Search Results

Search found 16838 results on 674 pages for 'writing patterns dita cms'.

Page 602/674 | < Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >

  • The cross-thread usage of "HttpContext.Current" property and related things

    - by smwikipedia
    I read from < Essential ASP.NET with Examples in C# the following statement: Another useful property to know about is the static Current property of the HttpContext class. This property always points to the current instance of the HttpContext class for the request being serviced. This can be convenient if you are writing helper classes that will be used from pages or other pipeline classes and may need to access the context for whatever reason. By using the static Current property to retrieve the context, you can avoid passing a reference to it to helper classes. For example, the class shown in Listing 4-1 uses the Current property of the context to access the QueryString and print something to the current response buffer. Note that for this static property to be correctly initialized, the caller must be executing on the original request thread, so if you have spawned additional threads to perform work during a request, you must take care to provide access to the context class yourself. I am wondering about the root cause of the bold part, and one thing leads to another, here is my thoughts: We know that a process can have multiple threads. Each of these threads have their own stacks, respectively. These threads also have access to a shared memory area, the heap. The stack then, as I understand it, is kind of where all the context for that thread is stored. For a thread to access something in the heap it must use a pointer, and the pointer is stored on its stack. So when we make some cross-thread calls, we must make sure that all the necessary context info is passed from the caller thread's stack to the callee thread's stack. But I am not quite sure if I made any mistake. Any comments will be deeply appreciated. Thanks. ADD Here the stack is limited to user stack.

    Read the article

  • Unit Tests Architecture Question

    - by Tom Tresansky
    So I've started to layout unit tests for the following bit of code: public interface MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1(); void MyInterfaceMethod2(); } public class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do something } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something else } void SubRoutineP() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } public class MyImplementation2 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do a 3rd thing } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something completely different } void SubRoutineQ() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } with several implementations and the expectation of more to come. My initial thought was to save myself time re-writing unit tests with something like this: public abstract class MyInterfaceTester { protected MyInterface m_object; @Setup public void setUp() { m_object = getTestedImplementation(); } public abstract MyInterface getTestedImplementation(); @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod1() { // use m_object to run tests } @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod2() { // use m_object to run tests } } which I could then subclass easily to test the implementation specific additional methods like so: public class MyImplementation1Tester extends MyInterfaceTester { public MyInterface getTestedImplementation() { return new MyImplementation1(); } @Test public void testSubRoutineP() { // use m_object to run tests } } and likewise for implmentation 2 onwards. So my question really is: is there any reason not to do this? JUnit seems to like it just fine, and it serves my needs, but I haven't really seen anything like it in any of the unit testing books and examples I've been reading. Is there some best practice I'm unwittingly violating? Am I setting myself up for heartache down the road? Is there simply a much better way out there I haven't considered? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Timer C#. Start, stop, and get the amount of time between the calls

    - by user1886060
    I'm writing UDP chat with reliable data transfer. I need to start a timer when a packet is sent, and stop it as soon it receives an answer from the server(ACK- acknowledgment). Here is my code: private void sendButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Packet snd = new Packet(ack, textBox1.Text.Trim()); textBox1.Text = string.Empty; Smsg = snd.GetDataStream();//convert message into array of bytes to send. while (true) { try { // Here I need to Start a timer! clientSock.SendTo(Smsg, servEP); clientSock.ReceiveFrom(Rmsg, ref servEP); //Here I need to stop a timer and get elapsed amount of time. Packet rcv = new Packet(Rmsg); if (Rmsg != null && rcv.ACK01 != ack) continue; if (Rmsg != null && rcv.ACK01 == ack) { this.displayMessageDelegate("ack is received :"+ack); ChangeAck(ack); break; } Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is there a unique computer identifier that can be used reliably even in a virtual machine?

    - by SaUce
    I'm writing a small client program to be run on a terminal server. I'm looking for a way to make sure that it will only run on this server and in case it is removed from the server it will not function. I understand that there is no perfect way of securing it to make it impossible to ran on other platforms, but I want to make it hard enough to prevent 95% of people to try anything. The other 5% who can hack it is not my concern. I was looking at different Unique Identifiers like Processor ID, Windows Product ID, Computer GUID and other UIs. Because the terminal server is a virtual machine, I cannot locate anything that is completely unique to this machine. Any ideas on what I should look into to make this 95% secure. I do not have time or the need to make it as secure as possible because it will defeat the purpose of the application itself. I do not want to user MAC address. Even though it is unique to each machine it can be easily spoofed. As far as Microsoft Product ID, because our system team clones VM servers and we use corporate volume key, I found already two servers that I have access to that have same Product ID Number. I have no Idea how many others out there that have same Product ID By 95% and 5% I just simply wanted to illustrate how far i want to go with securing this software. I do not have precise statistics on how many people can do what. I believe I might need to change my approach and instead of trying to identify the machine, I will be better off by identifying the user and create group based permission for access to this software.

    Read the article

  • Preferred way of filling up a C++ vector of structs

    - by henle
    Alternative 1, reusing a temporary variable: Sticker sticker; sticker.x = x + foreground.x; sticker.y = foreground.y; sticker.width = foreground.width; sticker.height = foreground.height; board.push_back(sticker); sticker.x = x + outline.x; sticker.y = outline.y; sticker.width = outline.width; sticker.height = outline.height; board.push_back(sticker); Alternative 2, scoping the temporary variable: { Sticker sticker; sticker.x = x + foreground.x; sticker.y = foreground.y; sticker.width = foreground.width; sticker.height = foreground.height; board.push_back(sticker); } { Sticker sticker; sticker.x = x + outline.x; sticker.y = outline.y; sticker.width = outline.width; sticker.height = outline.height; board.push_back(sticker); } Alternative 3, writing straight to the vector memory: { board.push_back(Sticker()); Sticker &sticker = board.back(); sticker.x = x + foreground.x; sticker.y = foreground.y; sticker.width = foreground.width; sticker.height = foreground.height; } { board.push_back(Sticker()); Sticker &sticker = board.back(); sticker.x = x + outline.x; sticker.y = outline.y; sticker.width = outline.width; sticker.height = outline.height; } Which approach do you prefer?

    Read the article

  • How to structure Javascript programs in complex web applications?

    - by mixedpickles
    Hi there. I have a problem, which is not easily described. I'm writing a web application that makes heavy usage of jquery and ajax calls. Now I don't have experience in designing the architecture for javascript programms, but I realize that my program has not a good structure. I think I have to many identifiers referring to the same (at least more or less) thing. Let's have an exemplary look at an arbitrary UI widget: The eventhandlers use DOM elements as parameters. The DOM element represents a widget in the browser. A lot of times I use jQuery objects (I think they are basically a wrapper around DOM elements) to do something with the widget. Sometimes they are used transiently, sometimes they are stored in a variable for later purposes. The ajax function calls use strings identifiers for these widgets. They are processed server side. Beside that I have a widget class whose instances represents a widget. It is instantiated through the new operator. Now I have somehow four different object identifiers for the same thing, which needs to be kept in sync until the page is loaded anew. This seems not to be a good thing. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • How can I provide property-level string formatting?

    - by jhubsharp
    Not sure if the question wording is accurate, but here's what I want to do: I want to databind a class with some strings in it: class MyClass { public string MyProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty2 { get; set; } } When databinding, everything behaves normally. On the back end, I'm writing to a file and I want MyProperty2 to always be encrypted using some encryption algorithm. I want my back-end code to write each string without needing to know that encryption is required (I want the class to know it should be encrypted, not the consumer). Can I do this with a type converter, or something similar? EDIT: There are other scenarios as well. Some booleans I want to format as "Y" or "N", other booleans I want formatted as "Enabled" / "Disabled", etc. I can write (and have written) helper methods and let the file writer call the helper methods as appropriate, I'm just wondering if there's a way to do this without the file writer needing to know which objects need which kind of formatting and let the objects tell that to the file writer.

    Read the article

  • Retrieving an element by array index in jQuery vs the each() function.

    - by Alex Ciminian
    I was writing a "pluginable" function when I noticed the following behavior (tested in FF 3.5.9 with Firebug 1.5.3). $.fn.computerMove = function () { var board = $(this); var emptySquares = board.find('div.clickable'); var randPosition = Math.floor(Math.random() * emptySquares.length); emptySquares.each(function (index) { if (index === randPosition) { // logs a jQuery object console.log($(this)); } }); target = emptySquares[randPosition]; // logs a non-jQuery object console.log(target); // throws error: attr() not a function for target board.placeMark({'position' : target.attr('id')}); } I noticed the problem when the script threw an error at target.attr('id') (attr not a function). When I checked the log, I noticed that the output (in Firebug) for target was: <div style="width: 97px; height: 97px;" class="square clickable" id="8"></div> If I output $(target), or $(this) from the each() function, I get a nice jQuery object: [ div#8.square ] Now here comes my question: why does this happen, considering that find() seems to return an array of jQuery objects? Why do I have to do $() to target all over again? [div#0.square, div#1.square, div#2.square, div#3.square, div#4.square, div#5.square, div#6.square, div#7.square, div#8.square] Just a curiosity :).

    Read the article

  • Ajax to read from form

    - by Edwin
    Hello, I'm writing a store system for my game, it worked quite well until I found out that it only takes the amount of first entered Item. function pbuy(buyitem) { var amountc = "amount-"+buyitem, var amount = $("#"+amountc+"").val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "store2.php", data: "buyitem="+ buyitem+"&amount="+amount, success: function(resp){ document.getElementById('ajaxDiv').innerHTML = resp; }, error: function(e){ alert('Error: ' + e); } }); } I'm trying to give it it the Id of the form like so: function pbuy(buyitem) { var amountc = "amount-"+buyitem, var amount = $("#"+amountc+"").val(); But nothing happens. The code the creation of the forms is: <tr> <td class='items' width='80%' align='center' valign='top'><?PHP echo $itemstore->itemname;?> </td> <td width="20%"> Price:<?PHP echo $itemstore->newprice;?> <form method="post"> <input type='text' id='amount-<?PHP echo $row;?>)' /> <input name="itembid" type="button" onclick="pbuy(<?PHP echo $row;?>)" value="Buy" /></form></td> </tr> If I hardcode the amount in the ajax function it all runs fine like it should.

    Read the article

  • How to open multiple socket connections and do callbacks in PHP

    - by Click Upvote
    I'm writing some code which processes a queue of items. The way it works is this: Get the next item flagged as needing to be processed from the mysql database row. Request some info from a google API using Curl, wait until the info is returned. Do the remainder of the processing based on the info returned. Flag the item as processed in the db, move onto the next item. The problem is that on step # 2. Google sometimes takes 10-15 seconds to return the requested info, during this time my script has to remain halted and wait. I'm wondering if I could change the code to do the following instead: Get the next 5 items to be processed as usual. Request info for items 1-5 from google, one after the other. When the info for item 1 is returned, a 'callback' should be done which calls up a function or otherwise calls some code which then does the remainder of the processing on items 1-5. And then the script starts over until all pending items in db are marked processed. How can something like this be achieved?

    Read the article

  • Help with java threads or executors: Executing several MySQL selects, inserts and updates simmultane

    - by Martin
    Hi. I'm writing an application to analyse a MySQL database, and I need to execute several DMLs simmultaneously; for example: // In ResultSet rsA: Select * from A; rsA.beforeFirst(); while (rsA.next()) { id = rsA.getInt("id"); // Retrieve data from table B: Select * from B where B.Id=" + id; // Crunch some numbers using the data from B // Close resultset B } I'm declaring an array of data objects, each with its own Connection to the database, which in turn calls several methods for the data analysis. The problem is all threads use the same connection, thus all tasks throw exceptios: "Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction" I believe there is a way to write the code in such a way that any given object has its own connection and executes the required tasks independent from any other object. For example: DataObject dataObject[0] = new DataObject(id[0]); DataObject dataObject[1] = new DataObject(id[1]); DataObject dataObject[2] = new DataObject(id[2]); ... DataObject dataObject[N] = new DataObject(id[N]); // The 'DataObject' class has its own connection to the database, // so each instance of the object should use its own connection. // It also has a "run" method, which contains all the tasks required. Executor ex = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); for(i=0;i<=N;i++) { ex.execute(dataObject[i]); } // Here where the problem is: Each instance creates a new connection, // but every DML from any of the objects is cluttered in just one connection // (in MySQL command line, "SHOW PROCESSLIST;" throws every connection, and all but // one are idle). Can you point me in the right direction? Thanks

    Read the article

  • What's up with this reversing bit order function?

    - by MattyW
    I'm rather ashamed to admit that I don't know as much about bits and bit manipulation as I probably should. I tried to fix that this weekend by writing some 'reverse the order of bits' and 'count the ON bits' functions. I took an example from here but when I implemented it as below, I found I had to be looping while < 29. If I loop while < 32 (as in the example) Then when I try to print the integer (using a printBits function i've written) I seem to be missing the first 3 bits. This makes no sense to me, can someone help me out? int reverse(int n) { int r = 0; int i = 0; for(i = 0; i < 29; i++) { r = (r << 1) + (n & 1); n >>=1; } return r; }

    Read the article

  • Is the below thread pool implementation correct(C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    Hi Experts, For the first time ever I have implemented thread pooling and I found it to be working. But I am not very sure about the way I have done is the appropriate way it is supposed to be. Would you people mind in spending some valuable time to check and let me know if my approach is correct or not? If you people find that the approach is incorrect , could you please help me out in writing the correct version. I have basicaly read How to use thread pool and based on what ever I have understood I have developed the below program as per my need public class Calculation { #region Private variable declaration ManualResetEvent[] factorManualResetEvent = null; #endregion public void Compute() { factorManualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent[2]; for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++){ factorManualResetEvent[i] = new ManualResetEvent(false); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(ThreadPoolCallback, i);} //Wait for all the threads to complete WaitHandle.WaitAll(factorManualResetEvent); //Proceed with the next task(s) NEXT_TASK_TO_BE_EXECUTED(); } #region Private Methods // Wrapper method for use with thread pool. public void ThreadPoolCallback(Object threadContext) { int threadIndex = (int)threadContext; Method1(); Method2(); factorManualResetEvent[threadIndex].Set(); } private void Method1 () { //Code of method 1} private void Method2 () { //Code of method 2 } #endregion }

    Read the article

  • error: 'void Base::output()' is protected within this context

    - by Bill
    I'm confused about the errors generated by the following code. In Derived::doStuff, I can access Base::output directly by calling it. Why can't I create a pointer to output() in the same context that I can call output()? (I thought protected / private governed whether you could use a name in a specific context, but apparently that is incomplete?) Is my fix of writing callback(this, &Derived::output); instead of callback(this, Base::output) the correct solution? #include <iostream> using std::cout; using std::endl; template <typename T, typename U> void callback(T obj, U func) { ((obj)->*(func))(); } class Base { protected: void output() { cout << "Base::output" << endl; } }; class Derived : public Base { public: void doStuff() { // call it directly: output(); Base::output(); // create a pointer to it: // void (Base::*basePointer)() = &Base::output; // error: 'void Base::output()' is protected within this context void (Derived::*derivedPointer)() = &Derived::output; // call a function passing the pointer: // callback(this, &Base::output); // error: 'void Base::output()' is protected within this context callback(this, &Derived::output); } }; int main() { Derived d; d.doStuff(); }

    Read the article

  • How should a multi-threaded C application handle a failed malloc()?

    - by user294463
    A part of an application I'm working on is a simple pthread-based server that communicates over a TCP/IP socket. I am writing it in C because it's going to be running in a memory constrained environment. My question is: what should the program do if one of the threads encounters a malloc() that returns NULL? Possibilities I've come up with so far: No special handling. Let malloc() return NULL and let it be dereferenced so that the whole thing segfaults. Exit immediately on a failed malloc(), by calling abort() or exit(-1). Assume that the environment will clean everything up. Jump out of the main event loop and attempt to pthread_join() all the threads, then shut down. The first option is obviously the easiest, but seems very wrong. The second one also seems wrong since I don't know exactly what will happen. The third option seems tempting except for two issues: first, all of the threads need not be joined back to the main thread under normal circumstances and second, in order to complete the thread execution, most of the remaining threads will have to call malloc() again anyway. What shall I do?

    Read the article

  • How to return function in document ready?

    - by FatDogMark
    I don't know if it is possible to do this, like I have 2 js files. The first Js File: var news_pos, about_pos, services_pos, clients_pos; function define_pos(){ var $top_slides=$('#top_slides'), $mid_nav=$('#mid_nav'), $news_section=$('#section-1'); var fixed_height = $top_slides.height()+$mid_nav.height(); news_pos = fixed_height-20 ; about_pos = fixed_height+$news_section.height(); services_pos = fixed_height+$news_section.height()*2; clients_pos = fixed_height+$news_section.height()*3; } $(document).ready(function(){ var section_news = $('#section-1'), section_about = $('#section-2'), section_services = $('#section-3'), section_clients = $('#section-4'); setheight(); function setheight(){ var section_height=$(window).height()+200; $section_news.height(section_height); $section_about.height(section_height); $section_services.height(section_height); $section_clients.height(section_height); define_pos(); } }); The second JS File: $(document).ready(function(){ var nav = { '$btn1':$('#btn1'), '$btn2':$('#btn2'), '$btn3':$('#btn3'), '$btn4':$('#btn4'), '$btn5':$('#btn5'), myclick : function(){ myclicked(nav.$btn1,0); myclicked(nav.$btn2,news_pos); myclicked(nav.$btn3,about_pos); myclicked(nav.$btn4,services_pos); myclicked(nav.$btn5,clients_pos); function myclicked(j,k){ j.click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('html,body').animate({scrollTop: k}, 1000); }); } //Is it right to do return{'myclick':myclick}, how to call? seems not logical } } nav.myclick(); // Here will not work because it say news_pos is undefined //if I use setTimeout(nav.myclick,1000), it will works but I want to run it right the when position is caculated. }); How do I pass the nav.myclick() function to the frist js file and put it in setheight() and under define_pos()? By the way writing codes right in stackoverflow is strange,press tab not really give you any spacing.

    Read the article

  • How to use XML namespace prefixes without xmlns="..." everywhere? (.NET)

    - by LonelyPixel
    The subject is probably too short to explain it... I'm writing out XML files with no namespace stuff at all, for some application. That part I cannot change. But now I'm going to extend those files with my own application-defined element names, and I'd like to put them in a different namespace. For this, the result should look like this: <doc xmlns:x="urn:my-app-uri"> <a>existing element name</a> <x:addon>my additional element name</x:addon> </doc> I've used an XmlNamespaceManager and added my URI with the prefix "x" to it. I've also passed it to each CreateElement for my additional element names. But the nearest I can get is this: <doc> <a>existing element name</a> <addon xmlns="urn:my-app-uri">my additional element name</addon> </doc> Or maybe also <x:addon xmlns:x="urn:my-app-uri">my additional element name</x:addon> So the point is that my URI is written to every single of my additional elements, and no common prefix is written to the document element where I'd like to have it. How can I get the above XML result with .NET?

    Read the article

  • txt file read/overwrite/append. Is this feasible? (Visual C#)

    - by Arcadian
    Hi, I'm writing a program for some data entry I have to periodically do. I have begun testing a few things that the program will have to do but i'm not sure about this part. What i need this part to do is: read a .txt file of data take the first 12 characters from each line take the first 12 characters from each line of the data that has been entered in a multi-line text box compare the two lists line by line if one of the 12 character blocks from the multi-line text box match one of the blocks in the .txt file then overwrite that entire line (only 17 characters in total) if one of the 12 character blocks from the multi-line text box DO NOT match any of the blocks in the.txt file then append that entire line to the file thats all it has to do. i'll do an example: TXT FILE: G01:78:08:32 JG05 G08:80:93:10 JG02 G28:58:29:28 JG04 MULTI-LINE TEXT BOX: G01:78:08:32 JG06 G28:58:29:28 JG03 G32:10:18:14 JG01 G32:18:50:78 JG07 RESULTING TXT FILE: G01:78:08:32 JG06 G08:80:93:10 JG02 G28:58:29:28 JG03 G32:10:18:14 JG01 G32:18:50:78 JG07 as you can see lines 1 and 3 were overwriten, line 2 was left alone as it did not match any blocks in the text box, lines 4 and 5 were appended to the file. thats all i want it to do. How do i go about this? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Update MySQl table onDrop?

    - by dougvt
    Hi all. I am writing a PHP/MySQL application (using CodeIgniter) that uses some jQuery functionality for dragging table rows. I have a table in which the user can drag rows to the desired order (kind of a queue for which I need to preserve the rank of each row). I've been trying to figure out how to (and whether I should) update the database each time the user drops a row, in order to simplify the UI and avoid a "Save" button. I have the jQuery working and can send a serialized list back to the server onDrop, but is it good design practice to run an update query this often? The table will usually have 30-40 rows max, but if the user drags row 1 far down the list, then potentially all the rows would need to be updated to update the rank field. I've been wondering whether to send a giant query to the server, to loop through the rows in PHP and update each row with its own Update query, to send a small serialized list to a stored procedure to let the server do all the work, or perhaps a better method I haven't considered. I've read that stored procedures in MySQL are not very efficient and use a separate process for each call. Any advice as to the right solution here? Thanks very much for your help!

    Read the article

  • Change Default Winform Icon Across Entire App

    - by Kyle Gagnet
    Can I change the default icon used on a Winform? Most of my forms have their icon property set to a custom icon. For the few forms that slip through the cracks, I don't want the generic "hey look, he made this in visual studio" icon. One solution is to tediously check every one of my forms to make sure they either have a custom icon set or have ShowIcon set to False. Another solution is to have every one of my forms inherit from a base class that sets a custom icon in the constructor. Aside from those solutions, what other options do I have? EDIT: I was hoping there would be a way to replace the source of the stock icon with my own. Is it in a resource file somewhere? Or is it embedded in a .NET dll that I can't (or really, really shouldn't) modify? BOUNTY EDIT: Is there a way to accomplish this without editing or writing a single line of code? I don't care how impractical, complicated, waste-of-time the solution is... I just want to know if it's possible. I need to satisfy my curiosity.

    Read the article

  • Using Color.rgb() doesnt work for full 0...255 range

    - by superflyninja
    I'm writing an android game using opengl. I'm using: colour = Color.rgb(theR,theG,theB); (all ints) to store the color of a rectangle. Then I parse out the RGB to render the rectangle: colorR = Color.red(color); colorG = Color.green(color); colorB = Color.blue(color); For example for color 53,130,255 this should result in a blue but on my app it results in a white. If i use 1,1,1 i get white. If i use 0,0,0 i get black. If i use 0,1,0 I get green etc. So it looks like any value over one is treated as 1 and so i am not getting the full 0...255 range. I tried using Color.argb and color = Color.parseColor(theColor) where the Color is a string. I'm using this in an opengles app. I have a class to display a rectangle of color. This definitely works fine as the correct size rectangle is rendered, just not a color using values above 1. I also use textures and everything displays fine. any ideas? thanks a million

    Read the article

  • linux find the command invoked

    - by Subbu
    I am writing a C program which determines the number of bytes read from the standard input . I found out there are ways to give input to the program piped input redirection entering into command line while the program is waiting for input How to find the exact command by which the program was executed from the shell . I tried using command-line arguments but failed . #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc,char *argv[]) { char buffer[100]; int n; for(n=1;n<argc;n++) printf("argument: %s\t",argv[n]); printf("\n"); if(argc==1) printf("waiting for input :"); else if (argc==3) printf("Not waiting for input . Got the source from command itself ."); n = read(0,buffer,100); if(n==-1) printf("\nError occured in reading"); printf("\nReading successfully done\n"); return 0; } Also ,

    Read the article

  • C# return and display syntax issue

    - by thatdude
    I am having trouble passing the return value from TheMethod() to Main and displaying the word if the if statement is passed as true. I have thought of two ways of doing this, neither has worked but I think I am missing synatx. Using a return ?; non void method and then displaying the returned value. Using a void method and actually writing out(example below) So yes I am new at this, however I have made so many iterations everything is blending together and I have forgot what I have tried. Any help on the syntax be great for either of these ways. Basically I need it to iterate numbers 1,2,3,4 and depending on if the current iteration matches an expression in the if statements it will display a word. Example: if (3 = i) { Console.WriteLine("Word"); } Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace Proj5 { class Program { int i = 0; static void Main(int i) { for (i = 0; i < 101; i++) { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } string TheMethod(int i) { string f = "Word1"; string b = "Word2"; if (i == 3) { return f; } if (i == 5) { return b; } if (0 == (i % 3)) { return f; } if (0 == i % 5) { return b; } else { return b; } } } }

    Read the article

  • JS best practice for member functions

    - by MickMalone1983
    I'm writing a little mobile games library, and I'm not sure the best practice for declaring member functions of instantiated function objects. For instance, I might create a simple object with one property, and a method to print it: function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = function(){ console.log(this.id); }; }; However, a function which does not need access to 'private' members of the function does not need to be declared in the function at all. I could equally have written: function print(){ console.log(this.id); }; function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = print; }; When the function is invoked through an instance of Foo, the instance becomes the context for this, so the output is the same in either case. I'm not entirely sure how memory is allocated with JS, and I can't find anything that I can understand about something this specific, but it seems to me that with the first example all members of Foo, including the print function, are duplicated each time it is instantiated - but with the second, it just gets a pointer to one, pre-declared function, which would save any more memory having to be allocated as more instances of Foo are created. Am I correct, and if I am, is there any memory/performance benefit to doing this?

    Read the article

  • Why my tracking service freezes when the phone moves?

    - by user2878181
    I have developed a service which includes timer task and runs after every 5 minutes for keeping tracking record of the device, every five minutes it adds a record to the database. My service is working fine when the phone is not moving i.e it gives records after every 5 minutes as it should be. But i have noticed that when the phone is on move it updates the points after 10 or 20 minutes , i.e whenever the user stops in his way whenever he is on the move. Do service freezes on the move, if yes! how is whatsapp messenger managing it?? Please help! i am writing my onstart method. please help @Override public void onStart(Intent intent, int startId) { Toast.makeText(this, "My Service Started", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.d(TAG, "onStart"); mLocationClient.connect(); final Handler handler_service = new Handler(); timer_service = new Timer(); TimerTask thread_service = new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { handler_service.post(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { some function of tracking } }); } }; timer_service.schedule(thread_service, 1000, service_timing); //sync thread final Handler handler_sync = new Handler(); timer_sync = new Timer(); TimerTask thread_sync = new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { handler_sync.post(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { //connecting to the central server for updation Connect(); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block } } }); } }; timer_sync.schedule(thread_sync,2000, sync_timing); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >