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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• SVN Serve, Missing a Directory

  - by Ryan Smith

  I'm sure this is an asinine question, and I blame myself for not fully understanding how the SVNSERVE process works. I have an SVN repo, but it needs to be moved to a server within a clients cloud. I did this a while back and ran into the issue of the SVNSERVE.exe process not getting set to the right directory. I have the SVNSERVE.exe process running as a windows service and pointing to the right directory. There are two other repos there that are serving out fine in the same directory. I copied out the new directory just like I did with the others, but I'm getting the error "No repository found". I thought that SVNSERVE just looked at that directory and served out the repositories that were there, but I have had a hard time finding more information about that. I thought it was a Windows permission problem, but I set the whole folder to be full control to EVERYONE, so that's not it. I feel horrible I didn't fully understand this problem the first time I fought it, but it's late on a Sunday night and clients are yelling. Anyone know what I'm missing? Thanks. EDIT: It's specific to the repository. I tested the same process with some of the other repos we have on our server and when I copied them up, they worked just as expected. This bug is breaking me and I wish I could provide more details, but that's all I know. I'm going to try to do an SVN Dump instead of an XCopy and see how that goes. I'll let you know.

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• Group vs role (Any real difference?)

  - by Ondrej

  Can anyone tell me, what's the real difference between group and role? Ive been trying to figure this out for some time now and the more information I read, the more I get the sence, that this is brought up just to confuse people and there is no proper difference in this. Both can do the other one's job. Ive always used a group to manage users and their access rights. Recently, I've come accross an administration software, where is a bunch of users. Each user can have assigned a module (whole system is split into a few parts called modules ie. Administration module, Survey module, Orders module, Customer module). On top of it, each module have a list of functionalities, that can be allowed or denied for each user. So let's say, a user John Smith can access module Orders and can edit any order, but havent given a right to delete any of them. If there was more users with the same competency, I would use a group to manage that. I would aggregate such users into the same group and assign access rights to modules and their functions to the group. All users in the same group would have the same access rights. Why call it a group and not role? I don't know, I just feel it that way. It seems to me, that simply it just doesnt really matter :] But I still would like to know the real difference. What about you guys? Any suggestions why this should be rather called role than group or the other way round? Thanks to everyone.

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• Developing on both Windows & Linux machines simultaneously

  - by Jamie

  Sorry for the bad title (couldn't think of a better way to describe it) I have a windows machine which I do development on. However, I have a new project which needs to interact with a linux system (executing linux commands etc.). So, obviously I can't do development on my windows machine..and I don't wish to code on the dev machine, svn commit and then svn update it on the linux machine. Is there a way where any changes I make on my dev machine will be quickly mirrored to the linux machine? SVN is not a very quick alternative and of course some changes will be very minor. Any ideas? A network share I guess....but that's not very pretty (bit slow too). As fellow developers I would like to know if you've been in a similar situation and how you've resolved it. On a furthernote, I can't just install Ubuntu as my development machine and mirror the commands, applications etc. from the linux machine because it's a cluster 'master' machine and so therefore it has quite a special configuration. Thanks guys! EDIT: I've also thought about having web services on the linux machine and then just calling them from code thus seperating platform development dependency. What do you think about that too? thanks

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• How can i get HWND of external application's listview? In Windows Api using c++

  - by Marko29

  So i am trying to make app to get content of my explorer listviews and get item text etc.. from it but here are the problems... If i inspect windows explorer folder(using spy++) with listview, just for testing purposes i will use random folder. It shows me that caption of the window is "FolderView" with class "SysListView32" and the top level window where this listview is nested is called "reference", this is also the title of windows explorer folder where all the files are. So what i do is.. HWND hWndLV = FindWindow(NULL, TEXT("reference")); // first i get hwnd of the main window, this is where listview window is also nested according to spy++, thats why i do this first. HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,NULL,TEXT("FolderView")); // trying to get hwnd of the listview here but it fails, same happens if i also put the class name along as HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,TEXT("SysListView32"),TEXT("FolderView")); I am using bool test = IsWindow(child); to test for fail, also VS debugger shows 0x0000000000 each time so i am sure i am reading results well. So i am stuck on this probably simple thing for most of people:( p.s. i am on vista64(if that matters anyhow) edit: It appears that this function works only if i search the first nested level of a parent window i am searching. So i assume what i need is a way to get handle with some sort of deep nested level search. I also tried to go step by step by defining hwnd of every parent then i use findwindowex on it but oh boy then i get to the point where there are 5 nested windows all with the same name and only one of them contains my listview, so nice uh?

