Search Results

Search found 18729 results on 750 pages for 'edit'.

Page 608/750 | < Previous Page | 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615  | Next Page >

  • Developing on both Windows & Linux machines simultaneously

    - by Jamie
    Sorry for the bad title (couldn't think of a better way to describe it) I have a windows machine which I do development on. However, I have a new project which needs to interact with a linux system (executing linux commands etc.). So, obviously I can't do development on my windows machine..and I don't wish to code on the dev machine, svn commit and then svn update it on the linux machine. Is there a way where any changes I make on my dev machine will be quickly mirrored to the linux machine? SVN is not a very quick alternative and of course some changes will be very minor. Any ideas? A network share I guess....but that's not very pretty (bit slow too). As fellow developers I would like to know if you've been in a similar situation and how you've resolved it. On a furthernote, I can't just install Ubuntu as my development machine and mirror the commands, applications etc. from the linux machine because it's a cluster 'master' machine and so therefore it has quite a special configuration. Thanks guys! EDIT: I've also thought about having web services on the linux machine and then just calling them from code thus seperating platform development dependency. What do you think about that too? thanks

    Read the article

  • PHP on Ubuntu autoload_register and namespacing issue

    - by Tian Loon
    I have a problem here. I have created the namespace for all classes. previously i was using windows 7 to develop current app, everything is fine. now i just moved to ubuntu, the problem comes. index.php spl_autoload_extensions(".php"); /*spl_autoload_register(function ($class) { require __DIR__ . '/../' . $class . '.php'; });*/ //provided i have tried the above method, which works on windows 7 but not Ubuntu spl_autoload_register(function ($class) { require '/../' . $class . '.php'; }); //for your info, i do this //require "../resources/library/Config.php"; //it works, no error use resources\library as LIB; use resources\dal as DAL; //instantiation $config = new LIB\Config(); print_r($config->fbKey()); i got this error PHP Warning: require(../resources\\library\\Config.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in /home/user/dir1/dir2/index.php i cannot find the error. hope you guys can help me with this. any question don hesitate to comment i will edit. thanks in advance. UPDATE - Extra Info PHP version 5.4.6 LATEST UPDATE any idea how to solve this without using str_replace ?

    Read the article

  • User Management: Managing users in user-defined "groups", database schema and logistics

    - by Kevin Brown
    I'm a noob, development wise and logistically-wise. I'm developing a site that lets people take a test... My client wants the ability for a user with the roll/privledge "admin" (a step below a super-admin) to be allowed to create users and only see/edit the users that they create... The users created in that "category" or group need some information that their superior provides. For example, I log in as a "manager", I have the ability to invite people to take the test, and manage those people. Before adding those people, I will have filled out a short survey about myself... Right now, the users that are invited will be asked some of the same questions as the manager. I'd like to cut down the redundancy by using the information put into the database by the manager and apply it to the invited users. How do I set up my database to work with this criterion? I'm a little confused about how to do this! Let me know if I can add more details... (This is a mysql and php app)

    Read the article

  • IIS Restrict Access to Directory for table of users

    - by Dave
    I am trying to restrict access to files in a directory and it's sub directories based user rights. My user rights are stored in an MS SQL database in a custom format, however it is easy to query the list of users with rights to this directory. I need to know how to apply this to a web config on the server to authenticate against a query of a database table to determine if the username is authenticated and allowed to view the file. Of course if they are not they should be blocked / given a 404. I am using IIS and ASP.Net MVC3 with a form based security as opposed to the built in roles and responsibilities that was custom made for us and that works great. There are over 10k users tied to this non-Active Directory authentication so I am not planning to change my authentication type so please don't go there. It is not my decision on the choice of platform, or I would have gone with a LAMP server and been done with this. Edit 11-13-2012 @ 8:57a: In the web config can you put the result of an SQL query?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to Sql: Insert instead of Update

