Search Results

Search found 61241 results on 2450 pages for 'empty set'.

Page 601/2450 | < Previous Page | 597 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608  | Next Page >

  • How to use multiple identity numbers in one table?

    - by vincer
    I have an web application that creates printable forms, these forms have a unique number on them, the problem is I have 2 forms that separate numbers need to be created for them. ie) Form1- Numbered 2000000-2999999 Form2- Numbered 3000000-3999999 dbo.test2 - is my form information table Tsel - is my autoinc table for the 3000000 series numbers Tadv - is my autoinc table for the 2000000 series numbers What I have done is create 2 tables with just autoinc row (one for 2000000 series numbers and one for 3000000 series numbers), I then created a trigger to add a record to the coresponding table, read back the autoinc number and add it to my table that stores the form information including the just created autoinc number for the right series of forms. Although it does work, I'm concerned that the numbers will get messed up under load. I'm not sure the @@IDENTITY will always return the right value when many people are using the system. (I cannot have duplicates and I need to use the numbering form show above. See code below. ** TRIGGER ** CREATE TRIGGER MAKEANID2 ON dbo.test2 AFTER INSERT AS SET NOCOUNT ON declare @someid int declare @someid2 int declare @startfrom int declare @test1 varchar(10) select @someid=@@IDENTITY select @test1 = (Select name1 from test2 where sysid = @someid ) if @test1 = 'select' begin insert into Tsel Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end if @test1 = 'adv' begin insert into Tadv Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end update test2 set name2=(@someid2) where sysid = @someid SET NOCOUNT OFF

    Read the article

  • C# Timer -- measuring time slower

    - by Fassenkugel
    I'm writing a code where: I.) The user adds "events" during run-time. (To a flowlayoutpanel) These events are turning some LEDs on/off, after "x" time has elapsed and the LED-turning functions are written in a Led-function.cs class. i.e: 1) Turn left led on After 3500ms 2) Turn right led on After 4000ms II.) When the user hits start a timer starts. // Create timer. System.Timers.Timer _timer; _timer = new System.Timers.Timer(); _timer.Interval = (1); _timer.Elapsed += (sender, e) => { HandleTimerElapsed(LedObject, device, _timer); }; _timer.Start(); III.) The timer's tick event is raised every millisecond and checks if the user definied time has ellapsed. Im measuring the elapsed time with adding +1 to an integer at every tick event. (NumberOfTicks++;) //Timer Handle private void HandleTimerElapsed(Led_Functions LedObject, string device, System.Timers.Timer _timer) { NumberOfTicks++; if (NumberOfTicks >= Start_time[0]) { LedObject.LeftLED_ONnobutton(device); } } IV.) What I noticed was that when the tick was set to 1. (So the tick event is raised every millisecond) Even if I set 3000ms to the evet the LED actually flashed around 6 seconds. When the tick was set to 100. (So every 0,1s) then the flash was more accurate (3,5sec or so). Any Ideas why im having this delay in time? Or do you have any ideas how could I implement it better? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Get Multiple Values From Database ASP.NET/C#

    - by user1043177
    I am trying to get/return multiple values from an SQL-Server database using and display them on an ASP.NET page. I am using a stored procedure to perform the SELECT command on the Database side. I am able to return the first value that matches the variable @PERSON but only one row is returned each time. Any help would be much appreciated. Database handler class public MainSQL() { _productConn = new SqlConnection(); _productConnectionString += "data source=mssql.database.co.uk;InitialCatalog=test_data;User ID=username;Password=password"; _productConn.ConnectionString = _productConnectionString; } public string GetItemName(int PersonID) { string returnvalue = string.Empty; SqlCommand myCommand = new SqlCommand("GetItem", _productConn); myCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; myCommand.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@PERSON", SqlDbType.Int)); myCommand.Parameters[0].Value = PersonID; _productConn.Open(); returnvalue = (string)myCommand.ExecuteScalar(); _productConn.Close(); return (string)returnvalue; } Stored Procedure USE [test_data] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [ppir].[GetItem] ( @PERSON int ) AS /*SET NOCOUNT ON;*/ SELECT Description FROM [Items] WHERE PersonID = @PERSON RETURN return.aspx namespace test { public partial class Final_Page : System.Web.UI.Page { MainSQL GetInfo; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { int PersonId = (int)Session["PersonID"]; GetInfo = new MainSQL(); string itemname = GetInfo.GetItemName(PersonId); ReturnItemName.Text = itemname; } // End Page_Load } // End Class } // End Namespace

    Read the article

  • c# How to find if two objects are equal

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

    Read the article

  • WPF: How do I bind a Control to a formula composed of several dependency properties?

    - by Pablo
    Hi all, I'm working on Expression Blend and I'm currently designing a custom control which has a Grid with 5 rows inside, and also has two Dependency properties: "Value", and "Maximum". Three of the rows have fixed height, and what I'm trying to do is set the remaining rows height to "Value/Maximum" and "1-Value/Maximum" respectively. How do I go and do that? When I set the height to "Value" it seems to react, but when I go and set it to "Value/Maximum" it stops working. I'm still a bit new around WPF, so there must be another way to achieve what I'm intending, but after searching I couln't find my problem elsewhere. Code: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Width="Auto" Background="Transparent"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="32"/> <RowDefinition Height="{Binding Path=(Value/Maximum), ElementName=UserControl, Mode=Default}"/> <RowDefinition Height="16"/> <RowDefinition Height="{Binding Path=(1-Value/Maximum), ElementName=UserControl, Mode=Default}"/> <RowDefinition Height="32"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> (...) By the way, Value is always a not negative double less than or equal to Maximum; so the result of the division will be number between 0.0 a 1.0. I want a "star" instead of "pixel" row height.

    Read the article

  • MVC3 html.TextBox

    - by BigTommy79
    I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

    Read the article

  • Display Consistent Value of an Item using MVVM and WPF

    - by Blake Blackwell
    In my list view control (or any other WPF control that will fit the situation), I would like to have one TextBlock that stays consistent for all items while another TextBlock that changes based on the value in the ObservableCollection. Here is how my code is currently laid out: XAML <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock x:Name="StrVal" Text="{Binding StrVal}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ConstVal" Text="{Binding MyVM.ConstVal}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> Model public class MyItem { public string StrVal { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyVM { public MyVM() { ObservableCollection<MyItem> myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); for (int i = 0 ; i < 10; i++) myItems.Add(new MyItem { StrVal = i.ToString()}); MyItems = myItems; ConstVal = "1"; } public string ConstVal { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get; set; } } Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyVM(); The StrVal property repeats correctly in the ListView, but the ConstVal TextBlock does not show the ConstVal that is contained in the VM. I would guess that this is because the ItemsSource of the ListView is MyItems and I can't reference other variables outside of what is contained in the MyItems. My question is: How do I get ConstVal to show the value in the ViewModel for all listviewitems that will be controlled by the Observable Collection of MyItems.

    Read the article

  • Can we solve the table row background image problem, in chrome, in multi celled tables??

    - by Ya'el
    It is frequently asked – but I haven’t seen a good answer yet (and I looked). If you set a background image in CSS to a table row- the image will repeat itself in every cell. If you set the position: relative (for the row) and set the background-image: none (for the cells) it solves the problem on IE but not on chrome! I can't use background positioning since there are many calls and their size varies. (And the picture is not symmetrical- It's a fade out from one side. Anybody?? Example for the css code : tr { height: 30px; position:relative;} tr.green {background: url('green_30.png') no-repeat left top;} tr.orange {background: url('oranger_30.png') no-repeat left top;} tr.red {background: url('red_30.png') no-repeat left top;} td {background-image:none;} The HTML is basic - A multi cell table. The goal is to have different colors fade into every row, but it could be any non-pattern image.

