Search Results

Search found 53321 results on 2133 pages for 'vc net'.

Page 620/2133 | < Previous Page | 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627  | Next Page >

  • How to mock the Request.ServerVariables using MOQ for ASP.NET MVC?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm just learning to put in unit testing for my asp.net mvc when i came to learn about the mock and the different frameworks there is out there now. after checking SO, i found that MOQ seems to be the easiest to pick up. as of now i'm stuck trying to mock the Request.ServerVariables, as after reading this post, i've learned that it's better to abstract them into property. as such: /// <summary> /// Return the server port /// </summary> protected string ServerPort { get { return Request.ServerVariables.Get("SERVER_PORT"); } } But i'm having a hard time learning how to properly mock this. I have a home controller ActionResult function which grabs the user server information and proceed to create a form to grab the user's information. i tried to use hanselman's mvcmockhelpers class but i'm not sure how to use it. this is what i have so far... [Test] public void Create_Redirects_To_ProductAdded_On_Success() { FakeViewEngine engine = new FakeViewEngine(); HomeController controller = new HomeController(); controller.ViewEngine = engine; MvcMockHelpers.SetFakeControllerContext(controller); controller.Create(); var results = controller.Create(); var typedResults = results as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["action"], "Wrong action"); Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["controller"], "Wrong controller"); } Questions: As of now i'm still getting null exception error when i'm running the test. So what am i missing here? And if i use the mvcmockhelpers class, how can i still call the request.verifyall function to ensure all the mocking are properly setup?

    Read the article

  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to update old database from dbml file ? (C#, .Net 4, Linq, SQL Server)

    - by Emil
    Hi all, I began recently a new job, a very interesting project (C#,.Net 4, Linq, VS 2010 and SQL Server). And immediately I got a very exciting challenge: I must implement either a new tool or integrate the logic when program start, or whatever, but what must happen is the following: the customers have previous application and database (full with their specific data). Now a new version is ready and the customer gets the update. In the mean time we made some modification on DB (new table, columns, maybe an old column deleted, or whatever). I’m pretty new in Linq and also SQL databases and my first solution can be: I check the applications/databases version and implement all the changes step by step comparing all tables, columns, keys, constrains, etc. (all this new information I have in my dbml and the old I asked from the existing DB). And I’ll do this each time the version changed. But somehow I feel, this is NOT a smart solution so I look for a general solution of this problem. Is there a way to update customers DB from the dbml file? To create a new one is not a problem (CreateDatabase with DataContext), is there any update/alter database methods? I guess I’m not the only one who search for such a solution (I found nothing in internet – or I looked for bad keywords). How did you solve this problem? I look also for an external tool, but first for a solution with C#, Linq or something similar. For any idea thank you in advance! Best regards, Emil

    Read the article

  • How do I get LongVarchar out param from SPROC in ADO.NET 2.0 with SQLAnywhere 10?

    - by todthomson
    Hi All, I have sproc 'up_selfassessform_view' which has the following parameters: in ai_eqidentkey SYSKEY in ai_acidentkey SYSKEY out as_eqcomments TEXT_STRING out as_acexplanation TEXT_STRING  -  which are domain objects - SYSKEY is 'integer' and TEXT_STRING is 'long varchar'. I can call the sproc fine from iSQL using the following code: create variable @eqcomments TEXT_STRING; create variable @acexamples TEXT_STRING; call up_selfassessform_view (75000146, 3, @eqcomments, @acexamples); select @eqcomments, @acexamples;  - which returns the correct values from the DB (so I know the SPROC is good). I have configured the out param in ADO.NET like so (which has worked up until now for 'integer', 'timestamp', 'varchar(255)', etc): SAParameter as_acexplanation = cmd.CreateParameter(); as_acexplanation.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; as_acexplanation.ParameterName = "as_acexplanation"; as_acexplanation.SADbType = SADbType.LongVarchar; cmd.Parameters.Add(as_acexplanation); When I run the following code: SADataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); I receive the following error: Parameter[2]: the Size property has an invalid size of 0. Which (I suppose) makes sense... But the thing is, I don't know the size of the field (it's just "long varchar" it doesn't have a predetermined length - unlike varchar(XXX)). Anyhow, just for fun, I add the following: as_acexplanation.Size = 1000; and the above error goes away, but now when I call: as_acexplanation.Value i get back a string of length = 1000 which is just '\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0...' (\0 repeated 1000 times). So I'm really really stuck... Any help one this one would be much appreciated. Cheers! ;) Tod T.

    Read the article

  • How to send complex types from PHP SoapClient to ASP.NET SOAP server?

    - by xaguilars
    Hello I'm having problems sending arrays, structs and arrays of structs from PHP to an ASP.NET SOAP server... Anyone have a sollution for this? I've googled for days and any sollution worked for me. Perphaps I'm forgetting something... There are examples of my code: $client = new SoapClient($options); $pCriteria = new stdClass(); $pCriteria->type=1; $pCriteria->capacity=4; //Test 1 (fail): $resp = $client->GetRooms(array("pCriteria"=>$pCriteria)); //Test 2 (fail): $resp = $client->GetRooms(array("pCriteria"=>new SoapVar($pCriteria, SOAP_ENC_OBJECT, "TCriteria", "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"))); print_r($resp); I don't know how to code functions that require an array of TCriteria (TCriteria[], TCriteria_Array type) either... i've tried sending the raw array, a SoapVar with SOAP_ENC_ARRAY encoding and TCriteria_Array type, ... but it does not work (the SOAP server becomes unavaiable and needs to be restarted). I've tried creating classes for the complex types too, instead of stdClass, but not working. I don't know where's the problem. The server admins cannot help me and I haven't found any sollution over internet. I'm a bit desperate hehe. Can you help me please? Can you provide samples of code with the three cases (array of simple data, array of struct and struct) ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Creating a framework for ASP.NET web forms similar to Flex states.

    - by Shawn Simon
    I really enjoy the flex states framework. You define a few states for your control, and then can set child controls to only appear in certain states. Check out this code: <s:states> <s:State name="signin"/> <s:State name="register"/> </s:states> <mx:FormItem label="Last name:" includeIn="register" id="lastNameItem" alpha="0.0"> <s:TextInput id="lastName" width="220"/> </mx:FormItem> Now the last name form will only appear in the register screen. This would be really useful I think in .NET where you use the page for views like update / insert. I was considering extending the Page element to have a states property using extension methods, and adding the include in to controls. This way I could auto-hide controls based on the current view at render time. What is even cooler in Flex, is that you can use different handlers / properties based on the current state. <s:Button label="Sign in" label.register="Register" id="loginButton" enabled="true" click.signin="signin()" click.register="register()"/> I'm sure there's a way I could implement something similar to this as well. Do you think this is a good idea? Or does it just add a level of abstraction to framework that already has a poor separation of concerns?

    Read the article

  • How do I import and call unmanaged C dll with ansi string "char *" pointer string from VB.net?

    - by Warren P
    I have written my own function, which in C would be declared like this, using standard Win32 calling conventions: int Thing( char * command, char * buffer, int * BufSize); I have the following amount of VB figured out, which should import the dll and call this function, wrapping it up to make it easy to call Thing("CommandHere",GetDataBackHere): Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic Imports System.Runtime.InteropServices Imports System Imports System.Text Namespace dllInvocationSpace Public Class dllInvoker ' tried attributes but could not make it build: ' <DllImport("Thing1.dll", False, CallingConvention.Cdecl, CharSet.Ansi, "Baton", True, True, False, True)> Declare Ansi Function Thing Lib "Thing1.dll" (ByVal Command As String, ByRef Buffer As String, ByRef BufferLength As Integer) Shared Function dllCall(ByVal Command As String, ByRef Results As String) As Integer Dim Buffer As StringBuilder = New StringBuilder(65536) Dim retCode As Integer Dim bufsz As Integer bufsz = 65536 retCode = Thing(Command, Buffer, bufsz) Results = Buffer Return retCode End Function End Class End Namespace The current code doesn't build, because although I think I should be able to create a "buffer" that the C Dll can write data back into using a string builder, I haven't got it quite right. (Value of type System.Text.STringBuilder cannot be converted to 'String'). I have looked all over the newsgroups and forums and can not find an example where the C dll needs to pass between 1 and 64kbytes of data back (char *buffer, int bufferlen) to visual basic.net.

    Read the article

  • How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

    - by Brad Mathews
    I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

    Read the article

  • Problem with Deploying a ASP.NET MVC Project on a IIS 7.0. BadImageFormatException

    - by Markus
    Hello world, I am stuck with my web application. As known from the title its a ASP.NET MVC(1,0) application so i do the only 2 things that a needed do deploy a application like this. I made a build an copied it to the IIS Folder. In the IDE (VS2008) all works fine :(. This worked a long time. But know i get a error for my included dll of a other project. (I have a German version so the Error is Translated from google sry for that) BadImageFormatException: File or assembly 'DataService.WebInterface.BusinessLogic "or one of its dependencies was not found. An attempt was made to load a file with an incorrect format.] System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad (AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, throwOnFileNotFound Boolean, Boolean forIntrospection) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad (AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +416 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad (String String assemblyName, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +166 System.Reflection.Assembly.Load (String string assemblyName) +35 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper (String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +190 What does that mean? Is the File corrupted or do i have to change the web.config? Thank your for your support!

    Read the article

  • Caching and accessing configuration data in ASP.NET MVC app.

    - by Sosh
    I'm about to take a look at how to implement internationalisation for an ASP.NET MVC project. I'm looking at how to allow the user to change languages. My initial though is a dropdownlist containing each of the supported langauages. Whoever a few questions have come to mind: How to store the list of supported languages? (e.g. just "en", "English"; "fr", "French" etc.) An xml file? .config files? If I store this in a file I'll have to cache this (at startup I guess). So, what would be best, load the xml data into a list (somehow) and store this list in the System.Web.Cache? Application State? How then to load this data into the view (for display in a dropdown)? Give the view direct access to the cache? Just want to make sure I'm going in the right direction here... Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as img src="/Home/SampleChart" alt="Sample Chart" when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

    Read the article

  • Triple Quotes? How do I delimit a databound Javascript string parameter in ASP.NET?

    - by David HAust
    How do I delimit a Javascript databound string parameter in an anchor OnClick event? I have an anchor tag in an ASP.NET Repeater control. The OnClick event of the anchor contains a call to a Javascript function. The Javascript funciton takes a string for it's input parameter. The string parameter is populated with a databound value from the Repeater. I need the 'double quotes' for the Container.DataItem. I need the 'single quotes' for the OnClick. And I still need one more delimiter (triple quotes?) for the input string parameter of the Javascript function call. Since I can't use 'single quotes' again, how do I ensure the Javascript function knows the input parameter is a string and not an integer? Without the extra quotes around the input string parameter, the Javascript function thinks I'm passing in an integer. Cheers in advance for any knowledge you can drop. The anchor: <a id="aShowHide" onclick='ToggleDisplay(<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "JobCode") %>);' >Show/Hide</a> and here is the Javascript: <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript">/* Shows/Hides the Jobs Div */ function ToggleDisplay(jobCode) { /* Each div has it's ID set dynamically ('d' plus the JobCode) */ var elem = document.getElementById('d' + jobCode); if (elem) { if (elem.style.display != 'block') { elem.style.display = 'block'; elem.style.visibility = 'visible'; } else { elem.style.display = 'none'; elem.style.visibility = 'hidden'; } } }</script>

    Read the article

  • Force an ASP.NET 3.5 WebSite to use version 1.0.61025.0 of System.Web.Extensions

    - by Greg
    I just upgraded my Web Site project from 2.0 to 3.5 to take advantage of the TimeZoneInfo class. When I did this, I started getting an ambiguous assembly error (*see below). The problem is, I'm not using ScriptManager, an old version of SyncFusion is. I can't upgrade SyncFusion right now, so I need to tell ASP.NET to use version 1.0.61025.0 of the assembly. I ripped out all of the 3.5 script stuff from the web.config and adding bindingRedirects to it, but it didn't work. <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="System.Web.Extensions" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" /> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="3.5.0.0" newVersion="1.0.61025.0" /> </dependentAssembly> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="System.Web.Extensions.Design" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" /> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="3.5.0.0" newVersion="1.0.61025.0" /> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> The type 'System.Web.UI.ScriptManager' is ambiguous: it could come from assembly 'C:\inetpub\wwwroot\xxx\bin\System.Web.Extensions.DLL' or from assembly 'C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Web.Extensions\3.5.0.0__31bf3856ad364e35\System.Web.Extensions.dll'. Please specify the assembly explicitly in the type name.

    Read the article

  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

    Read the article

  • How do I get ASP.NET login status controls to display a Log In option?

    - by Greg McNulty
    I have the following log in status controls on the top of my master page. It displays the logged in as, manager log in, and Log out options. However, when a user is not logged in, there is nothing displayed there. When the user is NOT logged in, is there a way to display a "Login" text link that takes you to the log in page and then "disappears" once the user is logged in? Any help is appreciated. Thanks! <asp:LoginName ID="LoginName1" runat="server" FormatString="Logged in as {0}" ForeColor="Aqua" /> <asp:LoginView ID="LoginView1" runat="server"> <RoleGroups> <asp:RoleGroup Roles="Managers"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:HyperLink ID="HyperLink1" runat="server" NavigateUrl="~/Management/management.aspx">Manage Site</asp:HyperLink> or <asp:LoginStatus id="LoginStatus1" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:RoleGroup> </RoleGroups> <LoggedInTemplate> (<asp:LoginStatus id="LoginStatus1" runat="server" />) </LoggedInTemplate> </asp:LoginView> ASP.NET 3.5 VWD 2008 C#

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Memory Usage in IIS is FAR greater than in DevEnv. Is this normal?

    - by Tom
    Greetings! I have an ASP.NET app that scrapes data from a handful of external pages, parses the relevant bits and displays them in a table. Total data retrieved is 3-4MB and the resulting page is about 1MB. I am using synchronous WebRequest GetResponse for the retrieval, but the same problem existed using an asynchronous BeginGetResponse/EndGetResponse process. There is no database access, no session storage, no caching, but an in-memory list of about 100 objects (total 1MB of data), plus a good amount of AJAX (AjaxControlToolkit). This issue appears on the very first run of the app, even if I have restarted IIS. The issue: When I run the app on my dev computer, the maximum commit charge is about 1.5GB. The biggest user, measured by Task Manager's VM Size, is WebDev.WebServer.exe (600MB). The app runs perfectly. When I run it on my rent-a-server (IIS 7.5, 1GB RAM), the maximum commit charge is over 3.8GB. The biggest user is w3wp.exe at 2.7GB. IIS grinds to a halt and spits out a timed-out error page. Given my limited server budget and the hope of having multiple simultaneous users, I'm kind of in a panic. Is this normal? If I bump the server RAM up to 4GB, will that be enough? Will multiple users require even more memory? Could the culprit be AJAX or the list of objects? Thanks for any insight you can provide.

    Read the article

  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc: What is the correct way to return html from controller to refresh select list?

    - by Mark Redman
    Hi, I am new to ASP.NET MVC, particularly ajax operations. I have a form with a jquery dialog for adding items to a drop-down list. This posts to the controller action. If nothing (ie void method) is returned from the Controller Action the page returns having updated the database, but obviously there no chnage to the form. What would be the best practice in updating the drop down list with the added id/value and selecting the item. I think my options are: 1) Construct and return the html manually that makes up the new <select> tag [this would be easy enough and work, but seems like I am missing something] 2) Use some kind of "helper" to construct the new html [This seems to make sense] 3) Only return the id/value and add this to the list and select the item [This seems like an overkill considering the item needs to be placed in the correct order etc] 4) Use some kind of Partial View [Does this mean creating additional forms within ascx controls? not sure how this would effect submitting the main form its on? Also unless this is reusable by passing in parameters(not sure how thats done) maybe 2 is the option?] UPDATE: Having looked around a bit, it seems that generating html withing the controller is not a good idea. I have seen other posts that render partialviews to strings which I guess is what I need and separates concerns (since the html bits are in the ascx). Any comments on whether that is good practice.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

    - by Joris
    Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

    Read the article

  • How to handle update events on a ASP.NET GridView?

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello, This may sound silly, but I need to find out how to handle an Update event from a GridView. First of all, I have a DataSet, where there is a typed DataTable with a typed TableAdapter, based on a "select all query", with auto-generated Insert, Update, and Delete methods. Then, in my aspx page, I have an ObjectDataSource related to my typed TableAdapter on Select, Insert, Update and Delete methods. Finnally, I have a GridView bound to this ObjectDataSource, with default Edit, Update and Cancel links. How should I implement the edit functionality? Should I have something like this? protected void GridView_RowEditing(object sender, GridViewEditEventArgs e) { using(MyTableAdapter ta = new MyTableAdapter()) { ta.Update(...); TypedDataTable dt = ta.GetRecords(); this.GridView.DataSource = dt; this.GridView.DataBind(); } } In this scenario, I have the feeling that I update some changes to the DB, then I retrive and bind all the data, and not only the modified parts. Is there any way to update only the DataSet, and this to update on his turn the DataBase and the GridView? I do not want to retrive all the data after a CRUD operations is performed, I just want to retrive the changes made. Thanks. PS: I'm using .NET 3.5 and VS 2008 with SP1.

    Read the article

  • Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible ?

    - by fyasar
    Hi All I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How can I properly handle 404s in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Brian
    I am just getting started on ASP.NET MVC so bear with me. I've searched around this site and various others and have seen a few implementations of this. EDIT: I forgot to mention I am using RC2 Using URL Routing: routes.MapRoute( "Error", "{*url}", new { controller = "Errors", action = "NotFound" } //404s ); The above seems to take care of requests like this (assuming default route tables setup by initial MVC project): "/blah/blah/blah/blah" Overriding HandleUnknownAction() in the controller itself: //404s - handle here (bad action requested protected override void HandleUnknownAction(string actionName) { ViewData["actionName"] = actionName; View("NotFound").ExecuteResult(this.ControllerContext); } However the previous strategies do not handle a request to a Bad/Unknown controller. For example, I do not have a "/IDoNotExist", if I request this I get the generic 404 page from the web server and not my 404 if I use routing + override. So finally, my question is: Is there any way to catch this type of request using a route or something else in the MVC framework itself? OR should I just default to using Web.Config customErrors as my 404 handler and forget all this? I assume if I go with customErrors I'll have to store the generic 404 page outside of /Views due to the Web.Config restrictions on direct access. Anyway any best practices or guidance is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

    - by Eric
    I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627  | Next Page >