Search Results

Search found 61241 results on 2450 pages for 'empty set'.

Page 602/2450 | < Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >

  • PHP extend a class method that is called from another class which extends it and calls the method wi

    - by dan.codes
    I am trying to extend a class and override one of its methods. lets call that class A. My class, class B, is overiding a protected method. Class C extends class A and Class D extends class C. Inside of Class D, the method I am trying to overwrite is also extended here and that calls parent::mymethodimoverriding. That method does not exist in class C so it goes to it in class A. That is the method I am overiding in class B and obviously you can't extend A with B and have those changes show up in D since it does not fall in line with the class hierarchy. I might be wrong, so correct me please. so if my class b is called and ran then class D gets called it runs the method in A and overwrites what I had set. I am thinking there must be a way to get this to work, I am just missing something. here is an example, as you can see in class A there is a call to setTitle and it is set to "Example" In my class I set it to "NewExample". My class is getting called before class D so when class D is called it goes back to the parent and sets the title back to "Example" class A{ protected function _thefunction(){ setTitle("Example"); } } class B extends A{ protected function _thefunction(){ My new code here setTitle("NewExample"); } } class C extends A{ nothing that matters in here for what I am doing } class D extends C{ protected function _thefunction(){ parent::_thefunction(); additional code here } }

    Read the article

  • Concurrent Threads in C# using BackgroundWorker

    - by Jim Fell
    My C# application is such that a background worker is being used to wait for the acknowledgement of some transmitted data. Here is some psuedo code demonstrating what I'm trying to do: UI_thread { TransmitData() { // load data for tx // fire off TX background worker } RxSerialData() { // if received data is ack, set ack received flag } } TX_thread { // transmit data // set ack wait timeout // fire off ACK background worker // wait for ACK background worker to complete // evaluate status of ACK background worker as completed, failed, etc. } ACK_thread { // wait for ack received flag to be set } What happens is that the ACK BackgroundWorker times out, and the acknowledgement is never received. I'm fairly certain that it is being transmitted by the remote device because that device has not changed at all, and the C# application is transmitting. I have changed the ack thread from this (when it was working)... for( i = 0; (i < waitTimeoutVar) && (!bAckRxd); i++ ) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1); } ...to this... DateTime dtThen = DateTime.Now(); DateTime dtNow; TimeSpan stTime; do { dtNow = DateTime.Now(); stTime = dtNow - dtThen; } while ( (stTime.TotalMilliseconds < waitTimeoutVar) && (!bAckRxd) ); The latter generates a very acurate wait time, as compared to the former. However, I am wondering if removal of the Sleep function is interferring with the ability to receive serial data. Does C# only allow one thread to run at a time, that is, do I have to put threads to sleep at some time to allow other threads to run? Any thoughts or suggestions you may have would be appreciated. I am using Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

    - by iKenndac
    Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

    Read the article

  • Bind to a collection's view and just call ToString() in WPF

    - by womp
    I'm binding a GridView to a collection of objects that look like this: public class Transaction { public string PersonName { get; set; } public DateTime TransactionDate { get; set; } public MoneyCollection TransactedMoney { get; set;} } MoneyCollection simply inherits from ObservableCollection<T>, and is a collection of MyMoney type object. In my GridView, I just want to bind a column to the MoneyCollection's ToString() method. However, binding it directly to the TransactedMoney property makes every entry display the text "(Collection)", and the ToString() method is never called. Note that I do not want to bind to the items in MoneyCollection, I want to bind directly to the property itself and just call ToString() on it. I understand that it is binding to the collection's default view. So my question is - how can I make it bind to the collection in such a way that it calls the ToString() method on it? This is my first WPF project, so I know this might be a bit noobish, but pointers would be very welcome.

    Read the article

  • Append to the end of a Char array in C++

    - by Taylor Huston
    Is there a command that can append one array of char onto another? Something that would theoretically work like this: //array1 has already been set to "The dog jumps " //array2 has already been set to "over the log" append(array2,array1); cout << array1; //would output "The dog jumps over the log"; This is a pretty easy function to make I would think, I am just surprised there isn't a built in command for it. *Edit I should have been more clear, I didn't mean changing the size of the array. If array1 was set to 50 characters, but was only using 10 of them, you would still have 40 characters to work with. I was thinking an automatic command that would essentially do: //assuming array1 has 10 characters but was declared with 25 and array2 has 5 characters int i=10; int z=0; do{ array1[i] = array2[z]; ++i; ++z; }while(array[z] != '\0'); I am pretty sure that syntax would work, or something similar.