    Read the article

  • jQuery hide all table rows which contain a hidden field matching a value

    - by Famous Nerd
    Though I don't doubt this has been answered I cannot find a great match for my question. I have a table for which I'd like to filter rows based on whether or not they contain a hidden field matching a value. I understand that the technique tends to be "show all rows", "filter the set", "show/hide that filtered set" I have the following jquery but I'm aweful with filter and my filtered set seems to always contain no elements. my table is the usual <table> <tr><td>header></td><td>&nbsp;</tr> <tr> <td>a visible cell</td><td><input type='hidden' id='big-asp.net-id' value='what-im-filtering-on' /> </td> </tr> </table> My goal is to be able to match on tr who's descendent contains a hidden input containing either true or false. this is how I've tried the selector (variations of this) and I'm not even testing for the value yet. function OnFilterChanged(e){ //debugger; var checkedVal = $("#filters input[type='radio']:checked").val(); var allRows = $("#match-grid-container .tabular-data tr"); if(checkedVal=="all"){ allRows.show(); } else if(checkedVal=="matched"){ allRows.show(); allRows.filter(function(){$(this).find("input[type='hidden'][id~='IsAutoMatchHiddenField']")}).hide(); } else if(checkedVal=="unmatched"){ } } Am I way off with the filter? is the $(this) required in the filter so that i can do the descendant searching? Thanks kindly

    Read the article

  • Debugging instance of another thread altering my data

    - by Mick
    I have a huge global array of structures. Some regions of the array are tied to individual threads and those threads can modify their regions of the array without having to use critical sections. But there is one special region of the array which all threads may have access to. The code that accesses these parts of the array needs to carefully use critical sections (each array element has its own critical section) to prevent any possibility of two threads writing to the structure simultaneously. Now I have a mysterious bug I am trying to chase, it is occurring unpredictably and very infrequently. It seems that one of the structures is being filled with some incorrect number. One obvious explanation is that another thread has accidentally been allowed to set this number when it should be excluded from doing so. Unfortunately it seems close to impossible to track this bug. The array element in which the bad data appears is different each time. What I would love to be able to do is set some kind of trap for the bug as follows: I would enter a critical section for array element N, then I know that no other thread should be able to touch the data, then (until I exit the critical section) set some kind of flag to a debugging tool saying "if any other thread attempts to change the data here please break and show me the offending patch of source code"... but I suspect no such tool exists... or does it? Or is there some completely different debugging methodology that I should be employing.

    Read the article

  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

    Read the article

  • MySQL error code:1329 in function

    - by Sharad Sharma
    DELIMITER // CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` FUNCTION `formatMovieNames`(lID int) RETURNS varchar(1000) CHARSET latin1 BEGIN DECLARE output varchar(1000); DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; declare a varchar(200); declare cur1 cursor for select fileName from swlp4_movie where movieID in (select movieID from lesson_movie_map where lessonID = lID order by lm_map_id); DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; open cur1; read_loop: loop fetch cur1 into a; if done = 1 then leave read_loop; end if; set output = concat(output, 'movie:[',a,']<br/>'); set output = substr(output, 0, length(@output)-5); end loop; close cur1; RETURN output; END// I have create this function and when I run it I do not get any output (select fileName from swlp4_movie where movieID in (select movieID from lesson_movie_map where lessonID = 24 order by lm_map_id)); brings correct result I am trying to get result as movie:['movieName']< br / movie:['movieName1'] and so on (had to change br tag, cause it was adding a line break) cant't figure out what I am doing wrong

    Read the article

  • slow mysql count because of subselect

    - by frgt10
    how to make this select statement more faster? the first left join with the subselect is making it slower... mysql> SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT w1.id) AS AMOUNT FROM tblWerbemittel w1 JOIN tblVorgang v1 ON w1.object_group = v1.werbemittel_id INNER JOIN ( SELECT wmax.object_group, MAX( wmax.object_revision ) wmaxobjrev FROM tblWerbemittel wmax GROUP BY wmax.object_group ) AS wmaxselect ON w1.object_group = wmaxselect.object_group AND w1.object_revision = wmaxselect.wmaxobjrev LEFT JOIN ( SELECT vmax.object_group, MAX( vmax.object_revision ) vmaxobjrev FROM tblVorgang vmax GROUP BY vmax.object_group ) AS vmaxselect ON v1.object_group = vmaxselect.object_group AND v1.object_revision = vmaxselect.vmaxobjrev LEFT JOIN tblWerbemittel_has_tblAngebot wha ON wha.werbemittel_id = w1.object_group LEFT JOIN tblAngebot ta ON ta.id = wha.angebot_id LEFT JOIN tblLieferanten tl ON tl.id = ta.lieferant_id AND wha.zuschlag = (SELECT MAX(zuschlag) FROM tblWerbemittel_has_tblAngebot WHERE werbemittel_id = w1.object_group) WHERE w1.flags =0 AND v1.flags=0; +--------+ | AMOUNT | +--------+ | 1982 | +--------+ 1 row in set (1.30 sec) Some indexes has been already set and as EXPLAIN shows they were used. +----+--------------------+-------------------------------+--------+----------------------------------------+----------------------+---------+-----------------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+--------------------+-------------------------------+--------+----------------------------------------+----------------------+---------+-----------------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | 1 | PRIMARY | <derived2> | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 2072 | | | 1 | PRIMARY | v1 | ref | werbemittel_group,werbemittel_id_index | werbemittel_group | 4 | wmaxselect.object_group | 2 | Using where | | 1 | PRIMARY | <derived3> | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 3376 | | | 1 | PRIMARY | w1 | eq_ref | object_revision,or_og_index | object_revision | 8 | wmaxselect.wmaxobjrev,wmaxselect.object_group | 1 | Using where | | 1 | PRIMARY | wha | ref | PRIMARY,werbemittel_id_index | werbemittel_id_index | 4 | dpd.w1.object_group | 1 | | | 1 | PRIMARY | ta | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | dpd.wha.angebot_id | 1 | | | 1 | PRIMARY | tl | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | dpd.ta.lieferant_id | 1 | Using index | | 4 | DEPENDENT SUBQUERY | tblWerbemittel_has_tblAngebot | ref | PRIMARY,werbemittel_id_index | werbemittel_id_index | 4 | dpd.w1.object_group | 1 | | | 3 | DERIVED | vmax | index | NULL | object_revision_uq | 8 | NULL | 4668 | Using index; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 2 | DERIVED | wmax | range | NULL | or_og_index | 4 | NULL | 2168 | Using index for group-by | +----+--------------------+-------------------------------+--------+----------------------------------------+----------------------+---------+-----------------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ 10 rows in set (0.01 sec) The main problem while the statement above takes about 2 seconds seems to be the subselect where no index can be used. How to write the statement even more faster? Thanks for help. MT

    Read the article

  • How to convert X/Y position to Canvas Left/Top properties when using ItemsControl

    - by kshahar
    I am trying to use a Canvas to display objects that have "world" location (rather than "screen" location). The canvas is defined like this: <Canvas Background="AliceBlue"> <ItemsControl Name="myItemsControl" ItemsSource="{Binding MyItems}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Canvas> <TextBlock Canvas.Left="{Binding WorldX}" Canvas.Top="{Binding WorldY}" Text="{Binding Text}" Width="Auto" Height="Auto" Foreground="Red" /> </Canvas> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </Canvas> MyItem is defined like this: public class MyItem { public MyItem(double worldX, double worldY, string text) { WorldX = worldX; WorldY = worldY; Text = text; } public double WorldX { get; set; } public double WorldY { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } } In addition, I have a method to convert between world and screen coordinates: Point worldToScreen(double worldX, double worldY) { // return screen coordinates using the canvas properties and an internal MapData object } With the current implementation, the items are positioned in the wrong location, because their location is not converted to screen coordinates. How can I apply the worldToScreen method on the MyItem objects before they are added to the canvas?

    Read the article

  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

    Read the article

  • Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

    - by David
    When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

    Read the article

  • Service behavior not being applied correctly

    - by Rubans
    I have a custom behavior for a service where I want to specify a receive timeout value, I have created a behavior and on the build service header. I use the declarative attribute to apply the behavior or as I thought. But the behavior seems to make no difference, i.e. the set timeout value is not being applied as expected. However when I have noticed the behavior is only being applied when the host is opened rather than when created. The same behavior when applied explicitly through does work. Any ideas? Behavior: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class BuildServiceBindingBehavior : Attribute, IServiceBehavior { public BuildServiceBindingBehavior( string p_receiveTime ) { ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.Parse( p_receiveTime ); } #region IServiceBehavior Members public void AddBindingParameters( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase, System.Collections.ObjectModel.Collection<ServiceEndpoint> endpoints, System.ServiceModel.Channels.BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters ) { } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase ) { // add this behavior to each endpoint foreach ( var endPoint in serviceDescription.Endpoints ) { endPoint.Binding.ReceiveTimeout = ReceiveTimeout; } } public void Validate( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase ) { } #endregion internal TimeSpan ReceiveTimeout { get; set; } } Service code: [ServiceBehavior(Name = "DotNetBuildsService", InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single )] // Set receieve time out [BuildServiceBindingBehavior( "0:0:1" )] public class BuildService : IBuildTasksService { //implementation code }

    Read the article

  • Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • addField type image and thumbnail path

    - by Christiaan
    Hello, I have a Magento webshop and just created a custom module with the extension (Modulecreator). This module comes with a standard admin interface that can handle file uploads. I found out that if you want to show thumbnails you can use the 'image' field type (addField('myfield', 'image')) instead of the 'file' type field. But now i've got a problem. When I upload files, I save them in a subdirectory called 'slides' in the 'media' directory. But when I edit the item, the image path for the thumbnail next to the uploadfield is set to the 'media' folder. Not my folder as I set it to 'media/slides/'. I use the following code: $fieldset->addField('filename', 'image', array( 'label' => Mage::helper('slideshow')->__('File'), 'required' => true, 'name' => 'filename', )); I tried to set a 'path' key in the array, but this doesn't get picked up by Magento. Hate the lack of support for good and easy to use documentation by Magento... Maybe you can help me out to find a solution?

    Read the article

  • jQuery innerHTML does not work properly (!)

    - by Kayes
    I was trying to build an <a> tag and set it in a <td> of a table. The string is built perfectly but when I set this as the innerHTML using jQuery, the string gets broken. I can't figure out why this is happening? Any clues? Here's the string I want to set in the <td>: <a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65', '498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1')'>Edit</a> But here is how it looks after setting as innerHTML: <A onclick="return EditIssueItemBatch(" ?498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1?)? 1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65?,>Edit</A> And the following is my code-snippet.. var tr = $("#itemIssueBatchListTable > tbody:last").children()[data.Index + 1]; ... ... var strBuff = []; strBuff.push("<a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.ItemCode_FK); strBuff.push("', '"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.StockDetCode_FK); strBuff.push("')'>Edit</a>"); tr.cells[9].innerHTML = strBuff.join(""); ... ...

    Read the article

  • How can I change the default startup directory for cmd.exe?

    - by Nano HE
    Hi. My Procedure last day as below Click Start, Run and type Regedit.exe Navigate to the following branch: HKEY_CURRENT_USER \ Software \ Microsoft \ Command Processor In the right-pane, double-click Autorun and set the startup folder path as its data, preceded by “CD /d “. If Autorun value is missing, you need to create one, of type REG_EXPAND_SZ or REG_SZ in the above location. Example: To set the startup directory to D:\learning\perl, set the Autorun value data to CD /d D:\learning\perl Then I clicked Start, run and type cmd. It successfully. I could do perl practice more conveniently now. But today, I find when I try to build my Visual Studio 2005 solution which included some Pre-build event Command like this: perl.exe MyAppVersion.pl perl.exe AttrScan.pl It doesn't work. Show error: can't find the path. I check the environment variable setting and find the variable-path and it's value-c:\perl\bin\; still exist. Finially, I try to removed the Regedit.exe configuration "Autorun" value and test again. The issue fixed. I only changed the default startup directory for cmd.exe command. Why the pre-build event perl command was impacted? (I am using winxp and activePerl 5.8)

    Read the article

  • How to avoid geometric slowdown with large Linq transactions?

    - by Shaul
    I've written some really nice, funky libraries for use in LinqToSql. (Some day when I have time to think about it I might make it open source... :) ) Anyway, I'm not sure if this is related to my libraries or not, but I've discovered that when I have a large number of changed objects in one transaction, and then call DataContext.GetChangeSet(), things start getting reaalllly slooowwwww. When I break into the code, I find that my program is spinning its wheels doing an awful lot of Equals() comparisons between the objects in the change set. I can't guarantee this is true, but I suspect that if there are n objects in the change set, then the call to GetChangeSet() is causing every object to be compared to every other object for equivalence, i.e. at best (n^2-n)/2 calls to Equals()... Yes, of course I could commit each object separately, but that kinda defeats the purpose of transactions. And in the program I'm writing, I could have a batch job containing 100,000 separate items, that all need to be committed together. Around 5 billion comparisons there. So the question is: (1) is my assessment of the situation correct? Do you get this behavior in pure, textbook LinqToSql, or is this something my libraries are doing? And (2) is there a standard/reasonable workaround so that I can create my batch without making the program geometrically slower with every extra object in the change set?

    Read the article

  • Navigating the timeline

    - by Dean 'Deacon' Beard
    O.K, being a little new to this, I have hit a brick wall, I'm using AS3 in Flash CS5. All I want to do is have a tweened animation which stops at a frame and which has a clickable button to access another part of the maintime line. Also there will be a button on the animation to skip it. How does one set this up? Obviously you need a stop(); at the stop frame of the time line and an event listener and function for both buttons right? Any more help besides that. I have it set up like this; totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 1; skipbutton.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,skipbuttonPress); function skipbuttonPress(evt:MouseEvent):void{ currentframelabel = currentframelabel+1; if(currentSlideNumber>=0){ currentframelabel = introstop; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(introstop); } and the frame it stops on is set up as follows stop(); totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 5; click01.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,click01Press); function click01Press( evt : MouseEvent ) : void { currentSlideNumber = currentSlideNumber+1; if (currentSlideNumber >= 0) { currentSlideNumber = 25; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(mainpage); } As I need this for a project, any help would be greatly valued. Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

    Read the article

  • How should I lock the table in this VB6 / Access application?

    - by Brian Hooper
    I'm working on a VB6 application using an Access database. The application writes messages to a log table from time to time. Several instances of the application may be running simultaneously and to distinguish them they each have their own run number. The run number is deduced from the log table thus... Set record_set = New ADODB.Recordset query_string = "SELECT MAX(RUN_NUMBER) + 1 AS NEW_RUN_NUMBER FROM ERROR_LOG" record_set.CursorLocation = adUseClient record_set.Open query_string, database_connection, adOpenStatic, , adCmdText record_set.MoveLast If IsNull(record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER")) Then run_number = 0 Else run_number = record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER") End If command_string = "INSERT INTO ERROR_LOG (RUN_NUMBER, SEVERITY, MESSAGE) " & _ " VALUES (" & Str$(run_number) & ", " & _ " " & Str$(SEVERITY_INFORMATION) & ", " & _ " 'Run Started'); " database_connection.Execute command_string Obviously there is a small gap between the calculation of the run number and the appearance of the new row in the database, and to prevent another instance getting access between the two operations I'd like to lock the table; something along the lines of SET TRANSACTION READ WRITE RESERVING ERROR_LOG FOR PROTECTED WRITE; How should I go about doing this? Would locking the recordset do any good (the row in the record set doesn't match any particular row in the database)?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 597 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608  | Next Page >