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  • Is there a scheduling algorithm that optimizes for "maker's schedules"?

    - by John Feminella
    You may be familiar with Paul Graham's essay, "Maker's Schedule, Manager's Schedule". The crux of the essay is that for creative and technical professionals, meetings are anathema to productivity, because they tend to lead to "schedule fragmentation", breaking up free time into chunks that are too small to acquire the focus needed to solve difficult problems. In my firm we've seen significant benefits by minimizing the amount of disruption caused, but the brute-force algorithm we use to decide schedules is not sophisticated enough to handle scheduling large groups of people well. (*) What I'm looking for is if there's are any well-known algorithms which minimize this productivity disruption, among a group of N makers and managers. In our model, There are N people. Each person pi is either a maker (Mk) or a manager (Mg). Each person has a schedule si. Everyone's schedule is H hours long. A schedule consists of a series of non-overlapping intervals si = [h1, ..., hj]. An interval is either free or busy. Two adjacent free intervals are equivalent to a single free interval that spans both. A maker's productivity is maximized when the number of free intervals is minimized. A manager's productivity is maximized when the total length of free intervals is maximized. Notice that if there are no meetings, both the makers and the managers experience optimum productivity. If meetings must be scheduled, then makers prefer that meetings happen back-to-back, while managers don't care where the meeting goes. Note that because all disruptions are treated as equally harmful to makers, there's no difference between a meeting that lasts 1 second and a meeting that lasts 3 hours if it segments the available free time. The problem is to decide how to schedule M different meetings involving arbitrary numbers of the N people, where each person in a given meeting must place a busy interval into their schedule such that it doesn't overlap with any other busy interval. For each meeting Mt the start time for the busy interval must be the same for all parties. Does an algorithm exist to solve this problem or one similar to it? My first thought was that this looks really similar to defragmentation (minimize number of distinct chunks), and there are a lot of algorithms about that. But defragmentation doesn't have much to do with scheduling. Thoughts? (*) Practically speaking this is not really a problem, because it's rare that we have meetings with more than ~5 people at once, so the space of possibilities is small.

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  • Using Constants in Perl

    - by David W.
    I am trying to define constants in Perl using the use Constant pragma: use Constant { FOO => "bar", BAR => "foo" }; I'm running into a bit of trouble, and hoping there's a standard way of handling it. First of all... I am defining a hook script for Subversion. To make things simple, I want to have a single file where the class (package) I'm using is in the same file as my actual script. Most of this package will have constants involved in it: print "This is my program"; package "MyClass"; use constant { FOO => "bar" }; sub new { yaddah, yaddah, yaddah. I would like my constant FOO to be accessible to my main program. I would like to do this without having to refer to it as MyClass::FOO. Normally, when the package is a separate file, I could do this in my main program: use MyClass qw(FOO); but, since my class and program are a single file, I can't do that. What would be the best way for my main program to be able to access my constants defined in my class? The second issue... I would like to use the constant values as hash keys: $myHash{FOO} = "bar"; The problem is that %myHash has the literal string FOO as the key and not the value of the constant. This causes problems when I do things like this: if (defined($myHash{FOO})) { print "Key " . FOO . " does exist!\n"; } I could force the context: if (defined("" . FOO . "")) { I could add parentheses: if (defined(FOO())) { Or, I could use a temporary variable: my $foo = FOO; if (defined($foo)) { None of these are really nice ways of handling this issue. So, what is the best way? Is there one way I'm missing? By the way, I don't want to use Readonly::Scalar because it is 1). slow, and 2). not part of the standard Perl package. I want to define my hook not to require additional Perl packages and to be as simple as possible to work.

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  • getline() sets failbit and skips last line