    - by Christina Mayers
    I am stuck with this problems for a long time now. Everything I try to do is insert a row in my DB if it's new information - if not update the existing one. I've updated many entities in my life before - but what's wrong with this code is beyond me (probably something pretty basic) I guess I can't see the wood for the trees... private Models.databaseDataContext db = new Models.databaseDataContext(); internal void StoreInformations(IEnumerable<EntityType> iEnumerable) { foreach (EntityType item in iEnumerable) { EntityType type = db.EntityType.Where(t => t.Room == item.Room).FirstOrDefault(); if (type == null) { db.EntityType.InsertOnSubmit(item); } else { type.Date = item.Date; type.LastUpdate = DateTime.Now(); type.End = item.End; } } } internal void Save() { db.SubmitChanges(); } Edit: just checked the ChangeSet, there are no updates only inserts. For now I've settled with foreach (EntityType item in iEnumerable) { EntityType type = db.EntityType.Where(t => t.Room == item.Room).FirstOrDefault(); if (type != null) { db.Exams.DeleteOnSubmit(type); } db.EntityType.InsertOnSubmit(item); } but I'd love to do updates and lose these unnecessary delete statements.

    Read the article

  • Two column layout, navigation div on the right, solution from previous thread didn't seem to work

    - by Tom
    I tried the solution from this thread, but I must be missing something because it doesn't work: <div style="float:left;margin-right:200px"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum.</p> </div> <div style="float:right;width:200px"> <p>navigation</p> </div> It works when the text in the content div (the left one) is short, but when it's long then the div takes up the whole width of the browser and the margin is there, but the right div is pushed below the first one nevertheless. What am I missing? Edit: The goal is to have a fix sized navigation column on the right of the browser window and the left div should get all the space left by the right navigation column (liquid layout).

    Read the article

  • Spring URL mapping question

    - by es11
    I am using Java with Spring framework. Given the following url: www.mydomain.com/contentitem/234 I need to map all requests that come to /contentitem/{numeric value} mapped to a given controller with the "numeric value" passed as a parameter to the controller. Right now in my servlet container xml I have simple mappings similar to the following: ... <entry key="/index.html"> <ref bean="homeController" /> </entry> ... I am just wondering what I need to add to the mapping in order to achieve what I described? Edit: I unaccepted the answer temporarily because I can't seem to figure out how to do the mapping in my web.xml (I am using annotations as described in axtavt's answer below). How do I add a proper <url-pattern>..</url-pattern> in my <servlet-mapping> so that the request for "/contentitem/{numeric_value}" gets properly picked up? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Handles Comparison: empty classes vs. undefined classes vs. void*

    - by Nawaz
    Microsoft's GDI+ defines many empty classes to be treated as handles internally. For example, (source GdiPlusGpStubs.h) //Approach 1 class GpGraphics {}; class GpBrush {}; class GpTexture : public GpBrush {}; class GpSolidFill : public GpBrush {}; class GpLineGradient : public GpBrush {}; class GpPathGradient : public GpBrush {}; class GpHatch : public GpBrush {}; class GpPen {}; class GpCustomLineCap {}; There are other two ways to define handles. They're, //Approach 2 class BOOK; //no need to define it! typedef BOOK *PBOOK; typedef PBOOK HBOOK; //handle to be used internally //Approach 3 typedef void* PVOID; typedef PVOID HBOOK; //handle to be used internally I just want to know the advantages and disadvantages of each of these approaches. One advantage with Microsoft's approach is that, they can define type-safe hierarchy of handles using empty classes, which (I think) is not possible with the other two approaches. What else? EDIT: One advantage with the second approach (i.e using incomplete classes) is that we can prevent clients from dereferencing the handles (that means, this approach appears to support encapsulation strongly, I suppose). The code would not even compile if one attempts to dereference handles. What else?

    Read the article

  • How do I make a web interface for a socket server

    - by mgroat
    I've got a socket server running (it's something that's basically like a chat server). Users can telnet into it, but I'd like to make a web interface. This is the first time I've ever done something like this, so I'm not really sure where to start. A few thoughts I've had: Have some server-side Python (or PHP) on my webserver, which accesses the socket server. I think I know enough about sockets to have Python interact with the server, but how do I go about getting the website that the user sees to update in real time? Should I just have the website refresh few seconds? I would prefer to do things this way if I can figure out how. Write a Java applet that interacts with the socket server, and embed the applet in the website. I would have to re-learn a language that I haven't touched in years, but my main goal here is learning -- so that wouldn't be such a bad thing. The main problem I have with this is that it requires end users to have Java installed on their computers, which I'd rather not do. Is one of these two solutions the right way to go? Anybody know where I can find a good tutorial to get started? Edit: There's no real security concerns with exposing the server to the internet.

    Read the article

  • Occasional weird Glassfish errors, resolved by a restart?

    - by Pooria
    I'm developing a web app using netbeans with GlassFishv3. Every once in a while when I add a new feature in my app, glassfish starts nagging with stupid errors, after a lot of time wasting and panicking, i restart glassfish and run my application again, then suddenly the errors all go away and my site starts acting correctly. (or in case I have made a real mistake, i receive a reasonable & descriptive error from GF.) [Edit: the rest of the question was revealed to have been my own mistake.] But the problems don't end there. Recently, i added the ability to write comments in a (JSF) page, after the user submits their comment, i add it to the database and redirect to the same page, so that hopefully the page refreshes with the new comment, but it wont! The underlying Mysql database shows that the new comment has been added, but the page just wont show the new comment! I've tried everything (e.g. deleting browser cache, using different browsers) but only after restarting GF is when the page shows the new comment! Do you have any idea what the problem could be? Could this be a Glassfish bug? What i am using: JSF2, EJB3.1, JPA, MySql

    Read the article

  • Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

    - by shawn.mek
    Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

    Read the article

  • what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

    - by Omnipresent
    I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

    Read the article

  • How do I sanitize a string in PHP that contains "; Echo"? (I have a solid reason)

    - by user337878
    I turned this case into a simple PHP page that submits to itself. My issue is that I am submitting track meet results and one of the girl's names is Echo...a lovely name. The problem text I'm submitting is: Pole vault - Rachel Simons, Tow, 8-6; Echo Wilson, Cit, 8-0; Molly Randall, Tow, 7-0; So you see a semicolon followed by white space followed by Echo... After submitting, it says: POST to /results/test.php not supported The end goal is to save it to a database along with some other info and have a search page to find it and simply print out the full result on the screen. I stripped out all my database stuff to get it down to this one error. I mean, I can intentionally mis-spell her name, but there's gotta be a way around this, right??? Here's the test PHP file. <html> <head> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php echo "<h3>Edit meet info below</h3>"; echo "<form action=\"test.php\" method=\"post\" id=\"submitForm\">"; echo "Full Results:<br/><textarea NAME=\"results\" id=\"results\" rows=\"20\" cols=\"80\" MAXLENGTH=\"8191\"></textarea><br/><br/>"; echo "<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submitMeet\" value=\"Submit\">"; echo "</form>"; ?> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

    Read the article

  • high cpu in IIS

    - by Miki Watts
    Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

    Read the article

  • Left/Right/Inner joins using C# and LINQ

    - by Keith Barrows
    I am trying to figure out how to do a series of queries to get the updates, deletes and inserts segregated into their own calls. I have 2 tables, one in each of 2 databases. One is a Read Only feeds database and the other is the T-SQL R/W Production source. There are a few key columns in common between the two. What I am doing to setup is this: List<model.AutoWithImage> feedProductList = _dbFeed.AutoWithImage.Where(a => a.ClientID == ClientID).ToList(); List<model.vwCompanyDetails> companyDetailList = _dbRiv.vwCompanyDetails.Where(a => a.ClientID == ClientID).ToList(); foreach (model.vwCompanyDetails companyDetail in companyDetailList) { List<model.Product> productList = _dbRiv.Product.Include("Company").Where(a => a.Company.CompanyId == companyDetail.CompanyId).ToList(); } Now that I have a (source) list of products from the feed, and an existing (target) list of products from my prod DB I'd like to do 3 things: Find all SKUs in the feed that are not in the target Find all SKUs that are in both, that are active feed products and update the target Find all SKUs that are in both, that are inactive and soft delete from the target What are the best practices for doing this without running a double loop? Would prefer a LINQ 4 Objects solution as I already have my objects. EDIT: BTW, I will need to transfer info from feed rows to target rows in the first 2 instances, just set a flag in the last instance. TIA

    Read the article

  • How to handle dynamic role or username changes in JSF?

    - by roadrunner
    I have a JSF application running on glassfish 2.1 with a EJB 3 backend. For authentication I use a custom realm. The user authenticates using the e-mail-address and password he specified on registration. Everything is working quite well. Now I have two related problems: 1) The user can edit his profile and -- naturally -- he can also change his e-mail-address. Unfortunately when I perform operations based on the current user's identity using ExternalContext.getUserPrincipal().getName(), I will receive the previous e-mail-address the user used on login. At the moment I handle this by forcing the user to reauthenticate after he changed his e-mail-address, but is there another more graceful possibility? 2) Same for user roles. E.g. I have the user roles MEMBER and PREMIUM_MEMBER. A MEMBER may become a PREMIUM_MEMBER during his current session. Unfortunately the role seems to be only determined at login. Is there any possibility, that JSF and EJB recognize the new user role without the need for the user to re-authenticated?

    Read the article

  • How do I install websocket module for Node.js on Debian VPS?

    - by Ollie Shaw
    I currently am renting a VPS from Dreamhost which runs Debian. I am still learning command line on this OS, but fast! I have successfully installed Node.js, now I want to install the websocket module found here: https://github.com/Worlize/WebSocket-Node From the root user, I have run the following command: npm install websocket The error thrown is: [websocket v1.0.7] Native code compile failed!! On Windows, native extensions require Visual Studio and Python. On Unix, native extensions require Python, make and a C++ compiler. Start npm with --websocket:verbose to show compilation output (if any). What commands should I issue to install this websocket module and its requirements? Thanks very much! Edit: When I run sudo apt-get install gcc make I get this message: Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done gcc is already the newest version. gcc set to manually installed. make is already the newest version. 0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 44 not upgraded. And the same error when trying to install WebSocket.

    Read the article

  • Installer downloads wrong version of sql server compact edition

    - by MartinStettner
    I have a Visual Studio setup project which defines SQL Server 3.5 as prerequisite. I also set it up to download the required files from the source (i.e. Microsoft). My project uses Sql Server 3.5 SP1. If I create the installer on my development machine, everything works fine. When the installer is built on the build machine, it downloads the "old" 3.5 version (without SP1) which makes my application crash. (If I install SP1 on the test system manually, the application just works find...) I installed both Visual Studio 2008 SP1 and Sql Server 3.5 SP1 on the build machine. This seems to be some issue with the prerequisite packages but they look the same on the development and the build machines. Any idea what goes wrong here? EDIT Ok, I rechecked it and the package descriptions are'nt the sames. Oddly enough, the .msi file is the right one on the build machine but the old one on the development machine, so I guess if I tried to build an installer which includes the prerequisites, I'd get the wrong result on the dev machine and the right one on the build machine. Extended question: How are the prerequesite packages (under C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\Bootstrapper\Packages\SQL Server Compact Edition) meant to be updated to SP1? Is the SQL Server CE SP1 installer responsible for this?

    Read the article

  • How do I manage dependencies for automated builds on my build server?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I'm trying to implement continuous integration into our day to day workings. In our team, we're moving from just building our code in Visual Studio on our workstations and deploying, to using MSBuild.exe and automating on our build server (which is Jenkins) without the use of Visual Studio. We have external dependencies to references such as Automap in our projects. Because the automap (for example) dll isn't on the build server, the msbuild execution fails, for obvious reasons. There are other dll's which I need to be part of the build, I'm just using automap as an example. So what's the best way to get any dependencies onto the build server as part of the automated build? I've seen references to using a 'lib' folder, but I don't really understand where I should be putting it (in my project, filesystem, SVN ...?), and how the build server will get to it. I've also read that NuGet can do something with dependencies, but my build server isn't connected to the internet, and I don't understand how I can get my build to pull a NuGet package I may have created, and how it works together. Edit: I'm using subversion and we cannot use TeamCity as we would have to buy it and there's zero chance of funding.

