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  • What C++ templates issue is going on with this error?

    - by WilliamKF
    Running gcc v3.4.6 on the Botan v1.8.8 I get the following compile time error building my application after successfully building Botan and running its self test: ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h: In member function `Botan::MemoryVector<T>& Botan::MemoryVector<T>::operator=(const Botan::MemoryRegion<T>&)': ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h:310: error: missing template arguments before '(' token What is this compiler error telling me? Here is a snippet of secmem.h that includes line 130: [...] /** * This class represents variable length buffers that do not * make use of memory locking. */ template<typename T> class MemoryVector : public MemoryRegion<T> { public: /** * Copy the contents of another buffer into this buffer. * @param in the buffer to copy the contents from * @return a reference to *this */ MemoryVector<T>& operator=(const MemoryRegion<T>& in) { if(this != &in) set(in); return (*this); } // This is line 130! [...]

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  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

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  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

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  • Parsing HTML: Call to a member function > children() on a non-object

    - by sm56d
    Hello all, I was just helped with this question but I can't get it to move to the next block of HTML. $html = file_get_html('http://music.banadir24.com/singer/aasha_abdoo/247.html'); $urls = $html->find('table[width=100%] table tr'); foreach($urls as $url){ $song_name = $url->children(2)->plaintext; $url = $url->children(6)->children(0)->href; } It returns the list of the names of the first album (Deesco) but it does not continue to the next album (The Best Of Aasha)? It just gives me this error: Notice: Trying to get property of non-object in C:\wamp\www\test3.php on line 26 Fatal error: Call to a member function children() on a non-object in C:\wamp\www\test3.php on line 28 Why is this and how can I get it to continue to the next table element? I appreciate any help on this! Please note: This is legal as the songs are not bound by copyright and they are available to download freely, its just I need to download a lot of them and I can't sit there clicking a button all day. Having said that, its taken me an hour to get this far.

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  • Getting ellipses function parameters without an initial argument

    - by Tox1k
    So I've been making a custom parser for a scripting language, and I wanted to be able to pass only ellipses arguments. I don't need or want an initial variable, however Microsoft and C seem to want something else. FYI, see bottom for info. I've looked at the va_* definitions #define _crt_va_start(ap,v) ( ap = (va_list)_ADDRESSOF(v) + _INTSIZEOF(v) ) #define _crt_va_arg(ap,t) ( *(t *)((ap += _INTSIZEOF(t)) - _INTSIZEOF(t)) ) #define _crt_va_end(ap) ( ap = (va_list)0 ) and the part I don't want is the v in va_start. As a little background I'm competent in goasm and I know how the stack works so I know what's happening here. I was wondering if there is a way to get the function stack base without having to use inline assembly. Ideas I've had: #define im_va_start(ap) (__asm { mov [ap], ebp }) and etc... but really I feel like that's messy and I'm doing it wrong. struct function_table { const char* fname; (void)(*fptr)(...); unsigned char maxArgs; }; function_table mytable[] = { { "MessageBox", &tMessageBoxA, 4 } }; ... some function that sorts through a const char* passed to it to find the matching function in mytable and calls tMessageBoxA with the params. Also, the maxArgs argument is just so I can check that a valid number of parameters is being sent. I have personal reasons for not wanting to send it in the function, but in the meantime we can just say it's because I'm curious. This is just an example; custom libraries are what I would be implementing so it wouldn't just be calling WinAPI stuff. void tMessageBoxA(...) { // stuff to load args passed MessageBoxA(arg1, arg2, arg3, arg4); } I'm using the __cdecl calling convention and I've looked up ways to reliably get a pointer to the base of the stack (not the top) but I can't seem to find any. Also, I'm not worried about function security or typechecking.

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  • Deployment of SQL Server: installing a second instance?

    - by Workshop Alex
    Simple problem. I'm working on a Delphi 2007/WIN32 application which now uses MS Access as simple data store. I have to modify it to support SQL Server Express, which is easy. These modifications are working so the application can be deployed using either SQL Server or MS Access. (Whatever the user prefers.) I did consider deploying the whole application together with the SQL Compact but this is not practicak. Using SQL Server Express 2008 instead of 2005 is an option, but also has a few nasty side-effects which we don't want to resolve for now. The problem is deploying the whole project. The installation with SQL Server would need a quiet installation so the user won't notice it. SQL Server is mentioned in the documentation so they know it's there. We just don't want to bother them with technical issues. In most cases, such an installation will go just fine. But what if the user already has an SQL Server (2005) installation which is used for something else? Personally, I would prefer to just install a second instance of SQL Server on their system so it won't conflict with the other installation. (Thus, if they uninstall the other app, the SQL instance will just stay installed.) While SQL Server 2005 and 2008 can be installed on the same system simply by using two different names for the instance, I wonder if it's also possible to install SQL Server 2005 twice on a single system to get two instances. And if possible, how?

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  • Can i change the view without changing the controller?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Pretend1 there is a place to type in a name:     Name: __________________ When the text box changes, the value is absorbed into the controller, who stores it in data model. Business rules require that a name be entered: if there is no text entered the TextBox should be colored something in the view to indicate baddness; otherwise it can be whatever color the view likes. The TextBox contains a String, the controller handles a String, and the model stores a String. Now lets say i want to improve the view. There is a new kind of text box2 that can be fed not only string-based keyboard input, but also an image. The view (currently) knows how to determine if the image is in the proper format to perform the processing required to extract text out of it. If there is text, then that text can be fed to the controller, who feeds it to the data model. But if the image is invalid, e.g.3 wrong file format invalid dimensions invalid bit depth unhandled or unknown encoding format missing or incorrectly located registration marks contents not recognizable the view can show something to the user that the image is bad. But the telling the user that something is bad is supposed to be the job of the controller. i'm, of course, not going to re-write the controller to handle Image based text-input (e.g. image based names). a. the code is binary locked inside a GUI widget4 b. there other views besides this one, i'm not going to impose a particular view onto the controller c. i just don't wanna. If i have to change things outside of this UI improvement, then i'll just leave the UI unimproved5 So what's the thinking on having different views for the same Model and Controller? Nitpicker's Corner 1 contrived hypothetical example 2 e.g. bar code, g-mask, ocr 3 contrived hypothetical reasons 4 or hardware of a USB bar-code scanner 5 forcing the user to continue to use a DateTimePicker rather than a TextBox

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  • Safari and Chrome back button changes hidden and submit values in forms

    - by OverClocked
    The following problem happens on both Safari and Chrome, so probably a WebKit issue. Page A: a page that requires you to login to see, contains a form that has a type=submit button, with name=submit, and value=a Page B: some other page Page C: ask user to login page, contains a form with a type=submit button, with name=submit and value=c User visits page A, then page B. Then idles and the user's login session times out. User hits back button to go back to page A. Browser redirects user to page C. On Safari and Chrome, when C is rendered, the form on page C has the type=submit button, name=submit, but value shows up as "a". If you reload while on page C, "c" appears as the value of the name=submit button. The same problem appears with type=hidden input fields; when user hits back button, their values are also changed to some other value from some other form. Also, this problem also shows up w/o the redirect, with just submit then back. In this case the previous page renders with incorrect values for hidden and submit CGI variables. So far the only fix I can come up with is use Javascript to reset the type=hidden and type=submit variable values, after page C loads, to make sure the values are correct. But that's not clean and universally applicable. Short of WebKit fixing this error, has anyone ran into a better workaround? Thanks.

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  • define a closure as method from class

    - by user272839
    Hi, i'm trying to play with php5.3 and closure. I see here (Listing 7. Closure inside an object : http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/os-php-5.3new2/index.html) that it's possible to use $this in the callback function, but it's not. So I try to give $this as use variable : $self = $this; $foo = function() use($self) { //do something with $self } So to use the same example : class Dog { private $_name; protected $_color; public function __construct($name, $color) { $this->_name = $name; $this->_color = $color; } public function greet($greeting) { $self = $this; return function() use ($greeting, $self) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; }; } } $dog = new Dog("Rover","red"); $dog->greet("Hello"); Output: Hello, I am a red dog named Rover. First of all this example does not print the string but return the function, but that's not my problem. Secondly I can't access to private or protected, because the callback function is a global function and not in the context from the Dog object. Tha't my problem. It's the same as : function greet($greeting, $object) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } And I want : public function greet($greeting) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } Which is from Dog and not global. I hope that I am clear ...