    - by Thanatos
    I'm using std::getline() to enumerate through the lines in a file, and it's mostly working. It's left me curious however - std::getline() is skipping the very last line in my file, but only if it's blank. Using this minimal example: #include <iostream> #include <string> int main() { std::string line; while(std::getline(std::cin, line)) std::cout << "Line: “" << line << "”\n"; return 0; } If I feed it this: Line A Line B Line C I get those lines back at me. But this: Line A Line B Line C [* line is present but blank, ie, the file end is: "...B\nLine C\n" *] (I unfortunately can't have a blank line in SO's little code box thing...) So, first file has three lines ( ["Line A", "Line B", "Line C"] ), second file has four ( ["Line A", "Line B", "Line C", ""] ) This to me seems wrong - I have a four line file, and enumerating it with getline() leaves me with 3. What's really got me scratching my head is that this is exactly what the standard says it should do. (21.3.7.9) Even Python has similar behaviour (but it gives me the newlines too - C++ chops them off.) Is this some weird thing where C++ is expected lines to be terminated, and not separated by '\n', and I'm feeding it differently? Edit Clearly, I need to expand a bit here. I've met up with two philosophies of determining what a "line" in a file is: Lines are terminated by newlines - Dominant in systems such as Linux, and editors like vim. Possible to have a slightly "odd" file by not having a final '\n' (a "noeol" in vim). Impossible to have a blank line at the end of a file. Lines are separated by newlines - Dominant in just about every Windows editor I've ever come across. Every file is valid, and it's possible to have the last line be blank. Of course, YMMV as to what a newline is. I've always treated these as two completely different schools of thought. One earlier point I tried to make was to ask if the C++ standard was explicitly or merely implicitly following the first. (Curiously, where is Mac? terminated or separated?)

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  • Clojure vars and Java static methods

    - by j-g-faustus
    I'm a few days into learning Clojure and are having some teething problems, so I'm asking for advice. I'm trying to store a Java class in a Clojure var and call its static methods, but it doesn't work. Example: user=> (. java.lang.reflect.Modifier isPrivate 1) false user=> (def jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) #'user/jmod user=> (. jmod isPrivate 1) java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: No matching method found: isPrivate for class java.lang.Class (NO_SOURCE_FILE:0) at clojure.lang.Compiler.eval(Compiler.java:4543) From the exception it looks like the runtime expects a var to hold an object, so it calls .getClass() to get the class and looks up the method using reflection. In this case the var already holds a class, so .getClass() returns java.lang.Class and the method lookup obviously fails. Is there some way around this, other than writing my own macro? In the general case I'd like to have either an object or a class in a varible and call the appropriate methods on it - duck typing for static methods as well as for instance methods. In this specific case I'd just like a shorter name for java.lang.reflect.Modifier, an alias if you wish. I know about import, but looking for something more general, like the Clojure namespace alias but for Java classes. Are there other mechanisms for doing this? Edit: Maybe I'm just confused about the calling conventions here. I thought the Lisp (and by extension Clojure) model was to evaluate all arguments and call the first element in the list as a function. In this case (= jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) returns true, and (.getName jmod) and (.getName java.lang.reflect.Modifier) both return the same string. So the variable and the class name clearly evaluate to the same thing, but they still cannot be called in the same fashion. What's going on here? Edit 2 Answering my second question (what is happening here), the Clojure doc says that If the first operand is a symbol that resolves to a class name, the access is considered to be to a static member of the named class... Otherwise it is presumed to be an instance member http://clojure.org/java_interop under "The Dot special form" "Resolving to a class name" is apparently not the same as "evaluating to something that resolves to a class name", so what I am trying to do here is something the dot special form does not support.

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  • Best practices managing JavaScript on a single-page app

    - by seanmonstar
    With a single page app, where I change the hash and load and change only the content of the page, I'm trying to decide on how to manage the JavaScript that each "page" might need. I've already got a History module monitoring the location hash which could look like domain.com/#/company/about, and a Page class that will use XHR to get the content and insert it into the content area. function onHashChange(hash) { var skipCache = false; if(hash in noCacheList) { skipCache = true; } new Page(hash, skipCache).insert(); } // Page.js var _pageCache = {}; function Page(url, skipCache) { if(!skipCache && (url in _pageCache)) { return _pageCache[url]; } this.url = url; this.load(); } The cache should let pages that have already been loaded skip the XHR. I also am storing the content into a documentFragment, and then pulling the current content out of the document when I insert the new Page, so I the browser will only have to build the DOM for the fragment once. Skipping the cache could be desired if the page has time sensitive data. Here's what I need help deciding on: It's very likely that any of the pages that get loaded will have some of their own JavaScript to control the page. Like if the page will use Tabs, needs a slide show, has some sort of animation, has an ajax form, or what-have-you. What exactly is the best way to go around loading that JavaScript into the page? Include the script tags in the documentFragment I get back from the XHR? What if I need to skip the cache, and re-download the fragment. I feel the exact same JavaScript being called a second time might cause conflicts, like redeclaring the same variables. Would the better way be to attach the scripts to the head when grabbing the new Page? That would require the original page know all the assets that every other page might need. And besides knowing the best way to include everything, won't I need to worry about memory management, and possible leaks of loading so many different JavaScript bits into a single page instance?

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  • Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

    - by Leron
    The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

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  • Throwing cats out of windows

    - by AndrewF
    Imagine you're in a tall building with a cat. The cat can survive a fall out of a low story window, but will die if thrown from a high floor. How can you figure out the longest drop that the cat can survive, using the least number of attempts? Obviously, if you only have one cat, then you can only search linearly. First throw the cat from the first floor. If it survives, throw it from the second. Eventually, after being thrown from floor f, the cat will die. You then know that floor f-1 was the maximal safe floor. But what if you have more than one cat? You can now try some sort of logarithmic search. Let's say that the build has 100 floors and you have two identical cats. If you throw the first cat out of the 50th floor and it dies, then you only have to search 50 floors linearly. You can do even better if you choose a lower floor for your first attempt. Let's say that you choose to tackle the problem 20 floors at a time and that the first fatal floor is #50. In that case, your first cat will survive flights from floors 20 and 40 before dying from floor 60. You just have to check floors 41 through 49 individually. That's a total of 12 attempts, which is much better than the 50 you would need had you attempted to use binary elimination. In general, what's the best strategy and it's worst-case complexity for an n-storied building with 2 cats? What about for n floors and m cats? Assume that all cats are equivalent: they will all survive or die from a fall from a given window. Also, every attempt is independent: if a cat survives a fall, it is completely unharmed. This isn't homework, although I may have solved it for school assignment once. It's just a whimsical problem that popped into my head today and I don't remember the solution. Bonus points if anyone knows the name of this problem or of the solution algorithm.

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  • Best of both worlds: browser and desktop game?

    - by Ricket
    When considering a platform for a game, I've decided on multi-platform (Win/Lin/Mac) but can't make up my mind as far as browser vs. desktop. As I'm not all too far in development, and now having second thoughts, I'd like your opinion! Browser-based games using Java applets: market penetration is reasonably high (for version 6, it's somewhere around 60% I believe?) using JOGL, 3D performance/quality is decent; certainly good enough to render the crappy 3D graphics that I make there's the (small?) possibility of porting something to Android great for an audience of gamers who switch computers often; can sit down at any computer, load a webpage and play it also great for casual gamers or less knowledgeable gamers who are quite happy with playing games in a browser but don't want to install more things to their computer written in a high-level language which I am more familiar with than C++ - but at the same time, I would like to improve my skills with C++ as it is probably where I am headed in the game industry once I get out of school... easier update process: reload the page. Desktop games using good ol' C++ and OpenGL 100% market penetration, assuming complete cross-platform; however, that number reduces when you consider how many people will go through downloading and installing an executable compared to just browsing to a webpage and hitting "yes" to a security warning. more trouble to maintain the cross-platform; but again, for learning purposes I would embrace the challenge and the knowledge I would gain better performance all around true full screen, whereas browser games often struggle with smooth full screen graphics (especially on Linux, in my experience) can take advantage of distribution platforms such as Steam more likely to be considered a "real" game, whereas browser and Java games are often dismissed as not being real games and therefore not played by "hardcore gamers" installer can be large; don't have to worry so much about download times Is there a way to have the best of both worlds? I love Java applets, but I also really like the reasons to write a desktop game. I don't want to constantly port everything between a Java applet project and a C++ project; that would be twice the work! Unity chose to write their own web player plugin. I don't like this, because I am one of the people that will not install their web player for anything, and I don't see myself being able to convince my audience to install a browser plugin. What are my options? Are there other examples out there besides Unity, of games that have browser and desktop versions? Did I leave out anything in the pro/con lists above?

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  • how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

    - by andora
    I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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  • Why does firefox round-trip to the server to determine whether my files are modifed?

    - by erikkallen
    I have some static content on my web site that I have set up caching for (using Asp.NET MVC). According to Firebug, the first time I open the page, Firefox sends this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Which my server replies to with this: Server: ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:44:41 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version: 1.0 Cache-Control: public, max-age=31535671 Expires: Tue, 23 Nov 2010 18:39:12 GMT Last-Modified: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:12 GMT Vary: * Content-Type: text/css Content-Length: 15006 Connection: Close So far, so good. However, if I refresh Firefox (not a cache-clearing refresh, just a normal one), during that refresh cycle Firefox will once again go to the server with this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 If-Modified-Since: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:20 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=0 to which my server responds 304 Not Modified. Why does Firefox issue this second request? In the first response, I said that the cache does not expire for a year (I intend to use query parameters whenever things change). Do I have to add another response header to prevent this extra roundtrip? Edit: It does not matter whether I press refresh, or whether I go to the page again (or a different URL, which references the same external files). Firefox does the same again. Also, I don't claim this to be a bug in FF, I just wonder if there is another header I can set which means "This document will never change, don't bother me again".

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  • Implementing events to communicate between two processes - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Create thread: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'm trying to find out how I would integrate an event with the threaded code to signify to the other process that something has happened, I've seen an MSDN article on using events but it's just confused me if anything, I'm coming up on empty whilst searching on the internet too. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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  • UIButtons creating a native-like keyboard behavior.

    - by camilo
    Greets. A somehow detailed explanation on my problem, and what I have already done, and what I cannot do. I want to create a behavior resembling the one in the iPhone's keyboard. Basically, I want a view to appear when the user taps a button and WHILE the user taps that button. This, I accomplished. When the user lets go of the button WHILE his finger is on that button's area, I want to trigger an action "doing stuff". This, I was also able to do. Since all the buttons are near (like in the keyboard) and I don't want the user to select other button than the one he pressed, I reduced the hit area for the button using the -(BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent )event function. When the user presses the button, not lifting its finger, and dragging outside the button area, I want another action to trigger. This is the first problem... This function only triggers when the user's finger is far from the buttons' area, and this time the pointInside function is not being my friend. How can I detect the user finger "left" the button area the moment it exits its bounds? This, in case you didn't realize... was problem 1. The second problem is related with the drag enter. Again, I need to limit the area like in the drag exit. But I suppose that when I solve one of these, the other is the same. The problem is that in order to have a behavior like in the keyboard, I may need to detect the user started the touch in another button, never lifted his finger, and changed to another button. I can detect drag enter and drag exit IN THIS ORDER while on the same button. I cannot detect drag enter when the user first touched anywhere else other than the button where I want to detect the drag enter event. Basically what I need is to detect touch on any button (and not anywhere else in the view), and while the user is changing buttons without lifting the finger, I want to detect the new button being touched. This gigantic paragraph was problem #2. Any help, as you might guess, is highly appreciated. Best Regards. Thanks a lot!

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  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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  • Invalid cast exception

    - by user127147
    I have a simple application to store address details and edit them. I have been away from VB for a few years now and need to refreash my knowledge while working to a tight deadline. I have a general Sub responsible for displaying a form where user can add contact details (by pressing button add) and edit them (by pressing button edit). This sub is stored in a class Contact. The way it is supposed to work is that there is a list with all the contacts and when new contact is added a new entry is displayed. If user wants to edit given entry he or she selects it and presses edit button Public Sub Display() Dim C As New Contact C.Cont = InputBox("Enter a title for this contact.") C.Fname = frmAddCont.txtFName.Text C.Surname = frmAddCont.txtSName.Text C.Address = frmAddCont.txtAddress.Text frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C.Cont.ToString) End Sub I call it from the form responsible for adding new contacts by Dim C As New Contact C.Display() and it works just fine. However when I try to do something similar using the edit button I get errors - "Unable to cast object of type 'System.String' to type 'AddressBook.Contact'." Dim C As Contact If lstContact.SelectedItem IsNot Nothing Then C = lstContact.SelectedItem() C.Display() End If I think it may be something simple however I wasn't able to fix it and given short time I have I decided to ask for help here. I have updated my class with advice from other members and here is the final version (there are some problems however). When I click on the edit button it displays only the input box for the title of the contact and actually adds another entry in the list with previous data for first name, second name etc. Public Class Contact Public Contact As String Public Fname As String Public Surname As String Public Address As String Private myCont As String Public Property Cont() Get Return myCont End Get Set(ByVal value) myCont = Value End Set End Property Public Overrides Function ToString() As String Return Me.Cont End Function Sub NewContact() FName = frmAddCont.txtFName.ToString frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(FName) frmAddCont.Hide() End Sub Public Sub Display() Dim C As New Contact C.Cont = InputBox("Enter a title for this contact.") C.Fname = frmAddCont.txtFName.Text C.Surname = frmAddCont.txtSName.Text C.Address = frmAddCont.txtAddress.Text 'frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C.Cont.ToString) frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C) End Sub End Class

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  • Alternative to Page_Load in ASP.NET (and a good WTF story)

    - by Jason
    Woo, I have a doozy of a problem (might even be one for the Daily WTF) and I'm hoping there's a solution. (My apologies for the long post...) I have been working on a website that I inherited about a month ago. One of the parts I have been working on is fixing one of the controls (essentially a dynamic header bar) so that it displays additional information as requested by my users. As part of doing this project, I created a Site.master file so that I wouldn't have to recode the header bar into every single page. When I first started doing this, it seemingly worked very well. All the pages I had developed looked great and the bar updated as it should displaying the information as it should. Well, when I dropped the Site.master (and this control) into older site pages (ones I did not specifically develop) I noticed that it looked bad on some of them, but not all of them. When I say it looked bad, basically, the control would left-align itself to the page rather than center as it should. I spent a couple hours debugging to no avail - CSS looked correct, the HTML appeared to be okay, I didn't see anything in the Javascript (although, I did miss something as I'll point out in a second), and even the old code looked correct (to the best that it could - it's not very well written). Another coworker took a look at the site and couldn't find anything at first, either. It wasn't until I just thought to look at the rendered source code of the page (I had been working in the developer view up to this point in IE8) that it became clear what was wrong. The original developer performs searches on many of the pages. To accomplish this, he queries the database for ALL the data and then loads them into Javascript arrays within the page so he can get access to them. This in itself is a huge problem because we're talking about thousands of items, and it obviously isn't scalable (and, yes, the site is slow). However, it finally clicked what was screwing up the Site.master - when he loads the data into the Javascript arrays, he writes out the data to the HTML upon Page_Load using numerous Response.Write(string) calls. The WTF (and what was messing me up) is that he inserts the Javascript before the DOCTYPE causing IE to go into quirks mode! So, because I need to at least get this release out (I'll fix the real problem later), I was wondering: is there a way I can force this Javascript to be inserted elsewhere into the HTML—after the DOCTYPE at the very least? Right now, all the Response.Write() calls are being done in the Page_Load method. I just need them to be inserted later.

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  • How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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  • printf anomaly after "fork()"

    - by pechenie
    OS: Linux, Language: pure C I'm moving forward in learning C progpramming in general, and C programming under UNIX in a special case :D So, I detected a strange (as for me) behaviour of the printf() function after using a fork() call. Let's take a look at simple test program: #include <stdio.h> #include <system.h> int main() { int pid; printf( "Hello, my pid is %d", getpid() ); pid = fork(); if( pid == 0 ) { printf( "\nI was forked! :D" ); sleep( 3 ); } else { waitpid( pid, NULL, 0 ); printf( "\n%d was forked!", pid ); } return 0; } In this case the output looks like: Hello, my pid is 1111 I was forked! :DHello, my pid is 1111 2222 was forked! Why the second "Hello" string occured in the child's output? Yes, it is exactly what the parent printed on it's start, with the parent's pid. But! If we place '\n' character in the end of each string we got the expected output: #include <stdio.h> #include <system.h> int main() { int pid; printf( "Hello, my pid is %d\n", getpid() ); // SIC!! pid = fork(); if( pid == 0 ) { printf( "I was forked! :D" ); //removed the '\n', no matter sleep( 3 ); } else { waitpid( pid, NULL, 0 ); printf( "\n%d was forked!", pid ); } return 0; } And the output looks like: Hello, my pid is 1111 I was forked! :D 2222 was forked! Why does it happen? Is it ... ummm ... correct behaviour? Or it's a kind of the 'bug'?

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  • Memory corruption in System.Move due to changed 8087CW mode (png + stretchblt)

    - by André Mussche
    I have strange a memory corruption problem. After many hours debugging and trying I think I found something. For example: I do a simple string assignment: sTest := 'SET LOCK_TIMEOUT '; However, the result sometimes becomes: sTest = 'SET LOCK'#0'TIMEOUT ' So, the _ gets replaced by an 0 byte. I have seen this happening once (reproducing is tricky, dependent on timing) in the System.Move function, when it uses the FPU stack (fild, fistp) for fast memory copy (in case of 9 till 32 bytes to move): ... @@SmallMove: {9..32 Byte Move} fild qword ptr [eax+ecx] {Load Last 8} fild qword ptr [eax] {Load First 8} cmp ecx, 8 jle @@Small16 fild qword ptr [eax+8] {Load Second 8} cmp ecx, 16 jle @@Small24 fild qword ptr [eax+16] {Load Third 8} fistp qword ptr [edx+16] {Save Third 8} ... Using the FPU view and 2 memory debug views (Delphi - View - Debug - CPU - Memory) I saw it going wrong... once... could not reproduce however... This morning I read something about the 8087CW mode, and yes, if this is changed into $27F I get memory corruption! Normally it is $133F: The difference between $133F and $027F is that $027F sets up the FPU for doing less precise calculations (limiting to Double in stead of Extended) and different infiniti handling (which was used for older FPU’s, but is not used any more). Okay, now I found why but not when! I changed the working of my AsmProfiler with a simple check (so all functions are checked at enter and leave): if Get8087CW = $27F then //normally $1372? if MainThreadID = GetCurrentThreadId then //only check mainthread DebugBreak; I "profiled" some units and dll's and bingo (see stack): Windows.StretchBlt(3372289943,0,0,514,345,4211154027,0,0,514,345,13369376) pngimage.TPNGObject.DrawPartialTrans(4211154027,(0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345))) pngimage.TPNGObject.Draw($7FF62450,(0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345))) Graphics.TCanvas.StretchDraw((0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345)),$7FECF3D0) ExtCtrls.TImage.Paint Controls.TGraphicControl.WMPaint((15, 4211154027, 0, 0)) So it is happening in StretchBlt... What to do now? Is it a fault of Windows, or a bug in PNG (included in D2007)? Or is the System.Move function not failsafe?

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  • jquery show hidden div

    - by Fahad
    Firstly, I'm sort of embarrassed asking about this, so many people have already asked this question but even after having gone through so many posts, I'm unable to achieve what I want. Basically, a div, initially hidden, has to be displayed on a button click. I tried hiding the div using display:none and hide() and then displaying it using show(), toggle(), and css("display","block"). Using all sorts of combinations of the above, I was still unable to get the result. Code: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <link href="css/smoothness/jquery-ui-1.9.2.custom.min.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="jQuery/jquery-1.8.3.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jQuery/jquery-ui-1.9.2.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#one').hide(); $('#Button1').click(function () { $('#one').toggle(500); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="one" style="height: 20px;width:200px; background-color: Red; "> </div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Show" /> </form> </body> </html> On button click, the div is shown for a brief second before it disappears again. The same thing happens if I use show() instead of toggle() in the above code. Again the same thing if I set style="display:none" to the div instead of using hide() and then use show() or toggle(). I also tried using $('#one').css("display","block"); but again, the same result. Can anyone please tell me where I'm going wrong. Just started learning jQuery and it is really frustrating when something apparently so simple will not work. Thanks in advance. :)

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  • Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

    - by Ed Kirk
    On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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  • Updating DetailViewController from RootController

    - by Stefano Salmaso
    I'm trying to create an iPad application with a similar user interface to Apple's Mail application, i.e: RootView controller (table view) on the left hand side of the split view for navigation with a multiple view hierarchy. When a table cell is selected a new table view is pushed on the left hand side The new view on the left side can update the detail view. I can accomplish both tasks BUT NOT TOGETHER. I mean I can make a multi-level table view in the RootController.(HERE you can find the working source code). Or I can make a single-level table view in the RootController which can update the detailViewController (here there is the source code:http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D6L0463G). Can anyone tell me how to make a multi-level table in the RootController which can update a detailViewController? There is more source code at the link but below is the method in which I presume I have to declare a new detailViewController (which has to be put in the UISplitViewController): - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)TableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Get the children of the present item. NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; // if([Children count] == 0) { /* Create and configure a new detail view controller appropriate for the selection. */ NSUInteger row = indexPath.row; UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (row == 0) { FirstDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[FirstDetailViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"FirstDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (row == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers//nothing happens..... [viewControllers release];// } else { //Prepare to tableview. RootViewController *rvController = [[RootViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"RootViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; //Increment the Current View rvController.current_level += 1; //Set the title; rvController.current_title = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; //Push the new table view on the stack [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController.tableView reloadData]; //without this instrucion,items won't be loaded inside the second level of the table [rvController release]; } }

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  • how to animate 2 surfaces in Matlab?

    - by Kate
    Hi everyone, I've written this code which makes an animation of 2 ellipsoids. Parameter k1 of these ellipsoids must depend on time (so they'd move asynchronously), but I need to animate them in one figure. Can I use loop for it or is it better to use timer & some kind of callback functions? The second problem - I need to move inner ellipsoid so they would have one common side. How can I do this? a=5; b=a; c=10; u = (0:0.05*pi:2*pi)'; v = [0:0.05*pi:2*pi]; X = a*sin(u)*cos(v); Y = a*sin(u)*sin(v); Z = c*cos(u)*ones(size(v)); Z(Z0)=0; % cut upper V1=4/3*pi*a*b*c; d=1/2; e=2^d; a2=a/e; b2=a/e; c2=c; V2=4/3*pi*a2*b2*c2; X2 = a2*sin(u)*cos(v);%-2.5; Y2 = b2*sin(u)*sin(v); Z2 = c2*cos(u)*ones(size(v));%+0.25; Z2(Z20)=0; % cut h=1/3; for j = 1:20 k1=(sin(pi*j/20)+0.5)^h; a=a*k1; c=c*k1; X = a*sin(u)*cos(v); Y = a*sin(u)*sin(v); Z = c*cos(u)*ones(size(v)); Z(Z0)=0; a2=a2*k1; b2=a2*k1; c2=c2*k1; X2 = a2*sin(u)*cos(v)+5;%-2.5; Y2 = b2*sin(u)*sin(v); Z2 = c2*cos(u)*ones(size(v));%+0.25; Z2(Z20)=0; hS1=surf(X,Y,Z); alpha(.11) hold on hS2=surf(X2,Y2,Z2); hold off axis([-20 20 -20 20 -20 20]); F(j) = getframe; end movie(F,4)

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  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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  • Losing session after Login - Java

    - by Patrick Villela
    I'm building an application that needs to login to a certain page and make a navigation. I can login, provided that the response contains a string that identifies it. But, when I navigate to the second page, I can't see the page as a logged user, only as anonymous. I'll provide my code. import java.net.*; import java.security.*; import java.security.cert.*; import javax.net.ssl.*; import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class PostTest { static HttpsURLConnection conn = null; private static class DefaultTrustManager implements X509TrustManager { @Override public void checkClientTrusted(X509Certificate[] arg0, String arg1) throws CertificateException {} @Override public void checkServerTrusted(X509Certificate[] arg0, String arg1) throws CertificateException {} @Override public X509Certificate[] getAcceptedIssuers() { return null; } } public static void main(String[] args) { try { SSLContext ctx = SSLContext.getInstance("TLS"); ctx.init(new KeyManager[0], new TrustManager[] {new DefaultTrustManager()}, new SecureRandom()); SSLContext.setDefault(ctx); String data = URLEncoder.encode("txtUserName", "UTF-8") + "=" + URLEncoder.encode(/*username*/, "UTF-8"); data += "&" + URLEncoder.encode("txtPassword", "UTF-8") + "=" + URLEncoder.encode(/*password*/", "UTF-8"); data += "&" + URLEncoder.encode("envia", "UTF-8") + "=" + URLEncoder.encode("1", "UTF-8"); connectToSSL(/*login url*/); conn.setDoOutput(true); OutputStreamWriter wr = new OutputStreamWriter(conn.getOutputStream()); wr.write(data); wr.flush(); BufferedReader rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); String line; String resposta = ""; while((line = rd.readLine()) != null) { resposta += line + "\n"; } System.out.println("valid login -> " + resposta.contains(/*string that assures me I'm looged in*/)); connectToSSL(/*first navigation page*/); rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); while((line = rd.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println(line); } } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } private static void connectToSSL(String address) { try { URL url = new URL(address); conn = (HttpsURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setHostnameVerifier(new HostnameVerifier() { @Override public boolean verify(String arg0, SSLSession arg1) { return true; } }); } catch(Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } Any further information, just ask. Thanks in advance.

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