    Read the article

  • Use ini/appconfig file or sql server file to store user config?

    - by h2g2java
    I know that the preference for INI or appconfig XML is their human readability. Let's say user preferences stored for my app are hierarchical and numbers about a thousand items and it would be really confusing for a user to edit an INI to change things anyway. I have always been using a combination of INI with appconfig. I am leaning towards using sql server db file, now. Every time the user changes a preference while using the app, it would be stored into the db file - that's my line of thought. I am also thinking that such a config db file could move around with the app too, just like an INI. Before I do that, any advice 1. If there are any disadvantages against using a db file over INI or appconfig. 2. If a shop uses mysql or oracle, do you think your colleagues would lift up their pro-mysql or pro-oracle eyebrow questioning why you would use sql server technology in a mysql or oracle shop? I mean, I am just using it like an INI file or app.config anyway, right?

    Read the article

  • Autodiscovery for inclusion tags

    - by Ludwik Trammer
    The title may be a little confusing, but I don't know how else to call it. I would like to create a Django project with a large set of applications you could arbitrary turn on or off using INSTALLED_APPS option in settings.py (you would obviously also need to edit urls.py and run syncdb). After being turned on an app should be able to automatically: Register it's content in site-wide search. Luckily django-haystack has this built-in, so it's not a problem. Register cron jobs. django-cron does exactly that. Not a problem. Register a widget that should be displayed on the homepage. The homepage should include a list of boxes with widgets form different applications. I thought about inclusion tags, because you can put them anywhere on a page and they control both content and presentation. The problem is I don't know how to automatically get a list of inclusion tags provided by my applications, and display them one by one on a homepage. I need a way to register them somehow, and then display all registered tags.

    Read the article

  • Conventions for the behavior of double or triple "click to select text" features?

    - by John Sullivan
    Almost any mature program that involves text implements "double click to select the word" and, in some cases, "triple click to select additional stuff like an entire line" as a feature. I find these features useful but they are often inconsistent between programs. Example - some programs' double clicks do not select the ending space after a word, but most do. Some recognize the - character as the end of a word, others do not. SO likes to select the entire paragraph as I write this post when I triple click it, VS web developer 2005 has no triple click support, and ultra-edit 32 will select one line upon triple clicking. We could come up with innumerable inconsistencies about how double and triple click pattern matching is implemented across programs. I am concerned about how to implement this behavior in my program if nobody else has achieved a convention about how the pattern matching should work. My question is, does a convention (conventions? maybe an MS or Linux convention?) exist that dictates how these features are supposed to behave to the end user? What, if any, are they?

    Read the article

  • How does the CheckBox obtain it's respective drawables?

    - by alex2k8
    The CheckBox class extends the CompoundButton, but add nothing to it. But some how it obtains it's respective look. I found some declarations in Android sources, but wonder how they are mapped to CheckBox class? public class CheckBox extends CompoundButton { public CheckBox(Context context) { this(context, null); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { this(context, attrs, com.android.internal.R.attr.checkboxStyle); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); } } Styles <style name="Theme"> <item name="checkboxStyle">@android:style/Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox</item> </style> <style name="Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox"> <item name="android:background">@android:drawable/btn_check_label_background</item> <item name="android:button">@android:drawable/btn_check</item> </style> EDIT: Probably I was not clear... I understand how the drawable assigned to Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox style, but how this style assigned to CheckBox class? I see the ".CheckBox" in the style name, but is this naming convention really what makes the trick? If so, what are the rules? If I derive MyCheckBox from CompoundButton, can I just define the Widget.CompoundButton.MyCheckBox style and it will work?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615  | Next Page >