Search Results

Search found 19017 results on 761 pages for 'purchase order'.

Page 622/761 | < Previous Page | 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629  | Next Page >

• Why do mozilla and webkit prepend -moz- and -webkit- to CSS3 rules?

  - by egarcia

  CSS3 rules bring lots of interesting features. Take border-radius, for example. The standard says that if you write this rule: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; } I should get a 5px border radius. But neither mozilla nor webkit implement this. However, they implement the same thing, with the same parameters, with a different name (-moz-border-radius and -webkit-border-radius, respectively). In order to satisfy as many browsers as possible, you end up with this: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; -webkit-border-radius: 5px; } I can see two obvious disadvantages: Copy-paste code. This has obvious risks that I will not discuss here. The W3C CSS validator will not validate these rules. At the same time, I don't see any obvious advantages. I believe that the people behind mozilla and webkit are more intelligent than myself. There must be some good reasons to have things structured this way. It's just that I can't see them. So, I must ask you people: why is this?

  Read the article

• Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

  - by brady

  I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

  Read the article

• What is a faster way of merging the values of this Python structure into a single dictionary?

  - by jcoon

  I've refactored how the merged-dictionary (all_classes) below is created, but I'm wondering if it can be more efficient. I have a dictionary of dictionaries, like this: groups_and_classes = {'group_1': {'class_A': [1, 2, 3], 'class_B': [1, 3, 5, 7], 'class_c': [1, 2], # ...many more items like this }, 'group_2': {'class_A': [11, 12, 13], 'class_C': [5, 6, 7, 8, 9] }, # ...and many more items like this } A function creates a new object from groups_and_classes like this (the function to create this is called often): all_classes = {'class_A': [1, 2, 3, 11, 12, 13], 'class_B': [1, 3, 5, 7, 9], 'class_C': [1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] } Right now, there is a loop that does this: all_classes = {} for group in groups_and_classes.values(): for c, vals in group.iteritems(): for v in vals: if all_classes.has_key(c): if v not in all_classes[c]: all_classes[c].append(v) else: all_classes[c] = [v] So far, I changed the code to use a set instead of a list since the order of the list doesn't matter and the values need to be unique: all_classes = {} for group in groups_and_classes.values(): for c, vals in group.iteritems(): try: all_classes[c].update(set(vals)) except KeyError: all_classes[c] = set(vals) This is a little nicer, and I didn't have to convert the sets to lists because of how all_classes is used in the code. Question: Is there a more efficient way of creating all_classes (aside from building it at the same time groups_and_classes is built, and changing everywhere this function is called)?

  Read the article

• Deserializing JSON in WCF throws xml errors in .Net 4.0

  - by Syg

  Hi there. I'm going slidely mad over here, maybe someone else can figure out what's going on here. I have a WCF service exposing a function using webinvoke, like so: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Wrapped, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "registertokenpost" )] void RegisterDeviceTokenForYoumiePost(test token); The datacontract for the test class looks like this: [DataContract(Namespace="Zooma.Test", Name="test", IsReference=true)] public class test { string waarde; [DataMember(Name="waarde", Order=0)] public string Waarde { get { return waarde; } set { waarde = value; } } } When sending the following json message to the service, { "test": { "waarde": "bla" } } the trace log gives me errors (below). I have tried this with just a string instead of the datatype (void RegisterDeviceTokenForYoumiePost(string token); ) but i get the same error. All help is appreciated, can't figure it out. It looks like it's creating invalid xml from the json message, but i'm not doing any custom serialization here. The formatter threw an exception while trying to deserialize the message: Error in deserializing body of request message for operation 'RegisterDeviceTokenForYoumiePost'. Unexpected end of file. **Following elements are not closed**: waarde, test, root.</Message><StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.DeserializeRequest(Message message, Object[] parameters)

  Read the article

• Raphael.js: Adding a new custom element

  - by Claudia

  I would like to create a custom Raphael element, with custom properties and functions. This object must also contain predefined Raphael objects. For example, I would have a node class, that would contain a circle with text and some other elements inside it. The problem is to add this new object to a set. These demands are needed because non-Raphael objects cannot be added to sets. As a result, custom objects that can contain Raphael objects cannot be used. The code would look like this: var Node = function (paper) { // Coordinates & Dimensions this.x = 0, this.y = 0, this.radius = 0, this.draw = function () { this.entireSet = paper.set(); var circle = paper.circle(this.x, this.y, this.radius); this.circleObj = circle; this.entireSet.push(circle); var text = paper.text(this.x, this.y, this.text); this.entireSet.push(text); } // other functions } var NodeList = function(paper){ this.nodes = paper.set(), this.populateList = function(){ // in order to add a node to the set // the object must be of type Raphael object // otherwise the set will have no elements this.nodes.push(// new node) } this.nextNode = function(){ // ... } this.previousNode = function(){ // ... } }

  Read the article

• Vertically Merge Multiple Tables in MySQL by Joint Primary Key

  - by world

  Hello, I'll attempt to make my question as clear as possible. I'm fairly unexperienced with SQL, only know the really basic queries. In order to have a better idea I'd been reading the MySQL manual for the past few days, but I couldn't really find a concrete solution and my needs are quite specific. I've got 3 MySQL MyISAM tables: table1, table2 and table3. Each table has an ID column (ID, ID2, ID3 respectively), and different data columns. For example table1 has [ID, Name, Birthday, Status, ...] columns, table2 has [ID2, Country, Zip, ...], table3 has [ID3, Source, Phone, ...] you get the idea. The ID, ID2, ID3 columns are common to all three tables... if there's an ID value in table1 it will also appear in table2 and table3. The number of rows in these tables is identical, about 10m rows in each table. What I'd like to do is create a new table that contains (most of) the columns of all three tables and merge them into it. The dates, for instance, must be converted because right now they're in VARCHAR YYYYMMDD format. Reading the MySQL manual I figured STR_TO_DATE() would do the job, but I don't know how to write the query itself in the first place so I have no idea how to integrate the date conversion. So basically, after I create the new table (which I do know how to do), how can I merge the three tables into it, integrating into the query the date conversion?

  Read the article

• should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

  - by Sudhi

  I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

  Read the article

• multi-dimension array value sorting in php

  - by David

  Another potentially interesting (or n00b, whatever comes first) question. I am building up an array with a set of database fields with information about table, actual field name and descriptive field name as a multi-dimensional array. Here is what it currently looks like: $Fields['User']['ID'] = "User ID"; $Fields['User']['FirstName'] = "First Name"; $Fields['Stats']['FavouriteOrder'] = "Favourite Item Ordered"; $Fields['Geographic']['Location'] = "Current Location"; $Fields['Geographic']['LocationCode'] = "Current Location Code"; Okay, this is fine, but I am piping this into a system that allows exporting of selected fields, and in the end I want to foreach() through the different levels, extract the data and then ultimately have all the descriptive fields to be displayed sorted alphabetically using their descriptive name. So ultimately in the order: Current Location, Current Location Code, Favourite Item Ordered, First Name then User ID - obviously keeping index associations. I can't use usort() and I can't use array_multisort()... or maybe I can and I just don't know how. usort() seems to need a key to sort by, but I have variable keys. array_multisort() just seems to do the same as sort() really. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• bing search api ajax does not work

  - by jhon

  Hi guys, I want to use the Bing's search api with javascript. Actually, I want the user to write something and query Bing in order to get just images. so, I tried it using ajax. If I try the url http://api.search.live.net/xml.aspx?Appid=[YOURAPIKEY]&sources=image&query=home directly (with the browser) I do get an xml document. but if I use XMLHttpRequest it does not work. <html> <body> <script> var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://api.search.live.net/xml.aspx?Appid=[YOURAPIKEY]&sources=image&query=home" xhr.open("GET", url, true ); xhr.onreadystatechange=function(){ /*if( xhr.readyState == 4 && xhr.status == 200) { document.write( xhr.responseText ); }*/ alert( xhr.readyState +" "+xhr.status +xhr.statusText +xhr); }; xhr.send(null); </script> </body> </html> Questions: 1) why does the code from above does not work? 2) any other way to do this without XMLHttpRequest? thanks. btw. I'm just interested in fix this for Firefox and without external libraries (jquery and so on).

  Read the article

• Licensing iPhone apps per user in existing system

  - by Alxandr

  I've been asked by my job to write a iPhone app for an existing system for managing worktasks. This system is proprietary and costs money, so in order to login you need to be a customer. Now, I've got two questions about the legality of licensing iPhone apps with this system: My company would like to be able to sell the app for profit, but not as a one-time payment, but as a added subscription-fee to the already existing one. Is it legal for us (according with the terms of distributing an iPhone app on the Apple App Store) to do this? That way we'll just add another field to the users-database saying weather or not iPhone is enabled for them, and distribute the app as a free app on App Store. If the previous question is not legal, we'd like to just create a free app and distribute it as part of the existing system. In other words, no extra fee for using the iPhone app for the users, but still free distribution trough App Store. Due to our company not being american or having an office in the U.S. at all enterprice account is not an option. Please let me know if there is anything wrong with any of the above approaches.

  Read the article

• Using Partitions for a large MySQL table

  - by user293594

  An update on my attempts to implement a 505,000,000-row table on MySQL on my MacBook Pro: Following the advice given, I have partitioned my table, tr: i UNSIGNED INT NOT NULL, j UNSIGNED INT NOT NULL, A FLOAT(12,8) NOT NULL, nu BIGINT NOT NULL, KEY (nu), key (A) with a range on nu. nu ought to be a real number, but because I only have 6-d.p. accuracy and the maximum value of nu is 30000. I multiplied it by 10^8 made it a BIGINT - I gather one can't use FLOAT or DOUBLE values to PARTITION a MySQL table. Anyway, I have 15 partitions (p0: nu<25,000,000,000, p1: nu<50,000,000,000, etc.). I was thinking that this should speed up a typical to SELECT: SELECT * FROM tr WHERE nu>95000000000 AND nu<100000000000 AND A.>1. to something of the order of the same query on a table consisting of only the data in the relevant partition (<30 secs). But it's taking 30mins+ to return rows for queries within a partition and double that if the query is for rows spanning two (contiguous) partitions. I realise I could just have 15 different tables, and query them separately, but is there a way to do this 'automatically' with partitions? Has anyone got any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Aspect-Oriented Programming in OOP world - breaking rules ?

  - by Maksim Kondratyuk

  Hi 2 all! When I worked on asp.net mvc web site project, I investigated different approaches for validation. Some of them were DataAnotation validation and Validation Block. They use attributes for setting up rules for validation. Like this: [Required] public string Name {get;set;} I was confused how this approach combines with SRP (single responsibilty principle) from OOP world. Also I don't like any business logic in business objects, I prefer "poor business objects" model, but when I decorate my business objects with validation attributes for real requirements, they become ugly (Has a lot of attributes / with localization logic and so on). Idea with attributes realy simple, but in my opinion the validation decoration should be separated from object. I'm not sure is the approach to separate validation rules to xml files or to another objects, maybe it is a solution. Another bad side of AOP - problems with unit testin such code. When I decorated some controller actions with custom attributes for example to import/export TempData between actions or initialize some required services I can't to write proper unit test for testing this actions. Do you think that attributes don't break srp or you just disregard this and think that it's simplest , is not worst way ? P.S. I read some likes articles and discussions and I just want to put things in proper order. P.P.S. sorry for my "fluent" english :=)

  Read the article

• Objective-C Getter Memory Management

  - by Marian André

  I'm fairly new to Objective-C and am not sure how to correctly deal with memory management in the following scenario: I have a Core Data Entity with a to-many relationship for the key "children". In order to access the children as an array, sorted by the column "position", I wrote the model class this way: @interface AbstractItem : NSManagedObject { NSArray * arrangedChildren; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSSet * children; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * position; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray * arrangedChildren; @end @implementation AbstractItem @dynamic children; @dynamic position; @synthesize arrangedChildren; - (NSArray*)arrangedChildren { NSArray* unarrangedChildren = [[self.children allObjects] retain]; NSSortDescriptor* sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"position" ascending:YES]; [arrangedChildren release]; arrangedChildren = [unarrangedChildren sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:sortDescriptor]]; [sortDescriptor release]; [unarrangedChildren release]; return [arrangedChildren retain]; } @end I'm not sure whether or not to retain unarrangedChildren and the returned arrangedChildren (first and last line of the arrangedChildren getter). Does the NSSet allObjects method already return a retained array? It's probably too late and I have a coffee overdose. I'd be really thankful if someone could point me in the right direction. I guess I'm missing vital parts of memory management knowledge and I will definitely look into it thoroughly.

  Read the article

• Best practices for JQuery namespaces + general purpose utility functions

  - by Armchair Bronco

  What are some current "rules of thumb" for implementing JQuery namespaces to host general purpose utility functions? I have a number of JavaScript utility methods scattered in various files that I'd like to consolidate into one (or more) namespaces. What's the best way to do this? I'm currently looking at two different syntaxes, listed in order of preference: //****************************** // JQuery Namespace syntax #1 //****************************** if (typeof(MyNamespace) === "undefined") { MyNamespace = {}; } MyNamespace.SayHello = function () { alert("Hello from MyNamespace!"); } MyNamespace.AddEmUp = function (a, b) { return a + b; } //****************************** // JQuery Namespace syntax #2 //****************************** if (typeof (MyNamespace2) === "undefined") { MyNamespace2 = { SayHello: function () { alert("Hello from MyNamespace2!"); }, AddEmUp: function (a, b) { return a + b; } }; } Syntax #1 is more verbose but it seems like it would be easier to maintain down the road. I don't need to add commas between methods, and I can left align all my functions. Are there other, better ways to do this?

  Read the article

• Object Oriented Programming in AS3

  - by Jordan

  I'm building a game in as3 that has balls moving and bouncing off the walls. When the user clicks an explosion appears and any ball that hits that explosion explodes too. Any ball that then hits that explosion explodes and so on. My question is what would be the best class structure for the balls. I have a level system to control levels and such and I've already come up with working ways to code the balls. Here's what I've done. My first attempt was to create a class for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and finally Orb. These all extended each other in the order I just named them. I got it working but having Bounce extend Movement and Explosion extend Bounce, it just doesn't seem very object oriented because what if I wanted to add a box class that didn't move, but did explode? I would need a separate class for that explosion. My second attempt was to create Movement, Bounce and Explosion without extending anything. Instead I passed in a reference to the Orb class to each. Then the class stores that reference and does what it needs to do based on events that are dispatched by the Orb such as update, which was broadcast from Orb every enter frame. This would drive the movement and bounce and also the explosion when the time came. This attempt worked as well but it just doesn't seem right. I've also thought about using Interfaces but because they are more of an outline for classes, I feel like code reuse goes out the window as each class would need its own code for a specific task even if that task is exactly the same. I feel as if I'm searching for some form of multiple inheritance for classes that as3 does not support. Can someone explain to me a better way of doing what I'm attempting to do? Am I being to "Object Oriented" by having classed for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and Orb? Are Interfaces the way to go? Any feedback is appreciated!

  Read the article

• When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

  Read the article

• RSA_sign and RSACryptoProvider.VerifySignature

  - by Miky D

  I'm trying to get up to speed on how to get some code that uses OpenSSL for cryptography, to play nice with another program that I'm writing in C#, using the Microsoft cryptography providers available in .NET. More to the point, I'm trying to have the C# program verify an RSA message signature generated by the OpenSSL code. The code that generates the signature looks something like this: // Code in C, using the OpenSSL RSA implementation char msgToSign[] = "Hello World"; // the message to be signed char signature[RSA_size(rsa)]; // buffer that will hold signature int slen = 0; // will contain signature size // rsa is an OpenSSL RSA context, that's loaded with the public/private key pair memset(signature, 0, sizeof(signature)); RSA_sign(NID_sha1 , (unsigned char*)msgToSign , strlen(msgToSign) , signature , &slen , rsa); // now signature contains the message signature // and can be verified using the RSA_verify counterpart // .. I would like to verify the signature in C# In C#, I would do the following: import the other side's public key into an RSACryptoServiceProvider object receive the message and it's signature try to verify the signature I've got the first two parts working (I've verified that the public key is loading properly because I managed to send an RSA encrypted text from the C# code to the OpenSSL code in C and successfully have it decrypted) In order to verify the signature in C#, I've tried using the: VerifySignature method of the RSACryptoServiceProvider but that didn't work. And digging around the internet I was only able to find some vague information pointing out that .NET uses a different method for generating the signature than OpenSSL does. So, does anybody know how to accomplish this?

  Read the article

• ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

  - by zoopzoop

  I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

  Read the article

• How to name multiple versioned ServiceContracts in the same WCF service?

  - by Tor Hovland

  When you have to introduce a breaking change in a ServiceContract, a best practice is to keep the old one and create a new one, and use some version identifier in the namespace. If I understand this correctly, I should be able to do the following: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/01/14")] public interface IVersionedService { [OperationContract] string WriteGreeting(Person person); } [ServiceContract(Name = "IVersionedService", Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/02/21")] public interface IVersionedService2 { [OperationContract(Name = "WriteGreeting")] Greeting WriteGreeting2(Person2 person); } With this I can create a service that supports both versions. This actually works, and it looks fine when testing from soapUI. However, when I create a client in Visual Studio using "Add Service Reference", VS disregards the namespaces and simply sees two interfaces with the same name. In order to differentiate them, VS adds "1" to the name of one of them. I end up with proxies called ServiceReference.VersionedServiceClient and ServiceReference.VersionedService1Client Now it's not easy for anybody to see which is the newer version. Should I give the interfaces different names? E.g IVersionedService1 IVersionedService2 or IVersionedService/2010/01/14 IVersionedService/2010/02/21 Doesn't this defeat the purpose of the namespace? Should I put them in different service classes and get a unique URL for each version?

  Read the article

• Counting computers for each lab

  - by Irvin

  Alright I have a problem with having to count PCs, and Macs from different labs. In each lab I need to display how many PC and Macs there is available. The data is coming from a SQL server, right am trying sub queries and the use of union, this the closest I can get to what I need. The query below shows me the number of PCs, and Macs in two different columns, but of course, the PCs will be in one row and the Macs on another right below it. Having the lab come up twice. EX: LabName -- PC / MAC Lab1 -- 5 / 0 Lab1 -- 0 / 2 Query SELECT Labs.LabName, COUNT(*),0 AS Mac FROM HardWare INNER JOIN Labs ON HardWare.LabID = Labs.LabID WHERE ComputerStatus = 'AVAILABLE' GROUP BY Labs.LabName UNION SELECT Labs.LabName, COUNT(*), (SELECT COUNT(Manufacturer)) AS Mac FROM HardWare INNER JOIN Labs ON HardWare.LabID = Labs.LabID WHERE ComputerStatus = 'AVAILABLE' AND Manufacturer = 'Apple' GROUP BY Labs.LabName ORDER BY Labs.LabName So is there any way to get them together in one row as in Lab1 -- 5 / 2 or is there a different way to write the query? anything will be a big help, am pretty much stuck here. Cheers

  Read the article

• SQL to CodeIgniter Array Missing Data Issue

  - by SamD

  $query = $this->db->query("SELECT t1.numberofbets, t1.profit, t2.seven_profit, t3.28profit, user.user_id, username, password, email, balance, user.date_added, activation_code, activated FROM user LEFT JOIN (SELECT user_id, SUM(amount_won) AS profit, count(tip_id) AS numberofbets FROM tip GROUP BY user_id) as t1 ON user.user_id = t1.user_id LEFT JOIN (SELECT user_id, SUM(amount_won) AS seven_profit FROM tip WHERE date_settled > '$seven_daystime' GROUP BY user_id) as t2 ON user.user_id = t2.user_id LEFT JOIN (SELECT user_id, SUM(amount_won) AS 28profit FROM tip WHERE date_settled > '$twoeight_daystime' GROUP BY user_id) as t3 ON user.user_id = t3.user_id where activated = 1 GROUP BY user.user_id ORDER BY user.date_added DESC"); return $query->result_array(); The query works fine running it in phpMyAdmin and returns complete results (in image attached). However, printing the array in CodeIgniter, it has no value for one field ,seven_profit, where it is there in the SQL query ran in phpMyAdmin, just the discrepancy in this one field, from sql to php array... I just can’t see why, when printing the array, that one field, which should have value of 26, contains nothing? Any ideas? I changed the field name from starting with a number in attempt to fix it, but no difference. I know this is complex and looks horrible, any help or just people coming across something similar would be great to know about, thanks. Sam

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc: What is the correct way to return html from controller to refresh select list?

  - by Mark Redman

  Hi, I am new to ASP.NET MVC, particularly ajax operations. I have a form with a jquery dialog for adding items to a drop-down list. This posts to the controller action. If nothing (ie void method) is returned from the Controller Action the page returns having updated the database, but obviously there no chnage to the form. What would be the best practice in updating the drop down list with the added id/value and selecting the item. I think my options are: 1) Construct and return the html manually that makes up the new <select> tag [this would be easy enough and work, but seems like I am missing something] 2) Use some kind of "helper" to construct the new html [This seems to make sense] 3) Only return the id/value and add this to the list and select the item [This seems like an overkill considering the item needs to be placed in the correct order etc] 4) Use some kind of Partial View [Does this mean creating additional forms within ascx controls? not sure how this would effect submitting the main form its on? Also unless this is reusable by passing in parameters(not sure how thats done) maybe 2 is the option?] UPDATE: Having looked around a bit, it seems that generating html withing the controller is not a good idea. I have seen other posts that render partialviews to strings which I guess is what I need and separates concerns (since the html bits are in the ascx). Any comments on whether that is good practice.

  Read the article

• Algorithm for scoring user activity

  - by ManBugra

  I have an application where users can: Write reviews about products Add comments to products Up / Down vote reviews Up / Down vote comments Every Up/Down vote is recorded in a db table. What i want to do now is to create a ranking of the most active users in the last 4 weeks. Of course good reviews should be weighted more than good comments. But also e.g. 10 good comments should be weighted more than just one good review. Example: // reviews created in recent 4 weeks //format: [ upVoteCount, downVoteCount ] var reviews = [ [120,23], [32,12], [12,0], [23,45] ]; // comments created in recent 4 weeks // format: [ upVoteCount, downVoteCount ] var comments = [ [1,2], [322,1], [0,0], [0,45] ]; // create weight vector // format: [ reviewWeight, commentsWeight ] var weight = [0.60, 0.40]; // signature: activties..., activityWeight var userActivityScore = score(reviews, comments, weight); ... update user table ... List<Users> users = "from users u order by u.userActivityScore desc"; How would a fair scoring function look like? How could an implementation of the score() function look like? How to add a weight g to the function so that reviews are weighted heavier? How would such a function look like if, for example, votes for pictures would be added?

  Read the article

• Strange XCode debugger behavior with UITableView datasource

  - by Tarfa

  Hey guys. I've got a perplexing issue. In my subclassed UITableViewController my datasource methods lose their tableview reference depending on lines of code I put inside the method. For example, in this code block: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 5; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id i = tableView; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } the "id i = tableView;" causes the tableview to become nil (0x0) -- and it causes it to be nil before I ever start stepping into the method. If I insert an assignment statement above the "id i = tableview;" statement: CGFloat x = 5.0; id i = tableView; then tableview retains its pointer (i.e. is not nil) if I place the breakpoint after the "id i = tableView;" line. In other words, the breakpoint must be set after the "id i = tableView"; assignment in order for tableView to retain its pointer. If the breakpoint is set before the assignment is made and I just hang at that breakpoint for a bit then after a couple of seconds the console logs this error message: Assertion failed: (cls), function getName, file /SourceCache/objc4_Sim/objc4-427.5/runtime/objc-runtime-new.mm, line 3990. Although the code works when I don't step through the method, I need my debugger to work! It makes programming kind of challenging when your debugging tools become your enemy. Anyone know what the cause and solution are? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to update application files using patching?

  - by Marek

  I am not interested in any auto update solution, such as ClickOnce or the MS Updater Block. For anyone feeling the urge to ask why not: I am already using these and there is nothing wrong with them, I would just like to learn about any efficient alternatives. I would like to publish patches = small differences that will modify existing files of the deployment with the smallest possible delta. Not only code needs to be patched, but also resource files. Patching the running code can be accomplished by maintaining two separate synchronized copies of the deployment (no on the fly changes to the running executable are required). The application itself can be xcopy deployed (to avoid MSI auto-correcting the modified files or breaking ClickOnce signatures). I would like to learn how to handle different versions of patches (e.g. there is a patch issued that fixes one error and later another patch that fixes another error (in the same file) - users may have any combination of these and there comes a third patch - in text files, this may be easy to implement, but how about executable files? (native Win32 code vs. .NET, any difference?) If the first problem is too hard to solve or unsolvable for executables, I would like to at least learn if there is a solution that implements simple patching with serial revisions - in order to install revision 5, user must have all previous revisions installed to ensure validity of the deployment. Are there any existing solutions to accomplish this? NOTE: There are a few questions on SO that may seem like duplicates, but none with a good answer. This question is about the Windows platform, preferably .NET.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629  | Next Page >