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• C# Minimize all running windows when application runs

  - by Derek

  I am working on a C# windows form application. How can i edit my code in a way that when more than 2 faces is being detected by my webcam. More information: When "FaceDetectedLabel.Text = "Faces Detected : " + cam.facesdetected.ToString();" becomes Face Detected: 2 or more... How can i do the following: Minimize all program running except my application. Log out of my computer Here is my code: namespace PBD { public partial class MainPage : Form { //declaring global variables private Capture capture; //takes images from camera as image frames public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } private void ProcessFrame(object sender, EventArgs arg) { Wrapper cam = new Wrapper(); //show the image in the EmguCV ImageBox WebcamPictureBox.Image = cam.start_cam(capture).Resize(390, 243, Emgu.CV.CvEnum.INTER.CV_INTER_CUBIC).ToBitmap(); FaceDetectedLabel.Text = "Faces Detected : " + cam.facesdetected.ToString(); } private void MainPage_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { #region if capture is not created, create it now if (capture == null) { try { capture = new Capture(); } catch (NullReferenceException excpt) { MessageBox.Show(excpt.Message); } } #endregion Application.Idle += ProcessFrame; }

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• Question about decorator pattern and the abstract decorator class?

  - by es11

  This question was asked already here, but rather than answering the specific question, descriptions of how the decorator pattern works were given instead. I'd like to ask it again because the answer is not immediately evident to me just by reading how the decorator pattern works (I've read the wikipedia article and the section in the book Head First Design Patterns). Basically, I want to know why an abstract decorator class must be created which implements (or extends) some interface (or abstract class). Why can't all the new "decorated classes" simply implement (or extend) the base abstract object themselves (instead of extending the abstract decorator class)? To make this more concrete I'll use the example from the design patterns book dealing with coffee beverages: There is an abstract component class called Beverage Simple beverage types such as HouseBlend simply extend Beverage To decorate beverage, an abstract CondimentDecorator class is created which extends Beverage and has an instance of Beverage Say we want to add a "milk" condiment, a class Milk is created which extends CondimentDecorator I'd like to understand why we needed the CondimentDecorator class and why the class Milk couldn't have simply extended the Beverage class itself and been passed an instance of Beverage in its constructor. Hopefully this is clear...if not I'd simply like to know why is the abstract decorator class necessary for this pattern? Thanks. Edit: I tried to implement this, omitting the abstract decorator class, and it seems to still work. Is this abstract class present in all descriptions of this pattern simply because it provides a standard interface for all of the new decorated classes?

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• [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

  - by David

  I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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• Populate asp.net MVC Index page with data from the database

  - by Sunil Ramu

  I have a web application in which I need to fetch data from the database and display in the index page. As you know, asp.net mvc has given options to edit delete etc... I need to populate the page using the conventional DB way and it uses a stored procedure to retrieve results. I dont want to use LINQ. This is my model entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace LogMVCApp.Models { public class Property { public int Id { get; set; } public string LogInId { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Action { get; set; } public string Information { get; set; } public bool Passed{get; set; } public string LogType { get; set; } } } and I need to retrieve data using something like this... var conString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connection"].ToString(); var conn = new SqlConnection(conString); var command = new SqlCommand("LogInsert", conn){CommandType=CommandType.StoredProcedure};

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• git rebase without changing commit timestamps

  - by Olivier

  Would it make sense to perform git rebase while preserving the commit timestamps? I believe a consequence would be that the new branch will not necessarily have commit dates chronologically. Is that theoretically possible at all? (e.g. using plumbing commands; just curious here) If it is theoretically possible, then is it possible in practice with rebase, not to change the timestamps? For example, assume I have the following tree: master <jun 2010> | : : : oldbranch <feb 1984> : / oldcommit <jan 1984> Now, if I rebase oldbranch on master, the date of the commit changes from feb 1984 to jun 2010. Is it possible to change that behaviour so that the commit timestamp is not changed? In the end I would thus obtain: oldbranch <feb 1984> / master <jun 2010> | : Would that make sense at all? Is it even allowed in git to have a history where an old commit has a more recent commit as a parent? Edit A crucial question of Von C helped me understand what is going on: when your rebase, the committer's timestamp changes, but not the author's timestamp, which suddenly all makes sense. So my question was actually not precise enough. The answer is that rebase actually doesn't change the author's timestamps (you don't need to do anything for that), which suits me perfectly.

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• Handles Comparison: empty classes vs. undefined classes vs. void*

  - by Nawaz

  Microsoft's GDI+ defines many empty classes to be treated as handles internally. For example, (source GdiPlusGpStubs.h) //Approach 1 class GpGraphics {}; class GpBrush {}; class GpTexture : public GpBrush {}; class GpSolidFill : public GpBrush {}; class GpLineGradient : public GpBrush {}; class GpPathGradient : public GpBrush {}; class GpHatch : public GpBrush {}; class GpPen {}; class GpCustomLineCap {}; There are other two ways to define handles. They're, //Approach 2 class BOOK; //no need to define it! typedef BOOK *PBOOK; typedef PBOOK HBOOK; //handle to be used internally //Approach 3 typedef void* PVOID; typedef PVOID HBOOK; //handle to be used internally I just want to know the advantages and disadvantages of each of these approaches. One advantage with Microsoft's approach is that, they can define type-safe hierarchy of handles using empty classes, which (I think) is not possible with the other two approaches. What else? EDIT: One advantage with the second approach (i.e using incomplete classes) is that we can prevent clients from dereferencing the handles (that means, this approach appears to support encapsulation strongly, I suppose). The code would not even compile if one attempts to dereference handles. What else?

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• Using bash to copy file to spec folders

  - by Franko

  I have a folder with a fair amount of subfolders. In some of the subfolders do I have a folder.jpg picture. What I try to do find that folder(s) and copy it to all other subfolders that got the same artist and album information then continue on to the next album etc. The structure of all the folders are "artist - year - album - [encoding information]". I have made a really simple one liner that find the folders that got the file but there am I stuck. ls -F | grep / | while read folders;do find "$folders" -name folder.jpg; done Anyone have any good tip or ideas how to solve this or pointers how to proceed? Edit: First of all, i´m real new to this (like you cant tell) so please have patience. Ok, let me break it down even more. I have a folder structure that looks like this: artist1 - year - album - [flac] artist1 - year - album - [mp3] artist1 - year - album - [AAC] artist2 - year - album - [flac] etc I like to loop over the set of folders that have the same artist and album information and look for a folder.jpg file. When I find that file do I like to copy it to all of the other folders in the same set. Ex if I find one folder.jpg in artist1 - year - album - [flac] folder do I like to have that folder.jpg copied to artist1 - year - album - [mp3] & artist1 - year - album - [AAC] but not to artist2 - year - album - [flac]. The continue the loop until all the sets been processed. I really hope that makes it a bit more easy to understand what I try to do :)

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• Persistant Http client connections in java

  - by Akusete

  I am trying to write a simple Http client application in Java and am a bit confused by the seemingly different ways to establish Http client connections, and efficiently re-use the objects. Current I am using the following steps (I have left out exception handling for simplicity) Iterator<URI> uriIterator = someURIs(); HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); while (uriIterator.hasNext()) { URI uri = uriIterator.next(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(uri); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream s = entity.getContent(); processStream (); s.close(); } In regard to the code above, my questions is: Assuming all URI's are pointing to the same host (but different resources on that host). What is the recommended way to use a single http connection for all requests? And how do you close the connection after the last request? --edit: Also what is the difference between using uri.openConnection(), versus HttpClient? Which is preferable, and what other methods exist?

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• Using fields from an association (has_many) model with formtastic in rails

  - by pduersteler

  I searched and tried a lot, but I can't accomplish it as I want.. so here's my problem. class Moving < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :movingresources, :dependent => :destroy has_many :resources, :through => :movingresources end class Movingresource < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :moving belongs_to :resource end class Resource < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :movingresources has_many :movings, :through => :movingresources end Movingresources contains additional fields, like "quantity". We're working on the views for 'bill'. Thanks to formtastic to simplify the whole relationship thing by just writing <%= form.input :workers, :as => :check_boxes %> and i get a real nice checkbox list. But what I haven't found out so far is: How can i use the additional fields from 'movingresource', next or under each checkbox my desired fields from that model? I saw different approaches, mainly with manually looping through an array of objects and creating the appropriate forms, using :for in a form.inputs part, or not. But none of those solutions were clean (e.g. worked for the edit view but not for new because the required objects were not built or generated and generating them caused a mess). I want to know your solutions for this! :-)

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• Why are virtual methods considered early bound?

  - by AspOnMyNet

  One definition of binding is that it is the act of replacing function names with memory addresses. a) Thus I assume early binding means function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process, while with late binding this replacement happens during runtime? b) Why are virtual methods also considered early bound (thus the target method is found at compile time, and code is created that will call this method)? As far as I know, with virtual methods the call to actual method is resolved only during runtime and not compile time?! thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) v-table calls are neither early nor late bound. Instead there's an offset into a table of function pointers. The offset is fixed at compile time, but which table the function pointer is chosen from depends on the runtime type of the object (the object contains a hidden pointer to its v-table), so the final function address is found at runtime. But assuming the object of type T is created via reflection ( thus app doesn’t even know of existence of type T ), then how can at compile time exist an entry point for that type of object?

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• App no longer working - any ideas

  - by hamishmcn

  I am out of ideas as to why my app has suddenly stopped working - perhaps the collective mind of the SO community can help... Background: I have a large application that has been working up until recently. Now when ever I try and run it I get the error "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000005)" This happens before the app gets to _tmain(). It happens in both release and debug builds. I have tried cleaning and rebuilding the projects and rebooted my PC. The call stack just shows entries for kernel32.dll and ntdll.dll The output window shows: First-chance exception at 0x00532c13 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xabababdb. First-chance exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Unhandled exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Any ideas? Edit: Okay - found the problem - it was dll related my app uses shared dlls a.dll and b.dll (and others) a.dll hardly every changes (and uses b.dll) b.dll was changed by another developer this morning and a.dll was not rebuilt. Depends.exe did not show any missing dlls, however a.dll no longer works because of the change to b.dll

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• How does the CheckBox obtain it's respective drawables?

  - by alex2k8

  The CheckBox class extends the CompoundButton, but add nothing to it. But some how it obtains it's respective look. I found some declarations in Android sources, but wonder how they are mapped to CheckBox class? public class CheckBox extends CompoundButton { public CheckBox(Context context) { this(context, null); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { this(context, attrs, com.android.internal.R.attr.checkboxStyle); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); } } Styles <style name="Theme"> <item name="checkboxStyle">@android:style/Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox</item> </style> <style name="Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox"> <item name="android:background">@android:drawable/btn_check_label_background</item> <item name="android:button">@android:drawable/btn_check</item> </style> EDIT: Probably I was not clear... I understand how the drawable assigned to Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox style, but how this style assigned to CheckBox class? I see the ".CheckBox" in the style name, but is this naming convention really what makes the trick? If so, what are the rules? If I derive MyCheckBox from CompoundButton, can I just define the Widget.CompoundButton.MyCheckBox style and it will work?

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• what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

  - by Omnipresent

  I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

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• release object of a return method object c

  - by Piero

  in run the app with the analyze build, and Xcode found me a lot of memory leak and there is one in particular that i don't know how solve here it is: - (UIView *) tableView:(UITableView *)tableView viewForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { UIImageView *sectionImage = [[UIImageView alloc] init]; if (section == 0)sectionImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]; return sectionImage; } so my question is, how i can release this sectionImage? if is the return of the method? EDIT: i have another question, analyze give me another memory leak, i have this: .h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *directCellPath; .m @synthesize directCellPath = _directCellPath; - (id)init{ if ((self = [super initWithNibName:@"MyViewController" bundle:nil])) { self.directCellPath = [[NSIndexPath alloc] init]; } return self; } then in the code i use it and finally in the dealloc i do this: - (void)dealloc { [_directCellPath release]; [super dealloc]; } and give me a memory leak on this line: self.directCellPath = [[NSIndexPath alloc] init]; why if i have deallocated it in the dealloc?

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• PHP URL parameters append return special character

  - by Alexandre Lavoie

  I'm programming a function to build an URL, here it is : public static function requestContent($p_lParameters) { $sParameters = "?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none"; foreach($p_lParameters as $sParameterName => $sParameterValue) { $sParameters .= "&$sParameterName=$sParameterValue"; } echo "<span style='font-size: 16px;'>URL : http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings" . $sParameters . "</span><br />"; $aXMLData = file_get_contents("http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings" . $sParameters); return json_decode($aXMLData,true); } And I am calling this function with this array list : print_r() result : Array ( [region] => canada [category] => housing/sale/home ) But this is very strange I get an unexpected character (note the special character none*®*ion) : http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none®ion=canada&category=housing/sale/home For information I use this header : <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8" /> <?php header('Content-Type: text/html;charset=UTF-8'); ?> EDIT : $sRequest = "http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none&region=canada&category=housing/sale/home"; echo "<span style='font-size: 16px;'>URL : " . $sRequest . "</span><br />"; return the exact URL with problem : http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none®ion=canada&category=housing/sale/home Thank you for your help!

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• How to handle dynamic role or username changes in JSF?

  - by roadrunner

  I have a JSF application running on glassfish 2.1 with a EJB 3 backend. For authentication I use a custom realm. The user authenticates using the e-mail-address and password he specified on registration. Everything is working quite well. Now I have two related problems: 1) The user can edit his profile and -- naturally -- he can also change his e-mail-address. Unfortunately when I perform operations based on the current user's identity using ExternalContext.getUserPrincipal().getName(), I will receive the previous e-mail-address the user used on login. At the moment I handle this by forcing the user to reauthenticate after he changed his e-mail-address, but is there another more graceful possibility? 2) Same for user roles. E.g. I have the user roles MEMBER and PREMIUM_MEMBER. A MEMBER may become a PREMIUM_MEMBER during his current session. Unfortunately the role seems to be only determined at login. Is there any possibility, that JSF and EJB recognize the new user role without the need for the user to re-authenticated?

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• How do I sanitize a string in PHP that contains "; Echo"? (I have a solid reason)

  - by user337878

  I turned this case into a simple PHP page that submits to itself. My issue is that I am submitting track meet results and one of the girl's names is Echo...a lovely name. The problem text I'm submitting is: Pole vault - Rachel Simons, Tow, 8-6; Echo Wilson, Cit, 8-0; Molly Randall, Tow, 7-0; So you see a semicolon followed by white space followed by Echo... After submitting, it says: POST to /results/test.php not supported The end goal is to save it to a database along with some other info and have a search page to find it and simply print out the full result on the screen. I stripped out all my database stuff to get it down to this one error. I mean, I can intentionally mis-spell her name, but there's gotta be a way around this, right??? Here's the test PHP file. <html> <head> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php echo "<h3>Edit meet info below</h3>"; echo "<form action=\"test.php\" method=\"post\" id=\"submitForm\">"; echo "Full Results:<br/><textarea NAME=\"results\" id=\"results\" rows=\"20\" cols=\"80\" MAXLENGTH=\"8191\"></textarea><br/><br/>"; echo "<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submitMeet\" value=\"Submit\">"; echo "</form>"; ?> </body> </html>

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• autologin component doesn't work on remote server

  - by user606521

  I am using autologin component from http://milesj.me/code/cakephp/auto-login (v 3.5.1). It works on my localhost WAMP server but fails on remote server. I am using this settings in beforeFilter() callback: $this->AutoLogin->settings = array( // Model settings 'model' => 'User', 'username' => 'username', 'password' => 'password', // Controller settings 'plugin' => '', 'controller' => 'users', // Cookie settings 'cookieName' => 'rememberMe', 'expires' => '+1 month', // Process logic 'active' => true, 'redirect' => true, 'requirePrompt' => true ); On remote server it simply doesn't autolog users after the browser was closed. I can't figure out what may cause the problem. -------------------- edit I figured out what is causing the problem but I don't know how to fix this. First of all cookie is set like this: $this->Cookie->write('key',array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) ); Then it's readed like this: $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('key'); On my WAMP server $cookie is array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) and on remote server returned $cookie is string(159) "{\"username\":\"YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t\",\"password\":\"YWxlazc3ODEy\",\"hash\":\"aa15bffff9ca12cdcgfgb351d8bfg2f370bf458\",\"time\":1339923926}" and it should be: array( 'username' => "YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t", 'password' => "YWxlazc3ODEy", ...) Why the retuned cookie is string not array?

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