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  • C# Attribute XmlIgnore and XamlWriter class - XmlIgnore not working

    - by Horst Walter
    I have a class, containing a property Brush MyBrush marked as [XmlIgnore]. Nevertheless it is serialized in the stream causing trouble when trying to read via XamlReader. I did some tests, e.g. when changing the visibility (to internal) of the Property it is gone in the stream. Unfortunately I cannot do this in my particular scenario. Did anybody have the same issue and? Do you see any way to work around this? Remark: C# 4.0 as far I can tell This is a method from my Unit Test where I do test the XamlSerialization: // buffer to a StringBuilder StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(sb, settings); XamlDesignerSerializationManager manager = new XamlDesignerSerializationManager(writer) {XamlWriterMode = XamlWriterMode.Expression}; XamlWriter.Save(testObject, manager); xml = sb.ToString(); Assert.IsTrue(!String.IsNullOrEmpty(xml) && !String.IsNullOrEmpty(xml), "Xaml Serialization failed for " + testObject.GetType() + " no xml string available"); xml = sb.ToString(); MemoryStream ms = xml.StringToStream(); object root = XamlReader.Load(ms); Assert.IsTrue(root != null, "After reading from MemoryStream no result for Xaml Serialization"); In one of my classes I use the Property Brush. In the above code this Unit Tests fails because of a Brush object not serializable is the value. When I remove the Setter (as below, the Unit Test passes. Using the XmlWriter (basically same test as above) it works. In the StringBuffer sb I can see that Property Brush is serialized when the Setter is there and not when removed (most likely another check ignoring the Property because of no setter). Other Properties with [XmlIgnore] are ignored as intended. [XmlIgnore] public Brush MyBrush { get { ..... } // removed because of problem with Serialization // set { ... } }

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  • Ordering by formula fields in NHibernate

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Suppose that I have the following mapping with a formula property: <class name="Planet" table="planets"> <id name="Id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- somefunc() is a native SQL function --> <property name="Distance" formula="somefunc()" /> </class> I would like to get all planets and order them by the Distance calculated property: var planets = session .CreateCriteria<Planet>() .AddOrder(Order.Asc("Distance")) .List<Planet>(); This is translated to the following query: SELECT Id as id0, somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY somefunc() Desired query: SELECT Id as id0, somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY formula0 If I set a projection with an alias it works fine: var planets = session .CreateCriteria<Planet>() .SetProjection(Projections.Alias(Projections.Property("Distance"), "dist")) .AddOrder(Order.Asc("dist")) .List<Planet>(); SQL: SELECT somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY formula0 but it populates only the Distance property in the result and I really like to avoid projecting manually over all the other properties of my object (there could be many other properties). Is this achievable with NHibernate? As a bonus I would like to pass parameters to the native somefunc() SQL function. Anything producing the desired SQL is acceptable (replacing the formula field with subselects, etc...), the important thing is to have the calculated Distance property in the resulting object and order by this distance inside SQL.

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  • Set HttpContext.Current.User from Thread.CurrentPrincipal

    - by Argons
    I have a security manager in my application that works for both windows and web, the process is simple, just takes the user and pwd and authenticates them against a database then sets the Thread.CurrentPrincipal with a custom principal. For windows applications this works fine, but I have problems with web applications. After the process of authentication, when I'm trying to set the Current.User to the custom principal from Thread.CurrentPrincipal this last one contains a GenericPrincipal. Am I doing something wrong? This is my code: Login.aspx protected void btnAuthenticate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Authenticate("user","pwd"); FormsAuthenticationTicket authenticationTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "user", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), false, ""); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authenticationTicket); HttpCookie authenticationCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); Response.Cookies.Add(authenticationCookie); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl("user", false)); } Global.asax (This is where the problem appears) protected void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; if (authCookie == null) return; if (HttpContext.Current.User != null && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { HttpContext.Current.User = System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal; //Here the value is GenericPrincipal } Thanks in advance for any help. }

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  • Excel process not ending in Cluster environment

    - by Vasanth
    When we try to close excel object, it fails to close to cluster environment. The same is working fine in QA and UAT environment. public bool KillExcelProcess() { try { object misValue = System.Reflection.Missing.Value; wbObj.Save(); wbObj.Close(true, misValue, misValue); appC.Workbooks.Close(); appC.Quit(); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(objSheet); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(wbObj); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(appC); wbObj = null; appC = null; } catch (Exception ex) { //throw ex; } finally { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000); GC.Collect(); } return true; Calling function #endregion try { log.Info("CloseExcelService (MeasureSavingsComputeBO) Starts ..."); exConverter.KillExcelProcess(); while (true) { try { File.Delete(strFilename); break; } catch (Exception ex) { } }

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  • How to access hidden template in unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Here is a tricky situation, and i wonder what ways there are to solve it namespace { template <class T> struct Template { /* ... */ }; } typedef Template<int> Template; Sadly, the Template typedef interferes with the Template template in the unnamed namespace. When you try to do Template<float> in the global scope, the compiler raises an ambiguity error between the template name and the typedef name. You don't have control over either the template name or the typedef-name. Now I want to know whether it is possible to: Create an object of the typedefed type Template (i.e Template<int>) in the global namespace. Create an object of the type Template<float> in the global namespace. You are not allowed to add anything to the unnamed namespace. Everything should be done in the global namespace. This is out of curiosity because i was wondering what tricks there are for solving such an ambiguity. It's not a practical problem i hit during daily programming.

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  • Java KeyListener in separate class

    - by Chris
    So I have my main class here, where basically creates a new jframe and adds a world object to it. The world object is basically where all drawing and keylistening would take place... public class Blobs extends JFrame{ public Blobs() { super("Blobs :) - By Chris Tanaka"); setVisible(true); setResizable(false); setSize(1000, 1000); setIgnoreRepaint(true); setDefaultCloseOperation(EXIT_ON_CLOSE); add(new World()); } public static void main(String[] args) { new Blobs(); } } How exactly would you get key input from the world class? (So far I have my world class extending a jpanel and implementing a keylistener. In the constructor i addKeyListener(this). I also have these methods since they are auto implemented: public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { if (e.getKeyCode() == KeyEvent.VK_W) System.out.println("Hi"); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) {} public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) {} However this does not seem to work?

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  • How to keep your unit tests simple and isolated and still guarantee DDD invariants ?

    - by ian31
    DDD recommends that the domain objects should be in a valid state at any time. Aggregate roots are responsible for guaranteeing the invariants and Factories for assembling objects with all the required parts so that they are initialized in a valid state. However this seems to complicate the task of creating simple, isolated unit tests a lot. Let's assume we have a BookRepository that contains Books. A Book has : an Author a Category a list of Bookstores you can find the book in These are required attributes : a book has to have an author, a category and at least a book store you can buy the book from. There's likely to be a BookFactory since it is quite a complex object, and the Factory will initialize the Book with at least all the mentioned attributes. Now we want to unit test a method of the BookRepository that returns all the Books. To test if the method returns the books, we have to set up a test context (the Arrange step in AAA terms) where some Books are already in the Repository. If the only tool at our disposal to create Book objects is the Factory, the unit test now also uses and is dependent on the Factory and inderectly on Category, Author and Store since we need those objects to build up a Book and then place it in the test context. Would you consider this is a dependency in the same way that in a Service unit test we would be dependent on, say, a Repository that the Service would call ? How would you solve the problem of having to re-create a whole cluster of objects in order to be able to test a simple thing ? How would you break that dependency and get rid of all these attributes we don't need in our test ? By using mocks or stubs ? If you mock up things a Repository contains, what kind of mock/stubs would you use as opposed to when you mock up something the object under test talks to or consumes ?

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  • Winsock WSAAsyncSelect sending without an infinite buffer

    - by Xexr
    Hi, This is more of a design question than a specific code question, I'm sure I am missing the obvious, I just need another set of eyes. I am writing a multi-client server based on WSAAsyncSelect, each connection is made into an object of a connection class I have written which contains associated settings and buffers etc. My question concerns FD_WRITE, I understand how it operates: One FD_WRITE is sent immediately after a connection is established. Thereafter, you should send until WSAEWOULDBLOCK is received at which point you store what is left to send in a buffer, and wait to be told that it is ok to send again. This is where I have a problem, how large do I make this holding buffer within each connections object? The amount of time until a new FD_WRITE is received is unknown, I could be attempting to send a lot of stuff during this period, all the time adding to my outgoing buffer. If I make the buffer dynamic, memory usage could spiral out of control if for whatever reason, I am unable to send() and reduce the buffer. So my question is how do you generally handle this situation? Note I am not talking about the network buffer itself which winsock uses, but one of my own creation used to "queue" up sends. Hope I explained that well enough, thanks all!

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  • Why does Tex/Latex not speed up in subsequent runs?

    - by Debilski
    I really wonder, why even recent systems of Tex/Latex do not use any caching to speed up later runs. Every time that I fix a single comma*, calling Latex costs me about the same amount of time, because it needs to load and convert every single picture file. (* I know that even changing a tiny comma could affect the whole structure but of course, a well-written cache format could see the impact of that. Also, there might be situations where 100% correctness is not needed as long as it’s fast.) Is there something in the language of Tex which makes this complicated or impossible to accomplish or is it just that in the original implementation of Tex, there was no need for this (because it would have been slow anyway on those large computers)? But then on the other hand, why doesn’t this annoy other people so much that they’ve started a fork which has some sort of caching (or transparent conversion of Tex files to a format which is faster to parse)? Is there anything I can do to speed up subsequent runs of Latex? Except from putting all the stuff into chapterXX.tex files and then commenting them out?

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  • How to make that the LanguageBinder take precedence over the DynamicBinder

    - by rudimenter
    Hi I Have a class which implement IDynamicMetaObjectProvider I implement the BindGetMember Method from DynamicMetaObject. Now when i Generate a dynamic Object and Access a property every call gets implicit passed through the BindGetMember Method. I want that at first the language Binder get his chance before my code comes in. It is somehow doable with "binder.FallbackGetMember" but i am not sure how the expression has to look like. I call here dynamic com=CommandFactory.GetCommand(); com.testprop; //expected: "test"; but "test2" comes back public class Command : System.Dynamic.IDynamicMetaObjectProvider { public string testprop { get { return "test"; } } public object GetValue(string name) { return "test2"; } System.Dynamic.DynamicMetaObject System.Dynamic.IDynamicMetaObjectProvider.GetMetaObject(System.Linq.Expressions.Expression parameter) { return new MetaCommand(parameter, this); } private class MetaCommand : System.Dynamic.DynamicMetaObject { public MetaCommand(Expression expression, Command value) : base(expression, System.Dynamic.BindingRestrictions.Empty, value) { } public override System.Dynamic.DynamicMetaObject BindGetMember(System.Dynamic.GetMemberBinder binder) { var self = this.Expression; var bag = (Command)base.Value; Expression target; target = Expression.Call( Expression.Convert(self, typeof(Command)), typeof(Command).GetMethod("GetValue"), Expression.Constant(binder.Name) ); var restrictions = BindingRestrictions .GetInstanceRestriction(self, bag); return new DynamicMetaObject(target, restrictions); } #endregion } }

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  • Prototypal inheritance should save memory, right?

    - by Techpriester
    Hi Folks, I've been wondering: Using prototypes in JavaScript should be more memory efficient than attaching every member of an object directly to it for the following reasons: The prototype is just one single object. The instances hold only references to their prototype. Versus: Every instance holds a copy of all the members and methods that are defined by the constructor. I started a little experiment with this: var TestObjectFat = function() { this.number = 42; this.text = randomString(1000); } var TestObjectThin = function() { this.number = 42; } TestObjectThin.prototype.text = randomString(1000); randomString(x) just produces a, well, random String of length x. I then instantiated the objects in large quantities like this: var arr = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { arr.push(new TestObjectFat()); // or new TestObjectThin() } ... and checked the memory usage of the browser process (Google Chrome). I know, that's not very exact... However, in both cases the memory usage went up significantly as expected (about 30MB for TestObjectFat), but the prototype variant used not much less memory (about 26MB for TestObjectThin). I also checked: The TestObjectThin instances contain the same string in their "text" property, so they are really using the property of the prototype. Now, I'm not so sure what to think about this. The prototyping doesn't seem to be the big memory saver at all. I know that prototyping is a great idea for many other reasons, but I'm specifically concerned with memory usage here. Any explanations why the prototype variant uses almost the same amount of memory? Am I missing something?

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  • How do you filter a view of a DataTable in .Net 3.5 sp1 using WPF c# and xaml?

    - by Tony
    I found the MSDN example code for getting the default view of a collection and adding a filter to the view, but most of it is for .Net 4.0. I'm on a team that is not currently switching to 4.0, so I don't have that option. None of the examples I found used a DataTable as the source, so I had to adapt it a little. I'm using a DataTable because the data is comming from a DB ans it's easy to populate. After trying to implement the MSDN examples, I get a "NotSupportedException" when I try to set the Filter. This is the c# code I have: protected DataTable _data = new DataTable(); protected BindingListCollectionView _filteredDataView; ... private void On_Loaded(Object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { _filteredDataView = (BindingListCollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(_data); _filteredDataView.Filter = new Predicate(MatchesCurrentSelections); // throws NotSupportedException } ... public bool MatchesCurrentSelections(object o){...} It seems that either BindingListCollectionView does not support filtering in .Net 3.5, or it just doesn't work for a DataTable. I looked at setting it up in XAML instead of the C# code, but the XAML examples use collections in resources instead of a collection that is a memberof the class, so I have no idea how to set that up. Does any one know how to filter a view to a DataTable?

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  • too much recursion in javascript with jquery mouseover

    - by Stacia
    I am a JS novice. Using some code I found here to help me with mouseover scale/rotate images but now when I try to apply it to more than one object I'm getting errors saying "too much recursion". Before the function didn't take any arguments, it just was on s_1 and it worked fine. I am tempted to just write different code for each object but that isn't very good programming practice. var over = false; $(function(){ $("#s_1").hover(function(){ over = true; swing_left_anim("#s_1"); }, function(){ over = false; }); $("#np_1").hover(function(){ over = true; swing_left_anim("np_1"); }, function(){ over = false; }); }); function swing_left_anim(obj){ $(obj).animate({ rotate: '0deg' }, { duration: 500 }); if (over) { $(obj).animate({ rotate: '25deg' }, 500, swing_right_anim(obj)); } } function swing_right_anim(obj){ $(obj).animate({ rotate: '-25deg' }, 500, swing_left_anim(obj)); }

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  • Issue calling superclass method in subclass constructor

    - by stormin986
    I get a NullPointerException calling a Superclass Method in Subclass Inner Class Constructor... What's the Deal? In my application's main class (subclass of Application), I have a public inner class that simply contains 3 public string objects. In the parent class I declare an object of that inner class. public class MainApplication extends Application { public class Data { public String x; public String y; public String z; } private Data data; MainApplication() { data = new Data() data.x = SuperClassMethod(); } } After I instantiate the object in the constructor, I get a runtime error when I try to assign a value in the inner class with a superclass method. Any idea what's up here?? Can you not call superclass methods in the subclass constructor? ** Edit ** Original question was about inner class member assignment in outer class constructor. Turned out the issue was with calling a superclass method in the class's constructor. It was giving me a null pointer exception. Thus, the question has changed.

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  • [grails] setting cookies when render type is "contentType: text/json"

    - by Robin Jamieson
    Is it possible to set cookies on response when the return render type is set as json? I can set cookies on the response object when returning with a standard render type and later on, I'm able to get it back on the subsequent request. However, if I were to set the cookies while rendering the return values as json, I can't seem to get back the cookie on the next request object. What's happening here? These two actions work as expected with 'basicForm' performing a regular form post to the action, 'withRegularSubmit', when the user clicks submit. // first action set the cookie and second action yields the originally set cookie def regularAction = { // using cookie plugin response.setCookie("username-regular", "regularCookieUser123",604800); return render(view: "basicForm"); } // called by form post def withRegularSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-regular"); // returns the value 'regularCookieUser123' return render(view: "resultView"); } When I switch to setting the cookie just before returning from the response with json, I don't get the cookie back with the post. The request starts by getting an html document that contains a form and when doc load event is fired, the following request is invoked via javascript with jQuery like this: var someUrl = "http://localhost/jsonAction"; $.get(someUrl, function(jsonData) { // do some work with javascript} The controller work: // this action is called initially and returns an html doc with a form. def loadJsonForm = { return render(view: "jsonForm"); } // called via javascript when the document load event is fired def jsonAction = { response.setCookie("username-json", "jsonCookieUser456",604800); // using cookie plugin return render(contentType:'text/json') { 'pair'('myKey': "someValue") }; } // called by form post def withJsonSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-json"); // got null value, expecting: jsonCookieUser456 return render(view: "resultView"); } The data is returned to the server as a result of the user pressing the 'submit' button and not through a script. Prior to the submit of both 'withRegularSubmit' and 'withJsonSubmit', I see the cookies stored in the browser (Firefox) so I know they reached the client.

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  • Flash won't load, embed error?

    - by Adrian M.
    Hello, I want to know why the flash movie in the header located here: http://www.dolphintemplate.com/demo/dolphin7/index.php?skin=dt_firestarter_red only loads in Firefox but NOT in IE and Chrome.. The flash movie resides in a iframe, this is the code of the iframe: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <title>header</title> </head> <body bgcolor="#000000" topmargin="0" leftmargin="0" marginwidth="0" marginheight="0"> <object data="header.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="myflash" width="988" height="240"> <param name="movie" value="header.swf" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#000000" /> <param name="height" value="988" /> <param name="width" value="240" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="menu" value="false" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="samedomain" /> <p>Adobe <a href="http://get.adobe.com/flashplayer/">Flash Player</a> is required to view this content.</p> </object> </body> </html> Thanks.

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  • LINQ to objects: Is there

    - by Charles
    I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

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  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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  • two controllers in one layout, rails 3

    - by Grizlord
    Okay, I have two models, a recipe model and a category model. In my layout(application.html.erb) I have a main container div that "yields" the recipes index action. I'm trying to list all the category names as links in a side bar(also a div) by iterating over them in an unordered list. When you click one of the links it will go to the category show page which will then list all the recipes in that category. Here is how I'm trying to list the links in - <div class="container" id="categories"> <% for category in @categories %> <ul> <li><%= link_to category.name, category %></li> </ul> <% end %> </div> The problem is I get a NoMethodError - You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.each It is not retrieving the records from the model. Any suggestions on how to get this done would be greatly appreciated. I tried to render a partial as some of the other similar posts have said but still get the same error. This is the exact error - NoMethodError in Recipes#index Showing /Users/grizlord/Rails/recipe2/app/views/layouts/application.html.erb where line #39 raised: You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.each Extracted source (around line #39): 36: </div> 37: <div class="container" id="categories"> 38: Browse by Category 39: <% for category in @categories %> 40: <ul> 41: <li><%= link_to category.name, category %></li> 42: </ul>

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  • C# async callback on disposed form

    - by Rodney Burton
    Quick question: One of my forms in my winform app (c#) makes an async call to a WCF service to get some data. If the form happens to close before the callback happens, it crashes with an error about accessing a disposed object. What's the correct way to check/handle this situation? The error happens on the Invoke call to the method to update my form, but I can't drill down to the inner exception because it says the code has been optimized. The Code: public void RequestUserPhoto(int userID) { WCF.Service.BeginGetUserPhoto(userID, new AsyncCallback(GetUserPhotoCB), userID); } public void GetUserPhotoCB(IAsyncResult result) { var photo = WCF.Service.EndGetUserPhoto(result); int userID = (int)result.AsyncState; UpdateUserPhoto(userID, photo); } public delegate void UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(int userID, Binary photo); public void UpdateUserPhoto(int userID, Binary photo) { if (InvokeRequired) { var d = new UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(UpdateUserPhoto); Invoke(d, new object[] { userID, photo }); } else { if (photo != null) { var ms = new MemoryStream(photo.ToArray()); var bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(ms); if (userID == theForm.AuthUserID) { pbMyPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } else { pbPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } } } }

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  • How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

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  • Postback Removing Styling from Page

    - by Roy
    Hi, Currently I've created a ASP.Net page that has a dropdown control with autopostback set to true. I've also added color backgrounds for individual listitems. Whenever an item is selected in the dropdown control the styling is completely removed from all of the list items. How can I prevent this from happening? I need the postback to pull data based on the dropdown item that is selected. Here is my code. aspx file: <asp:DropDownList ID="EmpDropDown" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="EmpDropDown_SelectedIndexChanged" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:TextBox ID="MessageTextBox" TextMode="MultiLine" Width="550" Height="100px" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> aspx.cs code behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { GetEmpList(); } } protected void EmpDropDown_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { GetEmpDetails(); } private void GetEmpList() { SqlDataReader dr = ToolsLayer.GetEmpList(); int currentIndex = 0; while (dr.Read()) { EmpDropDown.Items.Add(new ListItem(dr["Title"].ToString(), dr["EmpKey"].ToString())); if (dr["Status"].ToString() == "disabled") { EmpDropDown.Items[currentIndex].Attributes.Add("style", "background-color:red;"); } currentIndex++; } dr.Close(); } private void GetEmpDetails() { SqlDataReader dr = ToolsLayer.GetEmpDetails(EmpDropDown.SelectedValue); while (dr.Read()) { MessageTextBox.Text = dr["Message"].ToString(); } dr.Close(); } Thank You

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  • [JAX-B] How can I ignore a superclass?

    - by MrSpandex
    I'm trying to write a web service for the java.util.logging api. So I wrote a class MyLogRecord that inherits from LogRecord. I annotated this class with JAX-B annotations, including @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.NONE) so it would ignore non-annotated fields and properties. When I start up tomcat, I get errors that java.util.logging.Level and other java.util.logging classes do not have a default constructor, but none of my annotated methods make any reference to the Level class or any of the other java.util.logging classes. These are referenced by the parent class. My sub-class has everything it needs defined. How can I get JAX-B to ignore the parent class completely? Update: I found another post on this, which suggests modifying the parent class. This is obviously not possible because I am extending a java.util class. IS there any way to do this without modifying the superclass? Update2: I found a thread on java.net for a similar problem. That thread resulted in an enhancement request, which was marked as a duplicate of another issue, which resulted in the @XmlTransient annotation. The comments on these bug reports lead me to believe this is impossible in the current spec.

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  • State Animation on ListBox ItemTemplate

    - by Peanut
    I have a listbox which reads from Observable collection, and is ItemTemplate'ed: <DataTemplate x:Key="DataTemplate1"> <Grid x:Name="grid" Height="47.333" Width="577" Opacity="0.495"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="10.668,8,0,8" Width="34" Source="{Binding ImageLocation}"/> <TextBlock Margin="56,8,172.334,8" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding ApplicationName}" FontSize="21.333"/> <Grid x:Name="grid1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="0,10.003,-0.009,11.33" Width="26" Opacity="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Source="image/downloads.png" Stretch="Fill" MouseDown="Image_MouseDown" /> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="searchlist" Margin="8" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource DataTemplate1}" ItemsSource="{Binding SearchResults}" SelectionChanged="searchlist_SelectionChanged" ItemContainerStyle="{DynamicResource ListBoxItemStyle1}" /> In general, my question is "What is the easiest way to do Animation on Particular Items in this listbox As they are selected? Basically the image inside the "grid1" will be setting its opacity to 1, slowly. I would prefer to use states, but I do not know of any way to just tell blend and xaml to "When a selected item is changed, change the image opacity to 1 over a period of .3 seconds". Infact, I have been doing this in the .cs file using the VisualStateManager. Also, there is another issue. When the selected index is changed, we goto the CS file and look at SelectedItem. SelectedItem returns an instance of the Object in which it was bound to (The object inside the observable collection), and NOT an instance of the DataTemplate/ListItem etc. So how am I able to pull the correct image out of this list? State animation with VisualStateManager I can handle fine if its just normal things, but when it comes to generated listboxes' items, I'm lost. Thanks

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  • Adroid's DateFormat replacement - missing the format() with FieldPosition

    - by user331244
    Hi, I need to split a date string into pieces and I'm doing it using the public final StringBuffer format (Object object, StringBuffer buffer, FieldPosition field) from the java.text.DateFormat class. However, the implementation of this function is really slow, hence Android has an own implementation in android.text.format.DateFormat. BUT, in my case, I want to extract the different pieces of the date string (year, minute and so on). Since I need to be locale independent, I can not use SimpleDateFormat and custom strings. I do it as follows: Calendar c = ... // find out what field to extract int field = getField(); // Create a date string Field calendarField = DateFormat.Field.ofCalendarField(field); FieldPosition fieldPosition = new FieldPosition(calendarField); StringBuffer label = new StringBuffer(); label = getDateFormat().format(c.getTime(), label, fieldPosition); // Find the piece that we are looking for int beginIndex = fieldPosition.getBeginIndex(); int endIndex = fieldPosition.getEndIndex(); String asString = label.substring(beginIndex, endIndex); For some reason, the format() overload with the FieldPosition argument is not included in the android platform. Any ideas of how to do this in another way? Is there any easy way to tokenize the pattern string? Any other ideas?

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