Search Results

Search found 17856 results on 715 pages for 'setup py'.

Page 616/715 | < Previous Page | 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623  | Next Page >

  • Re-Convert timestamp DATE back to original format (when editing) PHP MySQL

    - by Jess
    Ok so I have managed to get the format of the date presented in HTML (upon display) to how I want (dd/mm/yyy)...However, the user also can change the date via a form. So this is how it's setup as present. Firstly, the conversion from YYYY-MM-DD to DD/MM/YYYY and then display in HTML: $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); echo date('d/m/Y', $timestamp); Now when the user selects to update the due date, the value already stored value is drawn up and presented in my text field (using exactly the same code as above).. All good so far. But when my user runs the update script (clicks submit), the new due date is not being stored, and in my DB its seen as '0000-00-00'. I know I need to convert it back to the correct format that MySQL wants to have it in, in order for it to be saved, but I'm not sure on how to do this. This is what I have so far in my update script (for the due date): $duedate = $_POST['duedate']; $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); date('Y/m/d', $timestamp); $query = "UPDATE films SET filmname= '".$filmname."', duedate= '".$duedate; Can somebody please point me in the right direction to have the new date, when processed, converted back to the accepted format by MySQL. I appreciate any help given! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • NIS password mapping question

    - by papoyan
    I have NIS server with user "techsupport", which has uid/gid = 517 I've configured NIS and NFS on that server, as well as NFS/NIS client on the remote web server. Now I need to techsupport user to be able to login to web server using techsupport username, but HAVE root privileges. I need this, so I can easily track, which support agent doing what on the web server. Everything works fine, when from NIS server, I ssh to the web server with tech support user nisserver# ssh [email protected] I can authenticate against the NIS server just fine, and my home directory that is on NIS server, get's mounted on web server just fine. The Only two problems I have are : my GID on web server is webserver# id uid=517(techsupport) gid=517(client_jonny) groups=517(client_jonny) (as you can see, that it picked up gid of a client that exists on the web server, since it's same number) I need to make sure, that my "techsupport" user has ROOT privileges. How can I achieve this? I remember that I've seen identical results elsewhere, but LDAP was used, is there a way to achieve this with NIS/NFS setup? Thank you in advance,

    Read the article

  • has_many :through formtastic multi-select field

    - by Tristan O'Neil
    I'm trying to set up a many to many relationship using the has_many :through method and then use a multi-select field to setup the relationships. I'm following this tutorial: http://asciicasts.com/episodes/185-formtastic-part-2 However for some reason the form displays a strange hex number and it changes each page refresh, I'm not exactly sure what I'm doing wrong. Below is my model/view code. company.rb has_many :classifications has_many :sics, :through => :classifications sic.rb has_many :classifications has_many :companies, :through => :classifications classification.rb belongs_to :company belongs_to :sic _form.html.erb <% semantic_form_for @company do |f| %> <% f.inputs do %> <%= f.input :company %> <%= f.input :sics %> <% end %> <%= f.buttons %> <% end %> Also here is the the form looks like it's showing the correct number of entries for the field but it is clearly not showing the correct name for the relationship.

    Read the article

  • Handling conflicting priorities and expectations in project development

    - by jasonk
    There are any number of situations in the standard day where priority conflicts exist for projects. Management wants maximum productivity from employees. Marketing wants maximum salability and fast turnaround. Ownership wants maximum profit. Customers want usability and low cost. Regardless of the origin of the demands, time and money are always the limiting factor in business. Sometimes project elements have intrinsic or goodwill benefits for which there is not a hard, fast way to measure with monetary means (e.g. arguments for an attractive UI appeal vs. functional but plain). Other elements of software may have a method of providing “mental breaks” or motivating “cool factor” for developers that can get them back on track on other bigger, complex issues. While they may sidetrack the project short term they may have greater results long term through improved job satisfaction, etc. Continued training is a must, but working it in can setup back progress. What are your suggestions for setting priorities? How do you evaluate requests/demands on your projects? What are your suggestions for communicating and passing those on to your team in a way that they stay focused?

    Read the article

  • Magento- custom attribute causes blank order number.

    - by frank
    Hi- I created a simple custom attribute on the sales/order entity. Now, for new orders, order number is null. I looked at the sales_order table, and sure enough, increment_id is null... can anyone help me out, I am stumped? This is my setup.php: `public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'order' => array( 'entity_model' => 'sales/order', //'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'sales/order', 'attributes' => array( 'pr_email_sent' => array( 'label' => 'prEmailSent', 'type' => 'varchar', 'default' => 'false' ), ) ) ); }` This is my config.xml <fieldsets> <sales_order> <pr_email_sent><create>1</create><update>1</update></pr_email_sent> </sales_order> </fieldsets> Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why do people say that Ruby is slow?

    - by stephen murdoch
    I like Ruby on Rails and I use it for all my web development projects. A few years ago there was a lot of talk about Rails being a memory hog and about how it didn't scale very well but these suggestions were put to bed by Gregg Pollack here. Lately though, I've been hearing people saying that Ruby itself is slow. Why is Ruby considered slow? I do not find Ruby to be slow but then again, I'm just using it to make simple CRUD apps and company blogs. What sort of projects would I need to be doing before I find Ruby becoming slow? Or is this slowness just something that affects all programming languages? What are your options as a Ruby programmer if you want to deal with this "slowness"? Which version of Ruby would best suit an application like Stack Overflow where speed is critical and traffic is intense? The questions are subjective, and I realise that architectural setup (EC2 vs standalone servers etc) makes a big difference but I'd like to hear what people think about Ruby being slow. Finally, I can't find much news on Ruby 2.0 - I take it we're a good few years away from that then?

    Read the article

  • Distributed development systems

    - by Nathan Adams
    I am interested in a system that allows for distributed development with an authentication piece. What do I mean by that? Ok so lets take SVN, SVN keeps track of revisions and doesn't care who submits, as long as you have the right to submit you can submit, really, to any part in the repository. Where does my system come into play? Being able to granulate access control and give a stackoverflow like feel to the environment. In the system I am describing we have 4 users Bob, Alice, Dan, Joe. Bob is a project managed, Alice and Dan are programmers under Bob and Joe is a random programmer on the internet who wants to help. Ideally in this system, Bob can commit any changes and won't require approval. Alice and Dan can commit to their branches, or a branch, but a commit to the trunk would need approval by Bob. This is where Joe comes in, wants to help, however, you just don't want to give him the keys to the kingdom just yet so to speak, so in my system you would setup a "low user" account. Any commits that Joe makes would need to be approved by Dan, Alice or both. However, in the system, Joe can build up "Karma" where after so many approved commits it would only need approval by one of the programmers, and then eventually no approval would be necessary. Does that make sense and do you know if a system like that exists? Or am I just crazy to even think such a system/environment would be possible?

    Read the article

  • Handling dependencies with IoC that change within a single function call

    - by Jess
    We are trying to figure out how to setup Dependency Injection for situations where service classes can have different dependencies based on how they are used. In our specific case, we have a web app where 95% of the time the connection string is the same for the entire Request (this is a web application), but sometimes it can change. For example, we might have 2 classes with the following dependencies (simplified version - service actually has 4 dependencies): public LoginService (IUserRepository userRep) { } public UserRepository (IContext dbContext) { } In our IoC container, most of our dependencies are auto-wired except the Context for which I have something like this (not actual code, it's from memory ... this is StructureMap): x.ForRequestedType().Use() .WithCtorArg("connectionString").EqualTo(Session["ConnString"]); For 95% of our web application, this works perfectly. However, we have some admin-type functions that must operate across thousands of databases (one per client). Basically, we'd want to do this: public CreateUserList(IList<string> connStrings) { foreach (connString in connStrings) { //first create dependency graph using new connection string ???? //then call service method on new database _loginService.GetReportDataForAllUsers(); } } My question is: How do we create that new dependency graph for each time through the loop, while maintaining something that can easily be tested?

    Read the article

  • [Google Maps] Trouble with invalid argument when switching jQueryUI based tabs

    - by Chad
    Here's a page with the issue To reproduce the error, using IE - click the directions tab, then any of the others. What I'm trying to do is this: On page load, do nothing really. However, when the directions tab loads - setup the map. Like so: $('#tabs').bind('tabsshow', function(event, ui) { if (ui.panel.id == "tabs-5") { // get map for directions var dirMap = new GMap2($("div#dirMap").get(0)); dirMap.setCenter(new GLatLng(35.79648921414565,139.40663874149323), 12); dirMap.enableScrollWheelZoom(); dirMap.addControl(new PanoMapTypeControl()); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); $("#dirMap").resizable({ stop: function() { dirMap.checkResize(); } }); // clear dirText $("div#dirMapText").html(""); dirMap.clearOverlays(); var polygon = new GPolygon([new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297),new GLatLng(35.74748750802863,139.3363380432129),new GLatLng(35.75765724051559,139.34303283691406),new GLatLng(35.76545779822543,139.3418312072754),new GLatLng(35.767547103447725,139.3476676940918),new GLatLng(35.75835374997911,139.34955596923828),new GLatLng(35.755149755962755,139.3567657470703),new GLatLng(35.74679090345495,139.35796737670898),new GLatLng(35.74762682821177,139.36294555664062),new GLatLng(35.744422402303826,139.36346054077148),new GLatLng(35.74860206266584,139.36946868896484),new GLatLng(35.735644401200986,139.36843872070312),new GLatLng(35.73843117306677,139.36174392700195),new GLatLng(35.73592308277646,139.3531608581543),new GLatLng(35.72686543236113,139.35298919677734),new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297)], "#f33f00", 5, 1, "#ff0000", 0.2);dirMap.addOverlay(polygon); // load directions directions = new GDirections(dirMap, $("div#dirMapText").get(0)); directions.load("from: [email protected],139.37083393335342 to: Ruby [email protected],139.40663874149323"); } }); What the heck is causing the error? The IE javascript debugger claims the error lies in main.js, line 139 character 28. (the google maps api file). Which is this line: function zf(a,b){a=a.style;a.width=b.getWidthString();a.height=b.getHeightString()} Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Unable to create website error (NEW)

    - by salvationishere
    I copied my ClickOnce deployment to my C:/Inetpub/ folder on my webserver and I deleted my Virtual directory. I deleted the WpfApplication1 folder beneath wwwroot in Win Explorer. Then I turned on Web Sharing for this folder. Then I viewed my IIS Manager and this new Share name appeared under wwwroot. So now under Inetpub folder on my web server I have the following directory path: C:\Inetpub\WpfApplication1\ with contents: Application Files publish.htm setup.exe WpfApplication1.application Next, I remapped both the publishing and installation URL's for the project to http://myserver/WpfApplication1/ And I clicked Publish Now. But after I performed a Publish Now operation, I got the following error on my development server (D610-M): Error 1 Failed to connect to 'http://myserver/WpfApplication1/' with the following error: Unable to create the Web site 'http://myserver/WpfApplication1/'. The Web server does not appear to have any authentication methods enabled. It asked for user authentication, but did not send a WWW-Authenticate header. 1 1 WpfApplication1 On my webserver, when I click Browse from the IIS Manager on the WpfApplication1 directory, it shows me the Install page. But after I click the Browse button, it returns an error which says: The remote name could not be resolved: 'd610-m' (D610-M is the name of my development server). How do I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Android animation's first frame is applied too early on ImageView

    - by Robert
    I have the following View setup in one of my Activities: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/photoLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/photoImageView" android:src="@drawable/backyardPhoto" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:scaleType="centerInside" android:padding="45dip" > </ImageView> </LinearLayout> Without an animation set, this displays just fine. However I want to display a very simple animation. So in my Activity's onStart override, I have the following: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); mPhotoImageView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.photoImageView); float offset = -25; int top = mPhotoImageView.getTop(); TranslateAnimation anim1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset); anim1.setInterpolator(new AnticipateInterpolator()); anim1.setDuration(1500); anim1.setStartOffset(5000); TranslateAnimation anim2 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top); anim2.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator()); anim2.setDuration(3500); anim2.setStartOffset(6500); mBouncingAnimation = new AnimationSet(false); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim1); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim2); mPhotoImageView.setAnimation(mBouncingAnimation); } The problem is that when the Activity displays for the first time, the initial position of the photo is not in the center of the screen with padding around. It seems like the first frame of the animation is loaded already. Only after the animation is completed, does the photoImageView "snap" back to the intended location. I've looked and looked and could not find how to avoid this problem. I want the photoImageView to start in the center of the screen, and then the animation to happen, and return it to the center of the screen. The animation should happen by itself without interaction from the user.

    Read the article

  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

    Read the article

  • Convert ADO.Net EF Connection String To Be SQL Azure Cloud Connection String Compatible!?

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I have written a Silverlight 3 Application that uses an SQL Server database. I'm moving the application onto the Cloud (Azure Platform). In order to do this I have had to setup my database on SQL Azure. I am using the ADO.Net Entity Framework to model my database. I have got the application running on the cloud, but I cannot get it to connect to the database. Below is the original localhost connection string, followed by the SQL Azure connection string that isn't working. The application itself runs fine, but fails when trying to retrieve data. The Original Localhost Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Data Source=localhost; Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith; Integrated Security=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Converted SQL Azure Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Server=tcp:MYSERVER.ctp.database.windows.net; Database=InmarsatZenith; UserID=MYUSERID;Password=MYPASSWORD; Trusted_Connection=False; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Question Anyone know if this connection string for SQL Azure is correct? Help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Excel VBA Select Case Loop Sub

    - by Zack
    In my excel file, I have a table setup with formulas. with Cells from Range("B2:B12"), Range ("D2:D12"), and etc every other row containing the answers to these formulas. for these cells (with the formula answers), I need to apply conditional formatting, but I have 7 conditions, so I've been using "select case" in VBA to change their interior background based on their number. I have the select case function currently set up within the sheet code, as opposed to it's own macro Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) Dim iColor As Integer If Not Intersect(Target, Range("B2:L12")) Is Nothing Then Select Case Target Case 0 iColor = 2 Case 0.01 To 0.49 iColor = 36 Case 0.5 To 0.99 iColor = 6 Case 1 To 1.99 iColor = 44 Case 2 To 2.49 iColor = 45 Case 2.5 To 2.99 iColor = 46 Case 3 To 5 iColor = 3 End Select Target.Interior.ColorIndex = iColor End If End Sub but using this method, you must be actually entering the value into the cell for the formatting to work. which is why I want to write a subroutine to to do this as a macro. I can input my data, let the formulas work, and when everything is ready, I can run the macro and format those specific cells. I want an easy way to do this, obviously I could waste a load of time, typing out all the cases for every cell, but I figured it'd be easier with a loop. how would I go about writing a select case loop to change the formatting on a a specific range of cells every other row? thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Testing system where App-level and Request-level IoC containers exist

    - by Bobby
    My team is in the process of developing a system where we're using Unity as our IoC container; and to provide NHibernate ISessions (Units of work) over each HTTP Request, we're using Unity's ChildContainer feature to create a child container for each request, and sticking the ISession in there. We arrived at this approach after trying others (including defining per-request lifetimes in the container, but there are issues there) and are now trying to decide on a unit testing strategy. Right now, the application-level container itself is living in the HttpApplication, and the Request container lives in the HttpContext.Current. Obviously, neither exist during testing. The pain increases when we decided to use Service Location from our Domain layer, to "lazily" resolve dependencies from the container. So now we have more components wanting to talk to the container. We are also using MSTest, which presents some concurrency dilemmas during testing as well. So we're wondering, what do the bright folks out there in the SO community do to tackle this predicament? How does one setup an application that, during "real" runtime, relies on HTTP objects to hold the containers, but during test has the flexibility to build-up and tear-down the containers consistently, and have the ServiceLocation bits get to those precise containers. I hope the question is clear, thanks!

    Read the article

  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

    Read the article

  • How to move the Windows 7 bootloader to the Windows 7 partition?

    - by pauldoo
    I recently installed Windows 7 in a triple boot setup alongside XP and Linux. When I was finished and was in the process of restoring the bootloader for Linux I discovered something strange about what Windows 7 had done. I discovered that Windows 7 had not installed a bootloader to it's own partition, and instead had instead set up a bootloader on the pre-existing XP partition that offers a choice between 7 and XP. This behaviour has been noticed by others. Now my booting is slightly odd. I have GRUB on the MBR which lets me choose between Linux and Windows. When I select Windows I have Grub boot to the XP partition where I get the 2nd choice between 7 and XP. Why doesn't the Windows 7 installer put the Windows 7 bootloader on the Windows 7 partition like all previous MS OSs? This is now going to be a real problem for me, as I now want to wipe the XP partition and install something else there (probably another non-MS OS). How can I move the bootloader for Windows 7 onto the Windows 7 partition, thus making it bootable and allowing me to safely wipe the XP partition?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

    Read the article

  • WIKI replacement solution for SharePoint?

    - by Jakub
    I'm trying to research a replacement for the pathetic WIKI that comes with WSS (only wiki code it has is to create url links). I have looked at a few but most 'replacements' I see are MOSS only? (or so it just states MOSS for requirements). Has anyone faced this situation? What did you end up using? I would like something that I can have all in one location (not different apps, hence WSS). With LDAP / AD Integration like WSS. Thanks appreciate any input. I would like to see ~ $3k solutions tho (nothing super expensive, hence why we don't run MOSS). EDIT: Anyone else have any suggestions? EDIT2: Actually since I haven't had much feedback (thanks to those that have). I installed mediawiki under IIS with PHP enabled, and enabled the IIS AD hack for authentication. IIS ends up prompting for authentication (user/pass) if you use a non IE browser, then it sets the $_SERVER["REMOTE_USER"] variable, and grabs some AD info (groups etc). Works rather well, only issues is the UGLY urls so far. But its fully working. Seems like a good setup. Other than having to rely on MYSQL (my company strives to be mainly SQL Server)

    Read the article

  • Programmatically open an email from a POP3 and extract an attachment

    - by Josh
    We have a vendor that sends CSV files as email attachments. These CSV files contain statuses that are imported into our application. I'm trying to automate the process end-to-end, but it currently depends on someone opening an email, saving the attachment to a server share, so the application can use the file. Since I cannot convince the vendor to change their process, such as offering an FTP location or a Web Service, I'm stuck with trying to automate the existing process. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically open an email from a POP3 account and extract an attachment? The preferred solution would reside on a Windows 2003 server, be written VB.NET and secure. The application can reside on the same server as the POP3 server, for example, we could setup the free POP3 server that comes with Windows Server and pull against the mail file stored on the file system. BTW, we are willing to pay for an off-the-shelf solution, if one exists. Note: I did look at this question but the answer points to a CodeProject solution that doesn't deal with attachments.

    Read the article

  • PHP Switch and Login

    - by Steve Rivera
    I'm fairly new with PHP and I am messing around with a login/registration system. I setup my sample website using a PHP-SWITCH script I found a while back: <?php switch($_GET['id']) { default: include('home.php'); /* LOGIN PAGES */ break; case "register_form": include ('includes/user_system/register_form.php'); } ? On the registration page the form links to my "register.php" which checks the validity of the form and to check for any blank fields and so on. "register.php" is supposed to refresh the page and add a reason to what the user did wrong when submitting the form. On my "register_form.php" page, which holds the actual form. This field is hidden until the user makes a mistake. <?php if (isset($reg_error)) { ?> , please try again. My "register.php" checks the form for all the errors. Here's the bit of code that will refresh the page with the reason for the error: // Check if any of the fields are missing if (empty($_POST['username']) || empty($_POST['password']) || empty($_POST['confirmpass'])) { // Reshow the form with an error $reg_error = 'One or more fields missing'; include 'register_form.php'; Now after I submit the form without any fields filled out I get the error code, but it refreshes to the actual "register_form.php". The problem with this is that because of my PHP-SWITCH script (helps me manage the site a lot easier) I don't have any formatting on that page. The actual URL to my "register_form.php" would be: "index.php?id=register_form.php". Now I have tried several different things such as changing it to: include 'index.php?id=register_form.php' And also changing it to: header(location:index.php?id=register_form.php') Unfortunately all this does is refresh the page without the reason for the error. I know this can be easily solved by just adding a Javascript Validator but I'd like to know if it is possible to refresh the page with the error using either "include" or "header()" while having a PHP-SWITCH script on the website.

    Read the article

  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

    Read the article

  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Display an Android Sensors List

    - by Skatephone
    I'm trying to display a list of available sensors but it's like there are not! I was thinking that it was because of the emulator, but i tried it on the phone and the result is the same. private SensorManager mSensorManager; TextView mSensorsTot,mSensorAvailables; ...... public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // Get the texts fields of the layout and setup to invisible mSensorsTot = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.sensoritot); mSensorAvailables = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.sensoridisponibili); // Get the SensorManager mSensorManager= (SensorManager) getSystemService(SENSOR_SERVICE); // List of Sensors Available List<Sensor> msensorList = mSensorManager.getSensorList(SensorManager.SENSOR_ALL); // Print how may Sensors are there mSensorsTot.setText(msensorList.size()+" "+this.getString(R.string.sensors)+"!"); // Print each Sensor available using sSensList as the String to be printed String sSensList = new String(""); Sensor tmp; int x,i; for (i=0;i<msensorList.size();i++){ tmp = msensorList.get(i); sSensList = " "+sSensList+tmp.getName(); // Add the sensor name to the string of sensors available } // if there are sensors available show the list if (i>0){ sSensList = getString(R.string.sensors)+":"+sSensList; mSensorAvailables.setText(sSensList); } } Thank's Valerio From Italy :)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623  | Next Page >