding the user timeline. So I changed the URL again as shown below. https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/get/statuses/user_timeline <script type="text/javascript" src="https://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline.json?screen_name=companytwitterhandle&amp;count=1"></script> That did not work. Using jQuery or C# ASP.NET MVC, how can I transition that interface from Twitter API 1.0 to Twitter API 1.1? My first preference would be for a browser client side implementation if that is possible. Please include a code example. Thanks.

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