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  • Finding the digit root of a number

    - by Jessica M.
    Study question is to find the digit root of a already provided number. The teacher provides us with the number 2638. In order to find the digit root you have to add each digit separately 2 + 6 + 3 + 8 = 19. Then you take the result 19 and add those two digits together 1 + 9 = 10. Do the same thing again 1 + 0 = 1. The digit root is 1. My first step was to use the variable total to add up the number 2638 to find the total of 19. Then I tried to use the second while loop to separate the two digits by using the % I have to try and solve the problem by using basic integer arithmetic (+, -, *, /). 1.Is it necessary and or possible to solve the problem using nested while loops? 2.Is my math correct? 3. As I wrote it here it does not run in Eclipse. Am I using the while loops correctly? import acm.program.*; public class Ch4Q7 extends ConsoleProgram { public void run(){ println("This program attempts to find the digit root of your number: "); int n = readInt("Please enter your number: "); int total = 0; int root = total; while (n > 0 ){ total = total + (n %10); n = (n / 10); } while ( total > 0 ){ root = total; total = ((total % 10) + total / 10); } println("your root should be " + root); } }

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  • Is there a way to get the PREMATCH ($`) and POSTMATCH ($') from pcrecpp?

    - by Eric Peers
    Is there a way to obtain the C++ equivalent of Perl's PREMATCH ($`) and POSTMATCH ($') from pcrecpp? I would be happy with a string, a char *, or pairs indices/startpos+length that point at this. StringPiece seems like it might accomplish part of this, but I'm not certain how to get it. in perl: $_ = "Hello world"; if (/lo\s/) { $pre = $`; #should be "Hel" $post = $'; #should be "world" } in C++ I would have something like: string mystr = "Hello world"; //do I need to map this in a StringPiece? if (pcrecpp::RE("lo\s").PartialMatch(mystr)) { //should I use Consume or FindAndConsume? //What should I do here to get pre+post matches??? } pcre plainjane c seems to have the ability to return the vector with the matches including the "end" portion of the string, so I could theoretically extract such a pre/post variable, but that seems like a lot of work. I like the simplicty of the pcrecpp interface. Suggestions? Thanks! --Eric

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  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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  • php request variables assigning $_GEt

    - by chris
    if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

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  • passing multidimensional arrays to function

    - by Pegah
    hi! I have a method in my class which uses a 3dimensional tfpairexp as input parameter. and I need to use the values in tfpairexp later. void calctfpairexp (int tf1, int tf2, double tfpairexp[][2][3]) { int ctr,c; for (int j = 0; j < cchips && (c = chips[j].crepls); j += c) { int ctrl_no=0; for (int *p = chips[j].ctrl ; p && (ctr=*p)>=0; ++p,ctrl_no++) { for (int k = 0; k < c; ++k) { tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); } } } } I call the method inside the class like this: calctfpairexp(tf1,tf2,tfpairexp); and I need to use values inside tfpairexp in next lines. but the compiler gives error in this line: tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); and says that the tfpairexp variable is not defined in the calctfpairexp function. any idea?

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • Approaches for animating a C# property over time?

    - by Mario Fritsch
    I'm currently trying to animate a bunch of public properties on certain objects. Usually they are of type float or vectors of floats (the type is known at compile-time). I want to be able to: assign a static value to them (MyObject.Duration = 10f;) or assign a random value to them by specifying a minimum and maximum value and optionally also a weight (MyObject.Duration = new RandomFloat(5f, 20f, 2f);) or "bind" this property to the property of another object (think of a child object binding some of its properties to its parent object, like its color or size or sth.) or assign sort of a keyframe animation to them, specifying a variable number of keyframes with timecode and the property's value at that specific point in time as well as information about how to interpolate between these frames The keyframes should be able to accept random values for each frame, both for the time and the property's value. What would be a practical approach for this kind of system? Currently I'm thinking about polymorphism: implement a base class or interface with a public Value-property and/or GetValue(float time)-method and then creating different sub classes like StaticValue, RandomValue, BindingValue and AnimatedValue implementing this base class or interface. Doesn't seem very elegant, though, and the initialization of even simple objects becomes a bit tedious. Another idea would be to implement these properties just as regular floats or vectors and create special "Modifier"-types binding to these properties. To retrieve the "real" value of the property, I'd first call any Modifier bound to the property, which would in turn update the actual object's property for me to retrieve later on. That would most likely mean using reflection at some point, which could be quite bad for performance as I'll probably have thousands of properties to update dozens of times per second. Any suggestions on this? Being a novice I'm (hopefully) missing some far more elegant and/or practical solution than I'm already playing around with :( Edit: Probably should have mentioned this earlier, but WPF isn't an option - it's not available on all targetted platforms, so I can't rely on it. I'm aware of its powerful databinding and animation capabilities, but I need to roll my own (or find some other lightweight alternative meeting my needs).

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  • Ruby integer to string key

    - by Gene
    A system I'm building needs to convert non-negative Ruby integers into shortest-possible UTF-8 string values. The only requirement on the strings is that their lexicographic order be identical to the natural order on integers. What's the best Ruby way to do this? We can assume the integers are 32 bits and the sign bit is 0. This is successful: (i >> 24).chr + ((i >> 16) & 0xff).chr + ((i >> 8) & 0xff).chr + (i & 0xff).chr But it appears to be 1) garbage-intense and 2) ugly. I've also looked at pack solutions, but these don't seem portable due to byte order. FWIW, the application is Redis hash field names. Building keys may be a performance bottleneck, but probably not. This question is mostly about the "Ruby way".

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  • How to support comparisons for QVariant objects containing a custom type?

    - by Tyler McHenry
    According to the Qt documentation, QVariant::operator== does not work as one might expect if the variant contains a custom type: bool QVariant::operator== ( const QVariant & v ) const Compares this QVariant with v and returns true if they are equal; otherwise returns false. In the case of custom types, their equalness operators are not called. Instead the values' addresses are compared. How are you supposed to get this to behave meaningfully for your custom types? In my case, I'm storing an enumerated value in a QVariant, e.g. In a header: enum MyEnum { Foo, Bar }; Q_DECLARE_METATYPE(MyEnum); Somewhere in a function: QVariant var1 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); QVariant var2 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); assert(var1 == var2); // Fails! What do I need to do differently in order for this assertion to be true? I understand why it's not working -- each variant is storing a separate copy of the enumerated value, so they have different addresses. I want to know how I can change my approach to storing these values in variants so that either this is not an issue, or so that they do both reference the same underlying variable. It don't think it's possible for me to get around needing equality comparisons to work. The context is that I am using this enumeration as the UserData in items in a QComboBox and I want to be able to use QComboBox::findData to locate the item index corresponding to a particular enumerated value.

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  • Best way to associate data files with particular tests in RSpec / Ruby

    - by Bill T
    For my RSpec tests I would to automatically associate data files with each test. To clarify, if my tests each require an xml file as input data and then some xpath statements to validate the responses they get back I would like to externalize the xml and xpath as files and have the testing framework easily associate them with the particular test being run by using the unique ID of the test as the file(s) name. I tried to get this behavior but the solution isn't very clean. I wrote a helper method that takes the value of "description" and combines it with FILE to create a unique identifier which is set into a global variable that other utilities can access. The unique identifier is used to associate the data files I need. I have to call this helper method as the first line of every test, which is ugly. If I have an RSpec example that looks like this: describe "Basic functions of this server I'm testing" do it "should give me back a response" do # Sets a global var to: "my_tests_spec.rb_should_give_me_back_a_response" TestHelper::who_am_i __FILE__, description ... end end Is there some better/cleaner/slicker way I can get an unique ID for each test that I could use to associate data files with? Perhaps something build into RSpec I'm unaware of? Thank you, -Bill

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  • Am I doing it right?

    - by LuckySlevin
    I have situation. I have to create a Sports Club system in JAVA. There should be a class your for keeping track of club name, president name and braches the club has. For each sports branch also there should be a class for keeping track of a list of players. Also each player should have a name, number, position and salary. So, I come up with this. Three seperate classes: public class Team { String clubName; String preName; Branch []branches; } public class Branch { Player[] players; } public class Player { String name; String pos; int salary; int number; } The problems are creating Branch[] in another class and same for the Player[]. Is there any simplier thing to do this? For example, I want to add info for only the club name, president name and branches of the club, in this situation, won't i have to enter players,names,salaries etc. since they are nested in each other. I hope i could be clear. For further questions you can ask.

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  • Initializing AngularJS service factory style

    - by wisemanIV
    I have a service that retrieves data via REST. I want to store the resulting data in service level variable for use in multiple controllers. When I put all the REST logic directly into controllers everything works fine but when I attempt to move the retrieval / storing of data into a service the controller is not being updated when the data comes back. I've tried lots of different ways of maintain the binding between service and controller. Controller: myApp.controller('SiteConfigCtrl', ['$scope', '$rootScope', '$route', 'SiteConfigService', function ($scope, $rootScope, $route, SiteConfigService) { $scope.init = function() { console.log("SiteConfigCtrl init"); $scope.site = SiteConfigService.getConfig(); } } ]); Service: myApp.factory('SiteConfigService', ['$http', '$rootScope', '$timeout', 'RESTService', function ($http, $rootScope, $timeout, RESTService) { var siteConfig = {} ; RESTService.get("https://domain/incentiveconfig", function(data) { siteConfig = data; }); return { getConfig:function () { console.debug("SiteConfigService getConfig:"); console.debug(siteConfig); return siteConfig; } }; } ]);

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  • C# XML node with colon

    - by Sticky
    Hi, my code attempts to grab data from the RSS feed of a website. It grabs the nodes fine, but when attempting to grab the data from a node with a colon, it crashes and gives the error "Namespace Manager or XsltContext needed. This query has a prefix, variable, or user-defined function." The code is shown below: WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create("http://buypoe.com/external.php?type=RSS2&lastpost=true"); WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(""); System.IO.StreamReader rssStream = new System.IO.StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("utf-8")); XmlDocument rssDoc = new XmlDocument(); rssDoc.Load(rssStream); XmlNodeList rssItems = rssDoc.SelectNodes("rss/channel/item"); for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { XmlNode rssDetail; rssDetail = rssItems.Item(i).SelectSingleNode("dc:creator"); if (rssDetail != null) { user = rssDetail.InnerText; } else { user = ""; } } I understand that I need to define the namespace, but am unsure how to do this. Help would be appreciated.

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  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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  • iPhone and iPad : Doing a "select * from something" query in a SQLite database

    - by Abramodj
    Hi folks, i'm trying to use the SQLite data base in my iPad app, and here's my function to make a query: - (void)executeQuery:(char*)query { NSString *file = [self getWritableDBPath]; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:file]; // If its not a local copy set it to the bundle copy if(!success) { //file = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:DATABASE_TITLE ofType:@"db"]; [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; } dataArray = NULL; dataArray = [NSMutableArray array]; sqlite3 *database = NULL; if (sqlite3_open([file UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_exec(database, query, loadTimesCallback, dataArray, NULL); } sqlite3_close(database); [self logResults]; } if I call [self executeQuery:"select name from table1"]; everything is working fine. But if i call [self executeQuery:"select * from cars"]; the app crashes telling me that the NSMutableArray dataArray is not the right kind of variable where to set the query results. So, how can i do a "select * form table1" query, and store the results? Thanks! EDIT: Here's my loadTimesCallback method: static int loadTimesCallback(void *context, int count, char **values, char **columns) { NSMutableArray *times = (NSMutableArray *)context; for (int i=0; i < count; i++) { const char *nameCString = values[i]; [times addObject:[NSString stringWithUTF8String:nameCString]]; } return SQLITE_OK; }

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  • final transient fields and serialization

    - by doublep
    Is it possible to have final transient fields that are set to any non-default value after serialization in Java? My usecase is a cache variable — that's why it is transient. I also have a habit of making Map fields that won't be changed (i.e. contents of the map is changed, but object itself remains the same) final. However, these attributes seem to be contradictory — while compiler allows such a combination, I cannot have the field set to anything but null after unserialization. I tried the following, without success: simple field initialization (shown in the example): this is what I normally do, but the initialization doesn't seem to happen after unserialization; initialization in constructor (I believe this is semantically the same as above though); assigning the field in readObject() — cannot be done since the field is final. In the example cache is public only for testing. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class test { public static void main (String[] args) throws Exception { X x = new X (); System.out.println (x + " " + x.cache); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream (); new ObjectOutputStream (buffer).writeObject (x); x = (X) new ObjectInputStream (new ByteArrayInputStream (buffer.toByteArray ())).readObject (); System.out.println (x + " " + x.cache); } public static class X implements Serializable { public final transient Map <Object, Object> cache = new HashMap <Object, Object> (); } } Output: test$X@1a46e30 {} test$X@190d11 null

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