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Hide div based on url

- by Ghetto Styles

Sorry if this is another repost. I have been attempting to find a solution but nothing works that I have tried. I am using a blog which I have full html control over. I can usually find my way around basic html but when it comes to Java or CSS I am a complete newb. Sorry, I know absolutely nothing. Now that that is out of the way. I have two sidebar div's that I am trying to hide on one specific url to utilize more space for a content iframe. This is one of the coded I have tried to use which doesn't seem to work or I am missing something. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script language="text/javascript" <?php $(function(){ if (window.location.search === "mywebsite/Videos.html") { $('#navleft').hide(); } else { $('#navleft').show(); } }); ?> </script> Please remember I do not know anything when it comes to php or java. I want to do this for both #navright and #navleft. Also this is in the CSS section. Thanks for any help!! #navright{ width: 200px; } #navleft{ width: 200px; } #content{ margin:0px; }

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PHP Fix Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent...

- by Storm Kiernan

Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/blocexco/public_html/homepage.php:73) in /home/blocexco/public_html/classes/mysql/mysql.security.php on line 99 This error is repeated a second time for mysql.security.php on line 100. homepage:73 <div class="login"> <?php require_once 'login.php'; ?> </div> mysql.security.php: 99-100 setcookie('username', "", time() - (60 * 60 * 24 * 365)); setcookie('password', "", time() - (60 * 60 * 24 * 365)); I know this isn't a "BOM" issue as I've read about. There is output before and after my calls to header() and setcookie() functions - this is necessary since the homepage includes a php file which then injects the right login or logout form. I've heard about using ob_start() at the beginning of content, but that's not a very specific instruction...I tried placing it at the beginning of homepage.php (just before the html tag) and that didn't fix anything. I'm new to PHP (a few days in, and new to web-app dev in general). To be honest, it blows my mind that I can't just change which page I am on, via php without bending over backwards...

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.NET: bool vs enum as a method parameter

- by Julien Lebosquain

Each time I'm writing a method that takes a boolean parameter representing an option, I find myself thinking: "should I replace this by an enum which would make reading the method calls much easier?". Consider the following with an object that takes a parameter telling whether the implementation should use its thread-safe version or not (I'm not asking here if this way of doing this is good design or not, only the use of the boolean): public void CreateSomeObject(bool makeThreadSafe); CreateSomeObject(true); When the call is next to the declaration the purpose of the parameter seems of course obvious. When it's in some third party library you barely know, it's harder to immediately see what the code does, compared to: public enum CreationOptions { None, MakeThreadSafe } public void CreateSomeObject(CreationOptions options); CreateSomeObject(CreationOptions.MakeThreadSafe); which describes the intent far better. Things get worse when there's two boolean parameters representing options. See what happened to ObjectContext.SaveChanges(bool) between Framework 3.5 and 4.0. It has been obsoleted because a second option has been introduced and the whole thing has been converted to an enum. While it seems obvious to use an enumeration when there's three elements or more, what's your opinion and experiences about using an enum instead a boolean in these specific cases?

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Data not transfred from form to mysql table (updating of data is not happening)

- by Jimson

Hi all and thanks in advance to all for this I tired and was unable to find the answer i am looking for an answer. my problem is that i am unable to update the values enterd in the form. I have attached all the files i'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. what happens is that i'm able to add and delete records from form using ajax and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but i am not able to update data which was retrived from database. the file structure is as follows index.php is a file with ajax functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refrishing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - *Delete*is an ajax function called from index.php to delete record from mysql database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an ajax function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from mysql tabel, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is wrriten for mysql) i had tried in many ways at last i had figured out that data is not being transfred from update-form.php to update.php there is a small problem in jquery ajax function where it is not transfering data to update.php page. can any one correct this ????? i will be greatfull to them..... please find the link below for all files link to get my form files

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C# Hook Forms / Windows / Dialogs etc. (via HWND?) to Capture Video Buffer (D3D Device?)

- by Drax

I am looking to create a very simple C# application which runs Full-Screen in Direct3D, and is able to grab the Desktop 'scene', mapping each Window from the Desktop to a Textured Polygon in my D3D Scene... I'm hoping to create a simplistic "3D Desktop" type of application as an experiment, and I'm wondering if there is a specific method for doing something like the following: 1)Get a list of all the Windows open on the Desktop (List of HWNDs?). 2)Grab the X,Y position of each Window, as well as the Width and Height. 3)Grab the Rendered image of each Window (magic happens here). 4)Create a new Texture/Surface in D3D using the Width and Height of the Window(s), and apply the Image we grabbed as a Texture. Is there an efficient 'best practice' for acquiring the actual image(s) being rendered to the Desktop? Is there also a 'best practice' for "extending the desktop" to a virtual second, third, etc. "desktop" and being able to swap between them, including creating a unique instance of the task-bar for each virtual desktop. Thanks a million for any suggestions!

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Defining EditText imeOptions when using InputMethodManager.showSoftInput(View, int, ResultReceiver)

- by TuomasR

In my application I have a custom view which requires some text input. As the view in itself doesn't contain any actual views (it's a Surface with custom drawing being done), I have a FrameLayout which contains the custom view and underneath it an EditText -view. When the user does a specific action, the custom view is hidden and the EditText takes over for user input. This works fine, but android:imeOptions seem to be ignored for this view. I'm currently doing this: InputMethodManager inputMethodManager = (InputMethodManager)parent.getSystemService(Context.INPUT_METHOD_SERVICE); EditText t = (EditText)parent.findViewById(R.id.DummyEditor); t.setImeOptions(EditorInfo.IME_ACTION_DONE); inputMethodManager.showSoftInput(t, 0, new ResultReceiver(mHandler) { @Override protected void onReceiveResult( int resultCode, Bundle resultData) { // We're done System.out.println("Editing done : " + ((EditText)parent.findViewById(R.id.DummyEditor)).getText()); } } ); It seems that the setImeOptions(EditorInfo.IME_ACTION_DONE) has no effect. I've also tried adding the option to the layout XML with android:imeOptions="actionDone". No help. Any ideas?

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Icons in menu are smaller than they should be

- by martinpelant

Hello I have a little problem. All the icons in my apk are smaller than the same icons in other apps (Gmail etc.) This is how it looks like in my apk and this is the same icon in Gmail.apk. I have copied these icons directly from SDK to the specific folders for hdpi, mdpi and ldpi. Here is an example of a hdpi icon I use and my menu.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:id="@+id/refresh" android:title="@string/refresh" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_refresh" /> <item android:id="@+id/add" android:title="@string/add" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_add" /> <item android:id="@+id/login" android:title="@string/account" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_login" /> </menu> Does anybody know how to make these icon have the same size as in other apk's? I have tried the asset studio with no effect. UPDATE: If I reference an icon directly from android (android:drawable) then it has normal size. However not all icons can be referenced.

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.NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

- by jdk

Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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Selective replication with CouchDB

- by FRotthowe

I'm currently evaluating possible solutions to the follwing problem: A set of data entries must be synchonized between multiple clients, where each client may only view (or even know about the existence of) a subset of the data. Each client "owns" some of the elements, and the decision who else can read or modify those elements may only be made by the owner. To complicate this situation even more, each element (and each element revision) must have an unique identifier that is equal for all clients. While the latter sounds like a perfect task for CouchDB (and a document based data model would fit my needs perfectly), I'm not sure if the authentication/authorization subsystem of CouchDB can handle these requirements: While it should be possible to restict write access using validation functions, there doesn't seem to be a way to authorize read access. All solutions I've found for this problem propose to route all CouchDB requests through a proxy (or an application layer) that handles authorization. So, the question is: Is it possible to implement an authorization layer that filters requests to the database so that access is granted only to documents that the requesting client has read access to and still use the replication mechanism of CouchDB? Simplified, this would be some kind of "selective replication" where only some of the documents, and not the whole database is replicated. I would also be thankful for directions to some detailed information about how replication works. The CouchDB wiki and even the "Definite Guide" Book are not too specific about that.

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Simulating a 2-level If-Else using RewriteCond

- by hlissner

Hi! I'm trying to get my head around RewriteCond, and want to rewrite any requests either to a static html page (if it exists), or to a specific index.php (so long as the requested file doesn't exist). To illustrate the logic: if HTTP_HOST is '(www\.)?mydomain.com' if file exists: "/default/static/{REQUEST_URI}.html", then rewrite .* to /default/static/{REQUEST_URI}.html else if file exists: {REQUEST_FILENAME}, then do not rewrite else rewrite .* to /default/index.php I don't seem to have much trouble doing it when I don't need to test for the HTTP_HOST. Ultimately, this one .htaccess file will be handling requests for several domains. I know I could get around this with vhosts, but I'd like to figure out how to do it this way. Here's where I am at now: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?mydomain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond /default/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html -f RewriteRule . /default/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule . /default/index.php [L,QSA] I'm not too familiar with some of the other flags, will any of them be of use here (like chain|C, next|N or skip|S)? Thanks in advance! UPDATE: I've managed to do it, but would appreciate alternatives: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ /$1 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(domainA|domainB)\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}/%1/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html -f RewriteRule (.*)? /%1/static/$1.html [NC,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(domainA|domainB)\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule .* /%1/index.php [L,QSA]

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Using sortable_element in Rails on a list generated by a find()

- by Eli B.

Hey all, I'm trying to use the scriptaculous helper method sortable_element to implement a drag-and-drop sortable list in my Rails application. While the code for the view looks pretty simple, I'm really not quite sure what to write in the controller to update the "position" column. Here's what I've got in my view, "_show_related_pgs.erb": <ul id = "interest_<%=@related_interest.id.to_s%>_siblings_list"> <%= render :partial => "/interests/peer_group_map", :collection => @maps, :as => :related_pg %> </ul> <%= sortable_element("interest_"+@related_interest.id.to_s+"_siblings_list", :url => {:action => :resort_related_pgs}, :handle => "drag" ) %> <br/> And here's the relevant line from the partial, "interests/peer_group_map.erb" <li class = "interest_<%=@related_interest.id.to_s%>_siblings_list" id = "interest_<%=related_pg.interest_id.to_s%>_siblings_list_<%=related_pg.id.to_s%>"> The Scriptaculous UI magic works fine with these, but I am unsure as to how to change the "position" column in the db to reflect this. Should I be passing the collection @maps back to the controller and tell it to iterate through that and increment/decrement the attribute "position" in each? If so, how can I tell which item was moved up, and which down? I couldn't find anything specific using Chrome dev-tools in the generated html. After each reordering, I also need to re-render the collection @maps since the position is being printed out next to the name of each interest (I'm using it as the "handle" specified in my call to sortable_element() above) - though this should be trivial. Any thoughts? Thanks, -e

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Does the Java Memory Model (JSR-133) imply that entering a monitor flushes the CPU data cache(s)?

- by Durandal

There is something that bugs me with the Java memory model (if i even understand everything correctly). If there are two threads A and B, there are no guarantees that B will ever see a value written by A, unless both A and B synchronize on the same monitor. For any system architecture that guarantees cache coherency between threads, there is no problem. But if the architecture does not support cache coherency in hardware, this essentially means that whenever a thread enters a monitor, all memory changes made before must be commited to main memory, and the cache must be invalidated. And it needs to be the entire data cache, not just a few lines, since the monitor has no information which variables in memory it guards. But that would surely impact performance of any application that needs to synchronize frequently (especially things like job queues with short running jobs). So can Java work reasonably well on architectures without hardware cache-coherency? If not, why doesn't the memory model make stronger guarantees about visibility? Wouldn't it be more efficient if the language would require information what is guarded by a monitor? As i see it the memory model gives us the worst of both worlds, the absolute need to synchronize, even if cache coherency is guaranteed in hardware, and on the other hand bad performance on incoherent architectures (full cache flushes). So shouldn't it be more strict (require information what is guarded by a monitor) or more lose and restrict potential platforms to cache-coherent architectures? As it is now, it doesn't make too much sense to me. Can somebody clear up why this specific memory model was choosen? EDIT: My use of strict and lose was a bad choice in retrospect. I used "strict" for the case where less guarantees are made and "lose" for the opposite. To avoid confusion, its probably better to speak in terms of stronger or weaker guarantees.

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Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

- by Anthony D

I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

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Database (and ORM) choice for an small-medium size .NET Application

- by jim

I have a requirement to develop a .NET-based application whose data requirements are likely to exceed the 4 gig limit of SQL 2005 Express Edition. There may be other customers of the same application (in the future) with a requirement to use a specific DB platform (such as Oracle or SQL Server) due to in-house DBA expertise. Questions What RDBMS would you guys recommend? From the looks of it the major choices are PostGreSQL, MySQL or FireBird. I've only got experience of MYSQL from these. Which ORM tool (if any) would you recommend using - ideally one that can be swapped out between DB platforms with minimal effort? I like the look of the entity framework but unsure as to the degree to which platforms other than SQL Server are supported. If it helps, we'll be using the 3.5 version of the Framework. I'm open to the idea of using a tool such as NHibernate. On the other hand, if it's going to be easier, I'm happy to write my own stored procedures / DAL code - there won't be that many tables (perhaps 30-35).

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Memory Management with returning char* function

- by RageD

Hello all, Today, without much thought, I wrote a simple function return to a char* based on a switch statement of given enum values. This, however, made me wonder how I could release that memory. What I did was something like this: char* func() { char* retval = new char; // Switch blah blah - will always return some value other than NULL since default: return retval; } I apologize if this is a naive question, but what is the best way to release the memory seeing as I cannot delete the memory after the return and, obviously, if I delete it before, I won't have a returned value. What I was thinking as a viable solution was something like this void func(char*& in) { // blah blah switch make it do something } int main() { char* val = new char; func(val); // Do whatever with func (normally func within a data structure with specific enum set so could run multiple times to change output) val = NULL; delete val; val = NULL; return 0; } Would anyone have anymore insight on this and/or explanation on which to use? Regards, Dennis M.

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In Xlib, How can I animate until an event occurs?

- by Animateur

Hi, I've been trying to animate in a C program using Xlib and I wanna do something when an event occurs, otherwise I wanna keep animating. Here's an example code snippet of what I am doing currently: while( 1 ) { // If an event occurs, stop and do whatever is needed. // If no event occurs, skip this if statement. if ( XEventsQueued( display, QueuedAlready ) > 0 ) { XNextEvent( display, &event ) switch ( event.type ) { // Don't do anything case Expose: while ( event.xexpose.count != 0 ) break; // Do something, when a button is pressed case ButtonPress: ... break; // Do something, when a key is pressed case KeyPress: ... break; } } animate(); // Do animation step i.e. change any drawings... repaint(); // Paint again with the new changes from animation... } So basically, I wanna keep looping if the user hasn't clicked the mouse OR pressed a key in the keyboard yet. When the user presses a key OR clicks the mouse, I wanna stop and do a specific action. The problem in my above code is that, it doesnt stop whenever I do an action. If I remove the if statement, the animation blocks until an event occurs, however I do not want this. It's a simple problem, but I'm kinda new to Xlib/animations so any help would be highly appreciated. Thanks.

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Sha256 is giving junk output

- by user1746617

hey can u be more specific on how to convert to bin to hex. bool HashStatus::calculate_digest_value(char * path,unsigned char * output) { FILE* file = fopen(path, "rb"); if(!file) { g_message("SignatureValidator::VerifyReferences,file not opened"); return -1; } unsigned char hash[SHA256_DIGEST_LENGTH]; SHA256_CTX sha256; SHA256_Init(&sha256); const int bufSize = 32768; unsigned char* buffer = malloc(bufSize); int bytesRead = 0; if(!buffer) return NULL; while((bytesRead = fread(buffer, 1, bufSize, file))) { g_message("calculate digest value,verify.cpp::%s",buffer); SHA256_Update(&sha256, buffer, bytesRead); } SHA256_Final(hash, &sha256); g_message("verify.cpp,after final"); sha256_hash_string(hash, output); g_message("verify.cpp,after sha256_hash_string %s",hash); fclose(file); free(buffer); return true; } this is my code to convert file data into hash using sha256 openssl function o/p is :1d54e12333988471354907a760b9cde861423615bb5255ee837e3b27b32366 but actual o/p is:HVThAjM5iEcTVJB6dgC5zehhQjYVu1JV7oN+OyezI2Y= can you guys please help me with whatz wrong with this code,ASAP and i'm new to this please guide me step by step and in detail..

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Understanding Basic Prototyping & Updating Key/Value pairs

- by JordanD

First time poster, long time lurker. I'm trying to learn some more advanced features of .js, and have two ojectives based on the pasted code below: I would like to add methods to a parent class in a specific way (by invoking prototype). I intend to update the declared key/value pairs each time I make an associated method call. execMTAction as seen in TheSuper will execute each function call, regardless. This is by design. Here is the code: function TheSuper(){ this.options = {componentType: "UITabBar", componentName: "Visual Browser", componentMethod: "select", componentValue: null}; execMTAction(this.options.componentType, this.options.componentName, this.options.componentMethod, this.options.componentValue); }; TheSuper.prototype.tapUITextView = function(val1, val2){ this.options = {componentType: "UITextView", componentName: val1, componentMethod: "entertext", componentValue: val2}; }; I would like to execute something like this (very simple): theSuper.executeMTAction(); theSuper.tapUITextView("a", "b"); Unfortunately I am unable to overwrite the "this.options" in the parent, and the .tapUITextView method throws an error saying it cannot find executeMTAction. All I want to do, like I said, is to update the parameters in the parent, then have executeMTAction run each time I make any method call. That's it. Any thoughts? I understand this is basic but I'm coming from a long-time procedural career and .js seems to have this weird confluence of oo/procedural that I'm having a bit of difficulty with. Thanks for any input!

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Preview of code-only WPF controls in VS2010 - how?

- by Christian

Hi, I hope I am able to illustrate the problem using a lot of images. First of all, I was no real fan of XAML (Silverlight issues, crashes in Preview, and so on...) Now, with VS2010 the situation has become better. There are still a lot of things I like better in code, but I also want a preview in my VS. So, take a look at the following control: It is really simple, a todo details list. The first screenshot shows the code of the control, pretty straighforward: There is no XAML, so obviously no preview. Of course, I could encapsulate it in another control, like shown in the next screenshot: But, in that case I have an additional file I do not want or need. So I had the idea to move the init stuff inside the contructor of a XAML control. For simplicity, I used simple elements. But they do not show up in the preview... Finally, I know I could use the controls in other parts of my app when creating UIs. But I am using layout manager, PRISM and a lot of other stuff, so I just want an easy preview of some specific control I created (without having to have a XAML wrapper file for each control) Thanks for help, and sorry for the post structure, but I though with images it is better to understand... Chris

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Serializing an extended form object

- by andyperfect

I've been reading up on this whole subject, but I never came across this specific problem. I already understand that the whole idea of serializing an entire form is a horrible idea and just doesn't work. But, I am encountering a bit of a different problem. I have a class that inherits the "button" form object, that I call DataButton. Now for my problem. I want to be able to serialize this class, but I don't need any of the information from the actual button class. Is there any way to bypass the fact that I can't set the button form object to Serializable() and notify VB that when serialization is to occur, it should simply skip over that information? Theoretically, if such a procedure were possible, I'd be able to do the entire serialization without a hitch. I came up with the idea earlier of removing the "inherits" feature from the class, and having simply a button within the class, but that makes my program really difficult to work with as I am constantly changing the location, size, backgroundImage, text, and whatnot. Thus, immediate updates would be much tougher to work with. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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jQuery Mobile: How to run a callback-function before $.mobile.changePage?

- by Jugi84

I'm setting up a mobile app with jQuery Mobile and PhoneGap. What I want to do is that when I click link with id "news_link" I want jQuery to fetch data from database and put it to jQm's collapsible set. In my solution, I've wanted to use $.mobile.changePage inside callback functions because I want to wait until the data has been fetched and put inside the container before the code changes page. Here's the code: $(function() { $('#news_link').click(function(){ loadNewsFromDB(function(){ $.mobile.changePage( $("#news"), { transition: "slideup"} ); }); }); loadNewsFromDB is PhoneGap's SQLite database function which would fetch the data with more callback functions from database. The contents would be put to desired container with .html-function function loadNewsFromDB(){ //some code here theDB.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql(sqlStr, [], onLoadNewsSuccess, onLoadNewsError); },onTxError, onTxSuccess); function onLoadNewsSuccess(tx, results){ //some code here $("#newsSet").html(htmlCodeAndContentToPut); Html is jQm's basic ui-modules: <!-- some html code here --!> <div data-role="page" id="news"> <div data-role="content"> <div id="newsSet" data-role="collapsible-set" data-mini="true"> With debugging I know that the code work up until it works very well unti it arrives to $.mobile.changePage-function. Somehow it doesn't change the page. I've checked the function it works well in other occasions, but not inside callback-functions. I would be very grateful if someone would give me a hand am I not seeing something obviously wrong or is something more specific? What other workarounds there is for fetching the data from SQLite, waiting for data to be fetched, putting the data to container and then changing the pages?

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Doing a virus check on a file from a build script

- by the_mandrill

I would like to be be able to invoke a virus check as the final stage of the build process (please don't question why a dev machine would get a virus, it's just a belt-and-braces approach to avoid the risk of getting sued by customers...). Also I'd like the option of having AV on a machine but switching the auto file system protection off (at least for the build directories). What I would like is a generic way of scanning a file using whatever AV system is in place. I'm assuming that there's an Windows API to do this, given that Windows detects the presence of an AV system, and browsers such as Firefox invoke a virus scan whenever a file is downloaded. So what's the API that they're using? There's the Microsoft AntiVirus API but that seems to be specific to Office documents. Does the approach involve using WMI? (and if you can detect the AV provider from there, how do you then invoke it to scan a file?) I know that I could write the script to manually call the AV scanner that I know to be installed, but as an intellectual exercise I'm more interested to know how apps like Firefox are doing this.

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Altering sql tables based on condition

- by Parker

Is there any possible way to add a row of data to only some of the tables in a database? I am not sure what parameter I could use amongst the tables to compare them to each other. Any Ideas? For Example: My database has tables that are (let's say) group A tables, and tables that are group B. I want to add a row to only the group B tables while leaving the group A tables untouched. Sorry I should have been a bit more specific. The tables that need to have a row added will change. My application monitors inventory in different store locations(each table in my database represents a store). When I need to add an item to inventory(the items are rows in the tables) I don't want to have to manually add the row to all the store tables. My problem is: Not all the tables in the database represent stores. For instance one table stores the user login data. Obviously I do not want to add the new row to this table. How do I update only the tables that represent stores?

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Good Hosting Providers With Zend Framework Support

- by manyxcxi

I currently use ixwebhosting for my hosting services. They're cheap and work (most of the time). The databases are horribly slow, the servers are horribly slow, and their support (though usually prompt) is tough to deal with. That being said, they're cheap, I've got like 20 domains hosted in my account, none of them are high volume, and they work JUST good enough- until today. This isn't meant to be a condemnation of ixwh though. Their prices are very low for what they do offer and most things work just fine, most of the time. I need to be able to host web apps written with Zend Framework in a fairly easy fashion. The server performance can't be worse than what I've already had (a pretty low hurdle to clear), and I don't want to spend $30/mo. These are not money making websites- they're projects. My requirements are PHP 5.3, ZF support, MySQL databases, multiple domains- not much. Who should I look at, and who should I look out for? Also- I put this on SO instead of SF because of the Zend Framework specific requirement. If I'm wrong, do as you wish.

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Faster way to convert from a String to generic type T when T is a valuetype?

- by Kumba

Does anyone know of a fast way in VB to go from a string to a generic type T constrained to a valuetype (Of T as Structure), when I know that T will always be some number type? This is too slow for my taste: Return DirectCast(Convert.ChangeType(myStr, GetType(T)), T) But it seems to be the only sane method of getting from a String -- T. I've tried using Reflector to see how Convert.ChangeType works, and while I can convert from the String to a given number type via a hacked-up version of that code, I have no idea how to jam that type back into T so it can be returned. I'll add that part of the speed penalty I'm seeing (in a timing loop) is because the return value is getting assigned to a Nullable(Of T) value. If I strongly-type my class for a specific number type (i.e., UInt16), then I can vastly increase the performance, but then the class would need to be duplicated for each numeric type that I use. It'd almost be nice if there was converter to/from T while working on it in a generic method/class. Maybe there is and I'm oblivious to its existence?

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