    Read the article

  • C++ STL question related to insert iterators and overloaded operators

    - by rshepherd
    #include <list> #include <set> #include <iterator> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In standard C++ fashion the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

    Read the article

  • Strange response from WCF service, how to return json easily

    - by Exitos
    I want to get a service to respond with just JSON. I have written the following code: namespace BM.Security { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class AssocFileService { [OperationContract] [WebGet(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public List<Person> GetPeople(int message) { List<Person> myList = new List<Person>(); Person p = new Person() { Age = 28, Name="Name1" }; Person p2 = new Person() { Age = 26, Name = "Name2" }; myList.Add(p); myList.Add(p2); return myList; } } [DataContract] public class Person { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Age { get; set; } } } But im getting the following JSON back which is really wierd... { "d" : [ { "Age" : 28, "Name" : "Name1", "__type" : "Person:#Bm.Security" }, { "Age" : 26, "Name" : "Name2", "__type" : "Person:#BM.Security" } ] } I'm totally stumped by the "d" no idea where that has come from. And also by the __type variable, no thanks don't really want that in my Json :-( How do I set the root node in my data to replace that d? Where did the d come from? So many questions... Hope someone can help....

    Read the article

  • MVC3 html.TextBox

    - by BigTommy79
    I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

    Read the article

  • page variable in a repeater

    - by carrot_programmer_3
    Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

    Read the article

  • How can I change the default startup directory for cmd.exe?

    - by Nano HE
    Hi. My Procedure last day as below Click Start, Run and type Regedit.exe Navigate to the following branch: HKEY_CURRENT_USER \ Software \ Microsoft \ Command Processor In the right-pane, double-click Autorun and set the startup folder path as its data, preceded by “CD /d “. If Autorun value is missing, you need to create one, of type REG_EXPAND_SZ or REG_SZ in the above location. Example: To set the startup directory to D:\learning\perl, set the Autorun value data to CD /d D:\learning\perl Then I clicked Start, run and type cmd. It successfully. I could do perl practice more conveniently now. But today, I find when I try to build my Visual Studio 2005 solution which included some Pre-build event Command like this: perl.exe MyAppVersion.pl perl.exe AttrScan.pl It doesn't work. Show error: can't find the path. I check the environment variable setting and find the variable-path and it's value-c:\perl\bin\; still exist. Finially, I try to removed the Regedit.exe configuration "Autorun" value and test again. The issue fixed. I only changed the default startup directory for cmd.exe command. Why the pre-build event perl command was impacted? (I am using winxp and activePerl 5.8)

    Read the article

  • C# Timer -- measuring time slower

    - by Fassenkugel
    I'm writing a code where: I.) The user adds "events" during run-time. (To a flowlayoutpanel) These events are turning some LEDs on/off, after "x" time has elapsed and the LED-turning functions are written in a Led-function.cs class. i.e: 1) Turn left led on After 3500ms 2) Turn right led on After 4000ms II.) When the user hits start a timer starts. // Create timer. System.Timers.Timer _timer; _timer = new System.Timers.Timer(); _timer.Interval = (1); _timer.Elapsed += (sender, e) => { HandleTimerElapsed(LedObject, device, _timer); }; _timer.Start(); III.) The timer's tick event is raised every millisecond and checks if the user definied time has ellapsed. Im measuring the elapsed time with adding +1 to an integer at every tick event. (NumberOfTicks++;) //Timer Handle private void HandleTimerElapsed(Led_Functions LedObject, string device, System.Timers.Timer _timer) { NumberOfTicks++; if (NumberOfTicks >= Start_time[0]) { LedObject.LeftLED_ONnobutton(device); } } IV.) What I noticed was that when the tick was set to 1. (So the tick event is raised every millisecond) Even if I set 3000ms to the evet the LED actually flashed around 6 seconds. When the tick was set to 100. (So every 0,1s) then the flash was more accurate (3,5sec or so). Any Ideas why im having this delay in time? Or do you have any ideas how could I implement it better? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

    Read the article

  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

    Read the article

  • Checking servlet session attribute value in jsp file

    - by Marta
    I have a no framework java application. It consists of jsp files for view and servlets for the business logic. I must set the user session is the servlet with a firstName parameter. In the jsp file, I need to check if my firstName parameter has a value or not. If the firstName parameter is set, I need to display some html in the jsp file. If it is not set, I need to display different html in the jsp file. Servlet.java: HttpSession session = request.getSession(); session.setAttribute("firstName", customer.getFristName()); String url = "/index.jsp"; RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); dispatcher.forward(request, response); header.jsp: // Between the <p> tags bellow I need to put some HTML with the following rules // If firstName exist: Hello ${firstName} <a href="logout.jsp">Log out</a> // Else: <a href="login.jsp">Login</a> or <a href="register.jsp">Register</a> <p class="credentials" id="cr"></p> What would be the best way to do this? Any help is much appreciated! Thank you in advance. -Marta

    Read the article

  • Does anyone know of any good tutorials for using the APIs from Amazon WeB Services, namely CloudWatc

    - by undefined
    Hi, I have been wrestling with Amazon's CloudWatch API with limited success. Does anyone know of any good resources (other than amazon's api docs) for using the APIs. I have tried to run them using the PHP library for CloudWatch but get nothing but error codes. I am configuring the GetMetricStatisticsSample.php file as follows: $request = array(); $endTime = date("Y-m-d G:i:s"); $yesterday = mktime (date("H"), date("i"), date("s"), date("m"), date("d")-1, date("Y")); $startTime = date("Y-m-d 00:00:00", $yesterday); $request["Statistics.member.1"] = "Average"; $request["EndTime"] = $endTime; $request["StartTime"] = $startTime; $request["MeasureName"] = "CPUUtilization"; $request["Unit"] = "Percent"; invokeGetMetricStatistics($service, $request); But this returns "Caught Exception: Internal Error Response Status Code: 400 Error Code: Error Type: Request ID: XML:" I have also tried from command line as follows - set JAVA_HOME=C:\Program Files\Java\jre1.6.0_05 set AWS_CLOUDWATCH_HOME=C:\AmazonWebServices\API_tools\CloudWatch-1.0.0.24 set PATH=%AWS_CLOUDWATCH_HOME%\bin mon-list-metrics but get C:|Program' is not recognized as an internal or external command... any suggestions? cheers

    Read the article

  • Flex: Scale an Image so that its width matches contentWidth?

    - by Tong Wang
    I have a dynamic layout, where an image is loaded into an HBox: <mx:HBox ...> <mx:Image height="100%" .../> </mx:HBox> only the image's height is set on the image, so that it can take all the vertical space available, while its width is left undefined and I expect the width to scale accordingly with its height. It turns out that the image's height is equal to its contentHeight, i.e. height scales properly; however, the image's width is still the same as measuredWidth (the image's original width), and is not scaled accordingly. For example, if the image's original size is 800x600 and if the HBox is 300 in height, then image height will scale down to 300, however its width doesn't scale down to 400, instead it stays at 800. I tried to add an event listener to explicitly set the image width: <mx:Image id="img" height="100%" updateComplete="img.width=img.contentWidth;" .../> It works only the first time the image is loaded, after that, if I use Image.load() to dynamically load different images, it stops working - the image width is set to 0. Any help/advice will be highly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic content in a Gridview

    - by mariki
    I have a gridview with couple of columns,I want to achieve the following: If user is NOT authorized display normal columns. If user IS authorized: set mouseover event for first column text and display some buttons (that are not available for NOT authorized users) in a second column when user hover over(using javascript) the first column. I am have 2 difficulties: The first one where and when should I create the buttons? I have 2 options, I can create those button on design time, in gridviews template and just set Visible value to false and then in codebehind set it to true if user is authorized. The second option would be creating this buttons dynamically in gridview_RowCreated event (or any other event) if user is authorized. The Second difficulty is setting the javascript event to show the buttons, the event should be added only if user is authorized! Note that event and buttons should have some kind of id match for Javascript function to know what should it hide/unhide when event is triggered. What should I do, what is the best practice? I know this is a long question, but please try to help :)

    Read the article

  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

    Read the article

  • Optimize SQL query (Facebook-like application)

    - by fabriciols
    My application is similar to Facebook, and I'm trying to optimize the query that get user records. The user records are that he as src ou dst. The src is in usermuralentry directly, the dst list are in usermuralentry_user. So, a entry can have one src and many dst. I have those tables: mysql> desc usermuralentry ; +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | user_src_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | private | tinyint(1) | NO | | NULL | | | content | longtext | NO | | NULL | | | date | datetime | NO | | NULL | | | last_update | datetime | NO | | NULL | | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ 10 rows in set (0.10 sec) mysql> desc usermuralentry_user ; +-------------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-------------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | usermuralentry_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | userinfo_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | NULL | | +-------------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the following query to retrieve information from two users. mysql> explain SELECT * FROM usermuralentry AS a , usermuralentry_user AS b WHERE a.user_src_id IN ( 1, 2 ) OR ( a.id = b.usermuralentry_id AND b.userinfo_id IN ( 1, 2 ) ); +----+-------------+-------+------+-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+------+---------+------+---------+------------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+------+---------+------+---------+------------------------------------------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | b | ALL | usermuralentry_id,usermuralentry_user_bcd7114e,usermuralentry_user_6b192ca7 | NULL | NULL | NULL | 147188 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | a | ALL | PRIMARY | NULL | NULL | NULL | 1371289 | Range checked for each record (index map: 0x1) | +----+-------------+-------+------+-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+------+---------+------+---------+------------------------------------------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) but it is taking A LOT of time... Some tips to optimize? Can the table schema be better in my application?

    Read the article

  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

    Read the article

  • C# MVVM Calculating Total

    - by LnDCobra
    I need to calculate a trade value based on the selected price and quantity. How can The following is my ViewModel: class ViewModel : ViewModelBase { public Trade Trade { get { return _trade; } set { SetField(ref _trade, value, () => Trade); } } private Trade _trade; public decimal TradeValue { get { return Trade.Amount * Trade.Price; } } } ViewModelBase inherits INotifyPropertyChanged and contains SetField() The Following is the Trade class: public class Trade : INotifyPropertyChaged { public virtual Decimal Amount { get { return _amount; } set { SetField(ref _amount, value, () => Amount); } } private Decimal _amount; public virtual Decimal Price { get { return _price; } set { SetField(ref _price, value, () => Price); } } private Decimal _price; ...... } I know due to the design my TradeValue only gets calculated once (when its first requested) and UI doesn't get updated when amount/price changes. What is the best way of achieving this? Any help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

    - by Tyler
    I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

    Read the article

  • MSSQL Server using multiple ID Numbers

    - by vincer
    I have an web application that creates printable forms, these forms have a unique number on them, the problem is I have 2 forms that separate numbers need to be created for them. ie) Form1- Numbered 2000000-2999999 Form2- Numbered 3000000-3999999 dbo.test2 - is my form information table Tsel - is my autoinc table for the 3000000 series numbers Tadv - is my autoinc table for the 2000000 series numbers What I have done is create 2 tables with just autoinc row (one for 2000000 series numbers and one for 3000000 series numbers), I then created a trigger to add a record to the coresponding table, read back the autoinc number and add it to my table that stores the form information including the just created autoinc number for the right series of forms. Although it does work, I'm concerned that the numbers will get messed up under load. I'm not sure the @@IDENTITY will always return the right value when many people are using the system. (I cannot have duplicates and I need to use the numbering form show above. Thanks for any help See code below. ** TRIGGER ** CREATE TRIGGER MAKEANID2 ON dbo.test2 AFTER INSERT AS SET NOCOUNT ON declare @someid int declare @someid2 int declare @startfrom int declare @test1 varchar(10) select @someid=@@IDENTITY select @test1 = (Select name1 from test2 where sysid = @someid ) if @test1 = 'select' begin insert into Tsel Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end if @test1 = 'adv' begin insert into Tadv Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end update test2 set name2=(@someid2) where sysid = @someid SET NOCOUNT OFF

    Read the article

  • cURL/PHP Request Executes 50% of the Time

    - by makavelli
    After searching all over, I can't understand why cURL requests issued to a remote SSL-enabled host are successful only 50% or so of the time in my case. Here's the situation: I have a sequence of cURL requests, all of them issued to a HTTPS remote host, within a single PHP script that I run using the PHP CLI. Occasionally when I run the script the requests execute successfully, but for some reason most of the times I run it I get the following error from cURL: * About to connect() to www.virginia.edu port 443 (#0) * Trying 128.143.22.36... * connected * Connected to www.virginia.edu (128.143.22.36) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * error:140943FC:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:sslv3 alert bad record mac * Closing connection #0 If I try again a few times I get the same result, but then after a few tries the requests will go through successfully. Running the script after that again results in an error, and the pattern continues. Researching the error 'alert bad record mac' didn't give me anything helpful, and I hesitate to blame it on an SSL issue since the script still runs occasionally. I'm on Ubuntu Server 10.04, with php5 and php5-curl installed, as well as the latest version of openssl. In terms of cURL specific options, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER is set to false, and both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT are set to 4 seconds. Further illustrating this problem is the fact that the same exact situation occurs on my Mac OS X dev machine - the requests only go through ~50% of the time.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >