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  • TicTacToe strategic reduction

    - by NickLarsen
    I decided to write a small program that solves TicTacToe in order to try out the effect of some pruning techniques on a trivial game. The full game tree using minimax to solve it only ends up with 549,946 possible games. With alpha-beta pruning, the number of states required to evaluate was reduced to 18,297. Then I applied a transposition table that brings the number down to 2,592. Now I want to see how low that number can go. The next enhancement I want to apply is a strategic reduction. The basic idea is to combine states that have equivalent strategic value. For instance, on the first move, if X plays first, there is nothing strategically different (assuming your opponent plays optimally) about choosing one corner instead of another. In the same situation, the same is true of the center of the walls of the board, and the center is also significant. By reducing to significant states only, you end up with only 3 states for evaluation on the first move instead of 9. This technique should be very useful since it prunes states near the top of the game tree. This idea came from the GameShrink method created by a group at CMU, only I am trying to avoid writing the general form, and just doing what is needed to apply the technique to TicTacToe. In order to achieve this, I modified my hash function (for the transposition table) to enumerate all strategically equivalent positions (using rotation and flipping functions), and to only return the lowest of the values for each board. Unfortunately now my program thinks X can force a win in 5 moves from an empty board when going first. After a long debugging session, it became apparent to me the program was always returning the move for the lowest strategically significant move (I store the last move in the transposition table as part of my state). Is there a better way I can go about adding this feature, or a simple method for determining the correct move applicable to the current situation with what I have already done?

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  • Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

    - by perissf
    In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Matlab GUI - How to get the previous value entered from a callback function?

    - by Graham
    Hi, I know that this is probably a simple problem but I am new to Matlab GUI's and basically want to get the old value which used to be stored in the text box to replace the value which has just been entered. E.g. Text box contains a valid string, User enters invalid string, Callback func, validates input and realises new input is an error and reverts to the old previous value. How should this be implemented or done? Atm I am just using the get and set property values. Below is some sample code: function sampledist_Callback(hObject, eventdata, handles) % hObject handle to sampledist (see GCBO) % eventdata reserved - to be defined in a future version of MATLAB % handles structure with handles and user data (see GUIDATA) % Hints: get(hObject,'String') returns contents of sampledist as text % str2double(get(hObject,'String')) returns contents of sampledist as a double input = str2double(get(hObject,'String')); if(input < 0 || input > 500) errordlg('Sampled Dist. must be > 0 and < 500','Sample Dist - Input Error'); set(handles.sampledist,'String',['10']); %<--- I would like this value 10 to be the previous entry! guidata(hObject,handles); else set(handles.sampledist,'String',['',input]); guidata(hObject,handles); end

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  • How to change XmlSchemaElement.SchemaType (or: difference between SchemaType and ElementSchemaType)

    - by Gregor
    Hey, I'm working on a XML Editor which gets all his information from the corresponding XSD file. To work with the XSD files I use the System.Xml.Schema Namespace (XmlSchema*). Because of an 'xsi:type' attribute in the XML I've to change the XmlSchemaType of an XmlSchemaElement. Until now I use in my code the 'ElementSchemaType' property of 'XmlSchemaElement'. The nice thing about it: it's read only. There is also in 'XmlSchemaElement' an 'SchemaType' property which is not read only, but always null (yes, XmlSchema and XmlSchemaSet are compiled). So how can I change the type of the 'XmlSchemaElement'? Or, also the same question: What is the diffrence between this two porperties? Some technical data: C#, .NET 3.5 The MSDN documentation is nearly the same for both: SchemaType Documentation: Gets or sets the type of the element. This can either be a complex type or a simple type. ElementSchemaType Documentation: Gets an XmlSchemaType object representing the type of the element based on the SchemaType or SchemaTypeName values of the element.

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  • Using callback functions for error handling in C

    - by Earlz
    Hi, I have been thinking about the difficulty incurred with C error handling.. like who actually does if(printf("hello world")==-1){exit(1);} But you break common standards by not doing such verbose, and usually useless coding. Well what if you had a wrapper around the libc? like so you could do something like.. //main... error_catchall(my_errors); printf("hello world"); //this will automatically call my_errors on an error of printf ignore=1; //this makes it so the function will return like normal and we can check error values ourself if(fopen.... //we want to know if the file opened or not and handle it ourself. } int my_errors(){ if(ignore==0){ _exit(1); //exit if we aren't handling this error by flagging ignore } return 0; //this is called when there is an error anywhere in the libc } ... I am considering making such a wrapper as I am synthesizing my own BSD licensed libc(so I already have to touch the untouchable..), but I would like to know what people think about it.. would this actually work in real life and be more useful than returning -1?

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  • Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

    - by ILya
    Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

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  • pointer in c and the c program

    - by sandy101
    Hello, I am studying the pointer and i come to this program .... #include <stdio.h> void swap(int *,int *); int main() { int a=10; int b=20; swap(&a,&b); printf("the value is %d and %d",a,b); return 0; } void swap(int *a,int*b) { int t; t=*a; *a=*b; *b=t; printf("%d and%d\n",*a,*b); } can any one tell me why this main function return the value reversed . The thing i understood till now is that the function call in c does not affect the main function and it's values . I also want to know how much the space a pointer variable occupied like integer have occupied the 2 bytes and the various application use and advantages of the pointer .... plz.... anyone help

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  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

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  • Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

    - by Jason Novak
    Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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  • How to create view model without sorting collections in memory.

    - by Chevex
    I have a view model (below). public class TopicsViewModel { public Topic Topic { get; set; } public Reply LastReply { get; set; } } I want to populate an IQueryable<TopicsViewModel> with values from my IQueryable<Topic> collection and IQueryable<Reply> collection. I do not want to use the attached entity collection (i.e. Topic.Replies) because I only want the last reply for that topic and doing Topic.Replies.Last() loads the entire entity collection in memory and then grabs the last one in the list. I am trying to stay in IQueryable so that the query is executed in the database. I also don't want to foreach through topics and query replyRepository.Replies because looping through IQueryable<Topic> will start the lazy loading. I'd prefer to build one expression and have all the leg work done in the lower layers. I have the following: IQueryable<TopicsViewModel> topicsViewModel = from x in topicRepository.Topics from y in replyRepository.Replies where y.TopicID == x.TopicID orderby y.PostedDate ascending select new TopicsViewModel { Topic = x, LastReply = y }; But this isn't working. Any ideas how I can populate an IQueryable or IEnumerable of TopicsViewModel so that it queries the database and grabs topics and that topic's last reply? I am trying really hard to avoid grabbing all replies related to that topic. I only want to grab the last reply. Thank you for any insight you have to offer.

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  • How do I use Spreadsheet::WriteExcel to create a chart from numeric log data?

    - by yaohung
    I used csv2xls.pl to convert a text log into .xls format, and then I create a chart as in the following: my $chart3 = $workbook->add_chart( type => 'line' , embedded => 1); # Configure the series. $chart3->add_series( categories => '=Sheet1!$B$2:$B$64', values => '=Sheet1!$C$2:$C$64', name => 'Test data series 1', ); # Add some labels. $chart3->set_title( name => 'Bridge Rate Analysis' ); $chart3->set_x_axis( name => 'Packet Size ' ); $chart3->set_y_axis( name => 'BVI Rate' ); # Insert the chart into the main worksheet. $worksheet->insert_chart( 'G2', $chart3 ); I can see the chart in the .xls file. However, all the data are in text format, not numeric, so the chart looks wrong. How do I convert text into number before applying this create-chart function? Also, how do I sort the .xls file before creating the chart?

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  • Would making plain int 64-bit break a lot of reasonable code?

    - by R..
    Until recently, I'd considered the decision by most systems implementors/vendors to keep plain int 32-bit even on 64-bit machines a sort of expedient wart. With modern C99 fixed-size types (int32_t and uint32_t, etc.) the need for there to be a standard integer type of each size 8, 16, 32, and 64 mostly disappears, and it seems like int could just as well be made 64-bit. However, the biggest real consequence of the size of plain int in C comes from the fact that C essentially does not have arithmetic on smaller-than-int types. In particular, if int is larger than 32-bit, the result of any arithmetic on uint32_t values has type signed int, which is rather unsettling. Is this a good reason to keep int permanently fixed at 32-bit on real-world implementations? I'm leaning towards saying yes. It seems to me like there could be a huge class of uses of uint32_t which break when int is larger than 32 bits. Even applying the unary minus or bitwise complement operator becomes dangerous unless you cast back to uint32_t. Of course the same issues apply to uint16_t and uint8_t on current implementations, but everyone seems to be aware of and used to treating them as "smaller-than-int" types.

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  • TextBox change is not saved to DataTable

    - by SeaDrive
    I'm having trouble with a simple table edit in a Winform application. I must have missed a step. I have a DataSet containing a DataTable connected to a database with a SqlDataAdapter. There is a SqlCommandBuilder on the SqlDataAdapter. On the form, there are TextBoxes which are bound to the DataTable. The binding was done in the Designer and it machine-produced statements like this: this.tbLast.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Text", this.belkData, "belk_mem.last", true)); When I fill the row in the DataTable, the values from the database appear in the textboxes, but when I change contents of the TextBox, the changes are apparently not being going to the DataTable. When I try to save change both of the following return null: DataTable dtChanges = dtMem.GetChanges(); DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); What did I forget? Edit - response to mrlucmorin: The save is under a button. Code is: BindingContext[belkData, "belk_mem"].EndCurrentEdit(); try { DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); if (dsChanges != null) { int nRows = sdaMem.Update(dsChanges); MessageBox.Show("Row(s) Updated: " + nRows.ToString()); belkData.AcceptChanges(); } else { MessageBox.Show("Nothing to save.", "No changes"); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Error: " + ex.Message); } I've tried putting in these statements without any change in behavior: dtMem.AcceptChanges(); belkData.AcceptChanges();

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  • Why aren't these Canvases rendering?

    - by bpapa
    I'm creating a web app that allows users to enter a number of colors, by specifying RGB values. Upon submission, the user will see a canvas with a solid rectangle drawn in the color chosen. On this page, I have 7 canvases. The first one draws just fine, but none of the rest show up. The browser is Safari. Here's the relevant code: First, the script element in the header, which defines the function I use to draw to the canvas. <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- function drawCanvas(canvasId, red, green, blue) { var theCanvas = document.getElementById("canvas" + canvasId); var context = theCanvas.getContext("2d"); context.clearRect(0,0,100,100); context.setFillColor(red,green,blue,1.0); context.fillRect(0,0,100,100); } // --> </script> Next, the HTML source, where I have my canvas tags and some embedded Javascript to call my drawCanvas function <canvas id="canvas0" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(0,250,0,0); // --> </script> . . //more source . <canvas id="canvas1" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(1,4,250,6); // --> </script> Also provided is a screenshot. As you can see, the "red" canvas comes up just fine, but the second one, which should be green, doesn't show up at all. Any ideas?

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  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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  • How do I cast a void pointer to a struct in C?

    - by Rowhawn
    In a project I'm writing code for, I have a void pointer, "implementation", which is a member of a "Hash_map" struct, and points to an "Array_hash_map" struct. The concepts behind this project are not very realistic, but bear with me. The specifications of the project ask that I cast the void pointer "implementation" to an "Array_hash_map" before I can use it in any functions. My question, specifically is, what do I do in the functions to cast the void pointers to the desired struct? Is there one statement at the top of each function that casts them or do I make the cast every time I use "implementation"? Here are the typedefs the structs of a Hash_map and Array_hash_map as well as a couple functions making use of them. typedef struct { Key_compare_fn key_compare_fn; Key_delete_fn key_delete_fn; Data_compare_fn data_compare_fn; Data_delete_fn data_delete_fn; void *implementation; } Hash_map; typedef struct Array_hash_map{ struct Unit *array; int size; int capacity; } Array_hash_map; typedef struct Unit{ Key key; Data data; } Unit; functions: /* Sets the value parameter to the value associated with the key parameter in the Hash_map. */ int get(Hash_map *map, Key key, Data *value){ int i; if (map == NULL || value == NULL) return 0; for (i = 0; i < map->implementation->size; i++){ if (map->key_compare_fn(map->implementation->array[i].key, key) == 0){ *value = map->implementation->array[i].data; return 1; } } return 0; } /* Returns the number of values that can be stored in the Hash_map, since it is represented by an array. */ int current_capacity(Hash_map map){ return map.implementation->capacity; }

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  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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  • Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

    - by I Have the Hat
    So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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  • Cakephp Search Plugin: DateTime Range

    - by Chris
    I am trying to search a model by dates using the CakePHP Search plugin The idea is: The user enters a date of a flight and the engine returns all flights within +- one day of that. My form: <?php echo $form->create('Flight', array( 'url' => array_merge(array('action' => 'find'), $this->params['pass']) )); echo $form->input('departure', array('div' => false, 'dateFormat' => 'DMY','timeFormat' => 'NONE')); echo $form->submit(__('Search', true), array('div' => false)); echo $form->end(); ?> My flight model: public $filterArgs = array( array('name' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression', 'method' => 'makeRangeCondition', 'field' => 'ABS((TO_Days(Flight.departure))-( TO_Days(?))) < 2') ); The controller: public $presetVars = array( array('field' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression') ); public function find() { $this->Prg->commonProcess(); $this->paginate['conditions'] = $this->Flight->parseCriteria($this->passedArgs); $this->set('flights', $this->paginate()); } When I try to search, the values for departure are packed in an array; Array ([departure] => Array ) And the filterArgs(...) function doesn't seem to understand this. What is the correct way to do this?

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  • Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

    - by Michael Bleigh
    I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

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  • $_POST in php 5.3.5 does not work

    - by naji
    dear all iam working in php 5.3.5 this is the html file <html> <body> <form action="welcome.php" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" /> Age: <input type="text" name="age" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </body> </html> and this is the php file <html> <body> Welcome <?php echo $_POST["fname"]; ?>!<br /> You are <?php echo $_POST["age"]; ?> years old. </body> </html> the problem the values are not passed and the output like Welcome ! You are years old. But it has to be like this Welcome John! You are 28 years old. can any one help me please?? naji

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  • MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

    - by cbp
    Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 randomly unable to debug WCF service.

    - by rossisdead
    I'm running Visual Studio 2010 on a Windows 7 x64 machine, and occasionally VS is giving me the good old "The remote procedure could not be debugged.This usually indicates that debugging has not been enabled on the server" error that a lot of people ask about. My problem, though, is that it seems to only do this randomly(it can be anywhere from a few minutes to a few hours), and after I've made plenty of successful calls to the service already. It doesn't prevent the service from working. It still returns values and doesn't throw any errors. The only difference is that annoying dialog pops up everytime I start to debug my application. I should mention that I'm connecting the WCF service from a WPF application. If I launch the web site the service is part of, I don't get the dialog. A few of the things I've tried that do not work: Killing and restarting the server. Compiling the web server in x86 Enabling tracing, but couldn't find any problems. Is this just a bug in Visual Studio 2010, or is there something I'm missing?

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  • VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

    - by Queops
    We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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