Search Results

Search found 17610 results on 705 pages for 'specific'.

Page 602/705 | < Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >

  • Visual SourceSafe (VSS): "Access to file (filename) denied" error

    - by tk-421
    Hi, can anybody help with the above SourceSafe error? I've spent hours trying to find a fix. I've also Googled the heck out of it but couldn't find a scenario matching mine, because in my case only a few files (not all) are affected. Here's what I found: only a few files in my project generate this error other files in the same directory (for example, App_Code has one of the problem files) work fine I've tried checking out from both the VSS client and Visual Studio another developer can check out the main problem file without any problems This sounds like a permission issue for my user, right? However: I found the location of one of the problem files in VSS's data directory (using VSS's naming format, as in 'fddaaaaa.a') and checked its permissions; everything looks fine and its permissions match those of other files I can check out successfully I can see no differences in the file properties between working and non-working files What else can I check? Has anyone encountered this problem before and found a solution? Thanks. P.S.: SourceGear, svn or git are not options, unfortunately. P.P.S.: Tried unsuccessfully to add tag "sourcesafe." EDIT: Hey Paddy, I tried to click 'add comment' to respond to your comment, but I'm getting a javascript error when loading this page in IE8 ("jquery undefined," etc.) so this isn't working. This is when checking out files, and yes, I've obliterated my local copy more times than I can remember. ;) EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses, guys (again I can't 'add comment' due to jQuery not loading, maybe blocked as discussed in Meta). If the problem was caused by antivirus or a bad disk, would other users still be able to check out the file(s)? That's the case here, which makes me think it's a permission issue specific to my account. However I've looked at the permissions and they match both other users' settings and settings on other files which I can check out.

    Read the article

  • File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

    - by Nikkelmann
    These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

    Read the article

  • guide for creating addins for Visual Studio 2010?

    - by JMarsch
    Hello: 2 questions actuall: Is there a good comprensive guide out there for creating add-ins for Visual Studio? Here's a weird specific problem -- I'm trying to get my add-in to load. The code that the wizard stubs into the OnConnect method will add it to the toolbar, but only if it passes this "if" statement: if (connectMode == ext_ConnectMode.ext_cm_UISetup) The problem is that connectMode never seems to equal ext_cm_UISetup. It always seems to equal ext_cm_AfterStartup, and My AddIn never appears on the toolbar. I could cheat and short-circuit the if, but since Visual Studio put that code there, I bet it's right, and I have something else wrong. According to the docs, the value should only ever be ext_cm_UISetup once -- the first time VS encounters the addin. So I probably need to somehow make VS forget about the add-in, but I can't find anywhere to do that. And by the way, isn't that exceptionally delicate? The reason I'm in this pickle is because I happened to get an exception on the first try, so now I can never try again?? Can't be right.

    Read the article

  • Can I have two names for the same variable?

    - by Roman
    The short version of the question: I do: x = y. Then I change x, and y is unchanged. What I want is to "bind" x and y in such a way that I change y whenever I change x. The extended version (with some details): I wrote a class ("first" class) which generates objects of another class ("second" class). In more details, every object of the second class has a name as a unique identifier. I call a static method of the first class with a name of the object from the second class. The first class checks if such an object was already generated (if it is present in the static HashMap of the first class). If it is already there, it is returned. If it is not yet there, it is created, added to the HashMap and returned. And then I have the following problem. At some stage of my program, I take an object with a specific name from the HashMap of the first class. I do something with this object (for example change values of some fields). But the object in the HashMap does not see these changes! So, in fact, I do not "take" an object from the HashMap, I "create a copy" of this object and this is what I would like to avoid.

    Read the article

  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

    Read the article

  • Best way to limit results in MySQL with user subcategories

    - by JM4
    I am trying to essentially solve for the following: 1) Find all users in the system who ONLY have programID 1. 2) Find all users in the system who have programID 1 AND any other active program. My tables structures (in very simple terms are as follows): users userID | Name ================ 1 | John Smith 2 | Lewis Black 3 | Mickey Mantle 4 | Babe Ruth 5 | Tommy Bahama plans ID | userID | plan | status --------------------------- 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 1 3 | 1 | 3 | 1 4 | 2 | 1 | 1 5 | 2 | 3 | 1 6 | 3 | 1 | 0 7 | 3 | 2 | 1 8 | 3 | 3 | 1 9 | 3 | 4 | 1 10 | 4 | 2 | 1 11 | 4 | 4 | 1 12 | 5 | 1 | 1 I know I can easily find all members with a specific plan with something like the following: SELECT * FROM users a JOIN plans b ON (a.userID = b.userID) WHERE b.plan = 1 AND b.status = 1 but this will only tell me which users have an 'active' plan 1. How can I tell who ONLY has plan 1 (in this case only userID 5) and how to tell who has plan 1 AND any other active plan? Update: This is not to get a count, I will actually need the original member information, including all the plans they have so a COUNT(*) response may not be what I'm trying to achieve.

    Read the article

  • Organising files and classes in XCode (iPhone application)

    - by pulegium
    It's a generic question and really a newbie one too, so bear with me... I'm playing with some iPhone development, and trying to create a simple "flip type" application. Nothing sophisticated, let's say on the flip side is a short application summary, bit like 'help' and on the main screen is a simple board game, let's say tic-tac-toe or similar. Now, XCode has generated me 'Main View', 'Flipside View' and 'Application Delegate' folders, with default template files in them. Now the question is where do I create appropriate 'MVC' classes? Let's say (V)iew classes are going to be the ones that have been automatically created. So the Flipside view class is responsible for generating text/images etc on the 'help' view. 'Main View' class is what draws the items on the table and updates the counters, etc. Where should I place the 'controller' class? And also, should it only be dealing with proxying only to the model? According to this the controller method is called from the view and manipulates the method classes. Similarly, the results from model are passed back to the view class by the controller issuing the calls to appropriate view methods. Similarly, where does the model class go? or should I just create a new folder for each, controller and model class files? What I'm after is the best practices, or just a short description how people normally structure their applications. I know it's very specific and also undefined... I came from Django background, so the way stuff is organised there is slightly different. Hope this makes sense, sorry if it's all bit vague, but I have to start somewhere :) And yes I've read quite few docs on the apple developer site, but trouble is that the documents are either going into too much detail about the language/framework/etc and the examples are way too simplistic. Actually, this leads me to the final question, has anyone know any good example of relatively complete application tutorial which I could use as a reference in organising my files?...

    Read the article

  • Why might one app connect to SQL backend OK and a second app fail if they share the same connectionstring?

    - by hawbsl
    Trying to figure out a SQL connection error 26 in our app. We've got two closely related apps Foo and FooAddIn. Foo is a Winforms app built in VS2010 and runs fine and connects fine to our SQLExpress back end. FooAddIn is an Outlook AddIn which references Foo.exe and connects to the same SQL Express instance. Or rather, it doesn't connect, instead reporting: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) Now, both apps share the same connectionstring and we've verified they really do share the same connectionstring. At this stage we're just testing from within the same developer machine, so the apps are on the same machine, going via the same VS2010 IDE. So a lot of the advice online for this error doesn't apply because the fact that Foo connects through to SQL Express tells us the database is there and available and can be reached. What else is there to check? One thing is that Foo and FooAddIn are running different runtime versions of System.Data (v2.0.50727 and v4.0.30319). Could that be a factor?

    Read the article

  • How can I qualify an autowired property with a variable from a config file using annotations?

    - by jiggy
    My specific problem is that I have configured two beans that implement the same interface and I have a third bean that has a property of that interface's type. I inject the property using a config property. So, assuming RemoteDataSource and LocalDataSource implement IDataSource and dao1 has a property of type IDataSource, my XML config might look like this: <bean id="datasource1" class="com.foo.RemoteDataSource"> <property name="url">${url}</property> </bean> <bean id="datasource2" class="com.foo.LocalDataSource"> <property name="path">${filepath}</property> </bean> <bean id="dao1" class="com.foo.MyDAO"> <property name="dataSource">${datasource}</property> </bean> With url, filepath and datasource being defined in an included properties file. We are now making a push for annotation-driven configuration and I'm not sure how to annotate my dao to put the data source configured in the property file. I want to do something like this, but it is evidently not allowed: @Autowired @Qualifier("${datasource}") public void setDataSource(IDataSource datasource) {...}

    Read the article

  • How to check if a position inside a std string exists ?? (c++)

    - by yox
    Hello, i have a long string variable and i want to search in it for specific words and limit text according to thoses words. Say i have the following text : "This amazing new wearable audio solution features a working speaker embedded into the front of the shirt and can play music or sound effects appropriate for any situation. It's just like starring in your own movie" and the words : "solution" , "movie". I want to substract from the big string (like google in results page): "...new wearable audio solution features a working speaker embedded..." and "...just like starring in your own movie" for that i'm using the code : for (std::vector<string>::iterator it = words.begin(); it != words.end(); ++it) { int loc1 = (int)desc.find( *it, 0 ); if( loc1 != string::npos ) { while(desc.at(loc1-i) && i<=80){ i++; from=loc1-i; if(i==80) fromdots=true; } i=0; while(desc.at(loc1+(int)(*it).size()+i) && i<=80){ i++; to=loc1+(int)(*it).size()+i; if(i==80) todots=true; } for(int i=from;i<=to;i++){ if(fromdots) mini+="..."; mini+=desc.at(i); if(todots) mini+="..."; } } but desc.at(loc1-i) causes OutOfRange exception... I don't know how to check if that position exists without causing an exception ! Help please!

    Read the article

  • Recover lost code from compiled apk

    - by AlexRamallo
    I have an issue here..and its making me really nervous. I was working on this game, and it was going great, so I took a copy of it on my laptop to work do some work while away from my computer. long story short, hard-drive failure + poor back ups led to me losing a very important class. Is there a way to decompile the apk to retrieve the bit of code that was lost? It isn't overly complicated or sophisticated, its just that its impossible to re-write it without reading every. single. line. of. code. in the entire application since it initializes a LOT of classes and loads a bunch of stuff in a specific way. With a quick google search I was able to find apktool, which decompiles it into a bunch of .smali files, which I don't think were designed for human reading. All I need to recover is one very big method in the class. I found the smali file that contains it and I think I found the line where it starts. something like .method public declared-synchronized load(Lcom/X/X/game/X;)I Anyone help would be appreciated since I would have to scrap the entire game without this method.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

    Read the article

  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

    Read the article

  • SQL Query to separate data into two fields

    - by Phillip
    I have data in one column that I want to separate into two columns. The data is separated by a comma if present. This field can have no data, only one set of data or two sets of data saperated by the comma. Currently I pull the data and save as a comma delimited file then use an FoxPro to load the data into a table then process the data as needed then I re-insert the data back into a different SQL table for my use. I would like to drop the FoxPro portion and have the SQL query saperate the data for me. Below is a sample of what the data looks like. Store Amount Discount 1 5.95 1 5.95 PO^-479^2 1 5.95 PO^-479^2 2 5.95 2 5.95 PO^-479^2 2 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 3 5.95 3 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 3 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 In the data above I want to sum the data in the amount field to get a gross amount. Then pull out the specific discount amount which is located between the carat characters and sum it to get the total discount amount. Then add the two together and get the total net amount. The query I want to write will separate the discount field as needed, see store 2 line 3 for two discounts being applied, then pull out the value between carat characters.

    Read the article

  • How to animate a path like it's being drawn, dot by dot? (Raphael.js)

    - by Anton
    How to animate a vector path like it's being drawn by hand? In other words, slowly show the path pixel by pixel. I'm using Raphaël.js, but if your answer is not library specific—like maybe there's some general programming pattern for doing that kind of thing (I'm fairly new to vector animation)—it's welcome! Update I know it's easy to do with straight paths, as easy as an example on that page:: path("M114 253").animate({path: "M114 253 L 234 253"}); But try to change code on that page, say, this way:: path("M114 26").animate({path: "M114 26 C 24 23 234 253 234 253"}); And you'll see what I mean. Path is certainly animated from it initial state (point "M114 26") to the end state (curve "C 24 23 234 253 234 253" starting on point "M114 26"), but not in a way specified in question, not like it's being drawn. (Sorry for not making clear from the start that I don't mean animating straight lines.) I don't see how animateAlong can do that either. It can animate an object along a path, and how can I make this path to gradually show itself while object is being animated along it?

    Read the article

  • How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

    - by brandon k
    I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

    Read the article

  • Generating an NSDictionary from an SQL statement.

    - by Ed Wist
    I am trying to generate an NSDictonary that can be used to populate a listview with data I retrieved from an SQL statement. when I go to create an array and add them it adds the arrays for ALL my keys and not just for the current key. I've tried a removeAllObjects on the array but for some reason that destroys ALL my data that I already put in the dictionary. //open the database if(sqlite3_open([dbPath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sql = "select alphaID, word from words order by word"; sqlite3_stmt *selectStatement; //prepare the select statement int returnValue = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &selectStatement, NULL); if(returnValue == SQLITE_OK) { NSMutableArray *NameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *alphaTemp = [[NSString alloc] init]; //loop all the rows returned by the query. while(sqlite3_step(selectStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *currentAlpha = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 1)]; NSString *definitionName = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 2)]; if (alphaTemp == nil){ alphaTemp = currentAlpha; } if ([alphaTemp isEqualToString:(NSString *)currentAlpha]) { [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } else if (alphaTemp != (NSString *)currentAlpha) { [self.words setObject:NameArray forKey:currentAlpha]; [NameArray removeAllObjects]; [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } } } The Statement above adds all the "keys" but then removes all the array elements for all keys. if I take out the removeAllKeys it adds ALL the array elements for ALL keys. I don't want this I want it to add the array elements FOR the specific key then move on to the next key. in the end I want a NSDictonary with A (array) Alpha (string) Apple (string) B (array) Beta (string) Ball (string) C (array) Code (string) ...

    Read the article

  • custom *arbitrary* TemplateField definitions

    - by end-user
    I'm building a GridView on the fly, and I'd like to pre-define the TemplateFields to be included ondemand. So, what I'd like to do is have a declarative file that defines how the different templates look for a specific column. Like: <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a text column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> data goes here </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox Text="databindhere" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a bool column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> if(true) "yes" else "no" </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox Checked="databindme" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> So, if my query had a text and two bool fields, I could push the appropriate TemplateFields in the the Columns property as needed. (I hope I'm making sense here) So, how would I go about creating declarative files for the above definitions? And then, how would I reference those definitions programmatically?

    Read the article

  • c# warn if text box is empty or contains a non-whole number

    - by Jamaul Smith
    In my specific case, I need the value in propertyPriceTextBox to be numeric only, and a whole number. A value also has to be entered, and I can just Messagebox.Show() a warning and that's all I'd need to do. This is what I have so far. private void computeButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { decimal propertyPrice; if ((decimal.TryParse(propertyPriceTextBox.Text, out propertyPrice))) decimal.Parse(propertyPriceTextBox.Text); { if (residentialRadioButton.Checked == true) commisionLabel.Text = (residentialCom * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (commercialRadioButton.Checked == true) commisionLabel.Text = (commercialCom * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (hillsRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = ( hilssTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (pascoRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = (pascoTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (polkRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = (polkTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); decimal result; result = (countySalesTaxTextBox.Text + stateSalesTaxTextBox.Text + propertyPriceTextBox.Text + comissionTextBox.Text).ToString("c"); } else (.) MessageBox.Show("Property Price must be a whole number."); }

    Read the article

  • What is the proper syntax for getting a Makefile to print the output directory of one of its output zip files?

    - by 9exceptionThrower9
    I'm trying to edit an Android Makefile in the hopes of getting it to print out the directory (path) location of one the ZIP files it creates. Ideally, since the build process is long and does many things, I would like for it print out the pathway to the ZIP file to a text file in a different directory I can access later: Pseudo-code idea: # print the desired pathway to output file print(getDirectoryOf(variable-name.zip)) > ~/Desktop/location_of_file.txt The Makefile snippet where I would like to insert this new bit of code is shown below. I am interested in finding the directory of $(name).zip (that is specific file I want to locate): # ----------------------------------------------------------------- # A zip of the directories that map to the target filesystem. # This zip can be used to create an OTA package or filesystem image # as a post-build step. # name := $(TARGET_PRODUCT) ifeq ($(TARGET_BUILD_TYPE),debug) name := $(name)_debug endif name := $(name)-target_files-$(FILE_NAME_TAG) intermediates := $(call intermediates-dir-for,PACKAGING,target_files) BUILT_TARGET_FILES_PACKAGE := $(intermediates)/$(name).zip $(BUILT_TARGET_FILES_PACKAGE): intermediates := $(intermediates) $(BUILT_TARGET_FILES_PACKAGE): \ zip_root := $(intermediates)/$(name) # $(1): Directory to copy # $(2): Location to copy it to # The "ls -A" is to prevent "acp s/* d" from failing if s is empty. define package_files-copy-root if [ -d "$(strip $(1))" -a "$$(ls -A $(1))" ]; then \ mkdir -p $(2) && \ $(ACP) -rd $(strip $(1))/* $(2); \ fi endef

    Read the article

  • How to draw a part of a window into a memory device context?

    - by Nell
    I'm using simple statements to keep it, er, simple: The screen goes from 0, 0 to 1000, 1000 (screen coordinates). A window goes from 100, 100 to 900, 900 (screen coordinates). I have a memory device context that goes from 0, 0 to 200, 200 (logical coordinates). I need to send a WM_PRINT message to the window. I can pass the device context to the window via WM_PRINT, but I cannot pass which part of its window it should draw into the device context. Is there some way to alter the device context that will result in the window drawing a specific part of itself into the device context (say, its bottom right portion from 700, 700 to 900, 900)? (This is all under plain old GDI and in C or C++. Any solution must be too.) Please note: This problem is part of a larger solution in which the device context size is fixed and speed is crucial, so I cannot draw the window in full into a separate device context and blit the part I want from the resultant full bitmap into my device context.

    Read the article

  • Is there any need for me to use wstring in the following case

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Currently, I am developing an app for a China customer. China customer are mostly switch to GB2312 language in their OS encoding. I need to write a text file, which will be encoded using GB2312. I use std::ofstream file I compile my application under MBCS mode, not unicode. I use the following code, to convert CString to std::string, and write it to file using ofstream std::string Utils::ToString(CString& cString) { /* Will not work correctly, if we are compiled under unicode mode. */ return (LPCTSTR)cString; } To my surprise. It just works. I thought I need to at least make use of wstring. I try to do some investigation. Here is the MBCS.txt generated. I try to print a single character named ? (its value is 0xBDC5) When I use CString to carry this character, its length is 2. When I use Utils::ToString to perform conversion to std::string, the returned string length is 2. I write to file using std::ofstream My question is : When I exam MBCS.txt using a hex editor, the value is displayed as BD (LSB) and C5 (MSB). But I am using little endian machine. Isn't hex editor should show me C5 (LSB) and BD (MSB)? I check from wikipedia. GB2312 seems doesn't specific endianness. It seems that using std::string + CString just work fine for my case. May I know in what case, the above methodology will not work? and when I should start to use wstring?

    Read the article

  • Passing objects across Appdomains

    - by MUSTAQ
    My issue is similar to the one posted in "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/981773/moving-objects-across-appdomains-in-net". In one of my application, I am creating a separate appdomain. I need to create an instance of a class (Note: this class is derived by MarshalByRefObject) in my parent domain and invoke a MethodA in that instance. This instance is created using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap". The problem is that this MethodA takes objects of type class as an argument. These objects are not created in the MethodB where i created the appdomain. It was passed as an argument to the MethodB where i create the appdomain. So is it necessary to create a new instance of these objects using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap" before passing it to the created domain. Not doing this gives me an error in the created domain mentioning that "MyClass object has no attribute foo" during some invocation. Please let me know how to pass the objects across appdomains and execute the method. My statements might be confusing, please let me know for any specific details required.

    Read the article

  • Convert Virtual Key Code to unicode string

    - by Joshua Weinberg
    I have some code I've been using to get the current keyboard layout and convert a virtual key code into a string. This works great in most situations, but I'm having trouble with some specific cases. The one that brought this to light is the accent key next to the backspace key on german QWERTZ keyboards. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:KB_Germany.svg That key generates the VK code I'd expect kVK_ANSI_Equal but when using a QWERTZ keyboard layout I get no description back. Its ending up as a dead key because its supposed to be composed with another key. Is there any way to catch these cases and do the proper conversion? My current code is below. TISInputSourceRef currentKeyboard = TISCopyCurrentKeyboardInputSource(); CFDataRef uchr = (CFDataRef)TISGetInputSourceProperty(currentKeyboard, kTISPropertyUnicodeKeyLayoutData); const UCKeyboardLayout *keyboardLayout = (const UCKeyboardLayout*)CFDataGetBytePtr(uchr); if(keyboardLayout) { UInt32 deadKeyState = 0; UniCharCount maxStringLength = 255; UniCharCount actualStringLength = 0; UniChar unicodeString[maxStringLength]; OSStatus status = UCKeyTranslate(keyboardLayout, keyCode, kUCKeyActionDown, 0, LMGetKbdType(), kUCKeyTranslateNoDeadKeysBit, &deadKeyState, maxStringLength, &actualStringLength, unicodeString); if(actualStringLength > 0 && status == noErr) return [[NSString stringWithCharacters:unicodeString length:(NSInteger)actualStringLength] uppercaseString]; }

    Read the article

  • MySQL query paralyzes site

    - by nute
    Once in a while, at random intervals, our website gets completely paralyzed. Looking at SHOW FULL PROCESSLIST;, I've noticed that when this happens, there is a specific query that is "Copying to tmp table" for a loooong time (sometimes 350 seconds), and almost all the other queries are "Locked". The part I don't understand is that 90% of the time, this query runs fine. I see it going through in the process list and it finishes pretty quickly most of the time. This query is being called by an ajax call on our homepage to display product recommendations based your browsing history (a la amazon). Just sometimes, randomly (but too often), it gets stuck at "copying to tmp table". Here is a caught instance of the query that was up 109 seconds when I looked: SELECT DISTINCT product_product.id, product_product.name, product_product.retailprice, product_product.imageurl, product_product.thumbnailurl, product_product.msrp FROM product_product, product_xref, product_viewhistory WHERE ( (product_viewhistory.productId = product_xref.product_id_1 AND product_xref.product_id_2 = product_product.id) OR (product_viewhistory.productId = product_xref.product_id_2 AND product_xref.product_id_1 = product_product.id) ) AND product_product.outofstock='N' AND product_viewhistory.cookieId = '188af1efad392c2adf82' AND product_viewhistory.productId IN (24976, 25873, 26067, 26073, 44949, 16209, 70528, 69784, 75171, 75172) ORDER BY product_xref.hits DESC LIMIT 10 Of course the "cookieId" and the list of "productId" changes dynamically depending on the request. I use php with PDO.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >