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  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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  • Same data being returned by linq for 2 different executions of a stored procedure?

    - by Paul
    Hello I have a stored procedure that I am calling through Entity Framework. The stored procedure has 2 date parameters. I supply different argument in the 2 times I call the stored procedure. I have verified using SQL Profiler that the stored procedure is being called correctly and returning the correct results. When I call my method the second time with different arguments, even though the stored procedure is bringing back the correct results, the table created contains the same data as the first time I called it. dtStart = 01/08/2009 dtEnd = 31/08/2009 public List<dataRecord> GetData(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd) { var tbl = from t in db.SP(dtStart, dtEnd) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } GetData((new DateTime(2009, 8, 1), new DateTime(2009, 8, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - CORRECT GetData(new DateTime(2009, 7, 1), new DateTime(2009, 7, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - WRONG 27456 expected Is this a case of Entity Framework being clever and caching? I can't see why it would cache this though as it has executed the stored procedure twice. Do I have to do something to close tbl? using Visual Studio 2008 + Entity Framework. I also get the message "query cannot be enumerated more than once" a few times every now and then, am not sure if that is relevant? FULL CODE LISTING namespace ProfileDataService { public partial class DataService { public static List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, EUtilityGroup ug, int nMeterSelectionType, int nCustomerID, int nUserID, string strSelection, bool bClosedLocations, bool bDisposedLocations) { dbChildDataContext db = DBManager.ChildDataConext(nCustomerID); var tbl = from t in db.GetTotalConsumptionByMeter(dtStart, dtEnd, (int) ug, nMeterSelectionType, nCustomerID, nUserID, strSelection, bClosedLocations, bDisposedLocations, 1) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } } } /// CALLER List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P1Totals; List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P2Totals; public void LoadData(int nUserID, int nCustomerID, ELocationSelectionMethod locationSelectionMethod, string strLocations, bool bIncludeClosedLocations, bool bIncludeDisposedLocations, DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durMainPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durCompareToPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EIncreaseReportType rptType, bool bIncludeDecreases) { ///Code for setting properties using parameters.. _P2Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_P2StartDate, _P2EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); _P1Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_StartDate, _EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); PopulateLines() //This fills up a list of objects with information for my report ready for the totals to be added PopulateTotals(_P1Totals, 1); PopulateTotals(_P2Totals, 2); } void PopulateTotals(List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> objTotals, int nPeriod) { MeterTotalConsumpRecord objMeterConsumption = null; foreach (IncreaseReportDataRecord objLine in _Lines) { objMeterConsumption = objTotals.Find(delegate(MeterTotalConsumpRecord t) { return t.MeterID == objLine.MeterID; }); if (objMeterConsumption != null) { if (nPeriod == 1) { objLine.P1Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } else { objLine.P2Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } objMeterConsumption = null; } } } }

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  • custom control in DataGridTemplateColumn

    - by Johnsonlu
    Hi all, I'd like to add my custom control into a template column of data grid. The custom control is very similar to a text box, but has an icon in it. The user can click the icon, and selects an item from a prompted window, then the selected item will be filled into the text box. My problem is when the text box is filled, after I click the second column, the text will disappear. If I replace the custom control with a simple text box, the result is the same. Here is the sample code: //Employee.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace SimpleGridTest { public class Employee { public string Department { get; set; } public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } } Mainwindow.xaml <Window x:Class="SimpleGridTest.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Grid> <DataGrid x:Name="grid" Grid.Row="1" Margin="5" AutoGenerateColumns="False" RowHeight="25" RowHeaderWidth="10" ItemsSource="{Binding}" CanUserAddRows="True" CanUserSortColumns="False"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Department" Width="150"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Department}" /> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTextColumn Header="ID" Binding="{Binding Path=ID}" Width="100"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Name" Binding="{Binding Path=Name}" Width="200"/> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> </Window> MainWindow.xaml.cs using System.Windows; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; namespace SimpleGridTest { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { private ObservableCollection<Employee> _employees = new ObservableCollection<Employee>(); public ObservableCollection<Employee> Employees { get { return _employees; } set { _employees = value; } } public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); grid.ItemsSource = Employees; } } } How can I fix this problem? Or I need to write a DataGrid***Column as DataGridTextColumn? Thanks in advance! Best Regards, Johnson

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  • Remove links with Javascript

    - by Arlen Beiler
    How do I remove links from a webpage with Javascript. I am using Google Chrome. The code I tried is: function removehyperlinks() { try { alert(document.anchors.length); alert(document.getElementsByTagName('a')); for(i=0;i=document.anchors.length;i++) { var a = document.anchors[i]; a.outerHTML = a.innerHTML; var b = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); b[i].outerHTML = b[i].innerHTML; } } catch(e) { alert (e);} alert('done'); } Of course, this is test code, which is why I have the alerts and 2 things trying at the same time. The first alert returns "0" the second [Object NodeList] and the third returns "done". My html body looks like this: <body onload="removehyperlinks()"> <ol style="text-align:left;" class="messagelist"> <li class="accesscode"><a href="#">General information, Updates, &amp; Meetings<span class="extnumber">141133#</span></a> <ol> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="77"><a href="#"">...</a></li> <li start="88"><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="99"><a href="#">...</a></li> </ol> </li> </ol> </body>

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  • jquery ie6 issue swaping videos through hide/show while playing.

    - by user217181
    So my code is: Click the link show the div. I'm using the jquery flash embed object. $(document).ready( function() { $('a.overview').click( function() { $('#overview').show(); // show div.contact $('#evaulting').hide(); // hide div.contact $('#his').hide(); // hide div.contact }); }); $(document).ready( function() { $('a.evaulting').click( function() { $('#evaulting').show(); // show div.contact $('#overview').hide(); // hide div.contact $('#his').hide(); // hide div.contact }); }); <div id="overview" style="display:none"> <ul> <li rel="play-norelated.swf:680:480:true:ffffff" class="flash-replaced"> <embed width="680" height="480" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="play-norelated.swf" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" flashvars="playVideo=ent_web_480x" bgcolor="ffffff" /> <div class="alt"><h1>To Play Iron Mountain Videos - You will need to upgrade your Flash Player</h1> <p><a href="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"><img src="http://www.adobe.com/images/shared/download_buttons/get_flash_player.gif" alt="Get Adobe Flash player" /></a></p></div> </li> </ul> </div> <div id="evaulting" style="display:none"> <ul> <li rel="play-norelated.swf:680:480:true:ffffff" class="flash-replaced"> <embed width="680" height="480" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="play-norelated.swf" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" flashvars="playVideo=evaulting_web_480x" bgcolor="ffffff" /> <div class="alt"><h1>To Play Iron Mountain Video's - You will need to upgrade your Flash Player</h1> <p><a href="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"><img src="http://www.adobe.com/images/shared/download_buttons/get_flash_player.gif" alt="Get Adobe Flash player" /></a></p></div> </li> </ul> </div> When I repeat this code and get the second video to load on click. It works in all browsers. The only issue I'm running into is that in IE6 the video keeps playing and in other browsers it stops the video your watching and loads the one you clicked on. I looked into using the .remove object or the .append to a div, but I can't seem to get that to work and if it does work will it play nice with IE6. Try it out and maybe solve my issues.

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  • Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • Need a fast programming language that can drive two printers

    - by Pete
    I have a rather unusual application that isn't working the way I need, and I hope someone here will have some suggestions or at least a direction to investigate. We have a museum exhibit that has a computer at the entrance driving two small receipt printers. There are two buttons on a console, wired to the left and right buttons of a disemboweled mouse. The two printers and associated buttons are for girls and boys, each button does a random selection from a database of names and prints a small ticket on the appropriate printer with a graphic image, a few words about the exhibit and the randomly chosen name. Conceptually all is well, but it hangs quite often. I got the project at the last minute, because the original designer got bogged down and couldn't deliver, so the exhibit's author asked me the day before opening, whether I could write something that would work. I did it in Word, since I am an experienced VBA programmer. Several other avenues I attempted first all lead to dead ends - one couldn't do graphics, another couldn't handle two printers, yet another couldn't change fonts and so on. The problem is that it simply isn't fast enough - Word can only drive one printer at a time and changing the active printer takes a long time. Not by office standards, where a second or two of delay before a printer starts working on your document is not an issue, but here I need more or less instant response. If kids press a button and nothing happens, they press it over and over until something does happen, resulting in maybe half a dozen commands being sent before the printer starts reacting. Sometimes it jams the program completely, since boys and girls will be pressing the two buttons simultaneously and Word locks up, and even when it doesn't jam, the printers then spit out a stream of tickets, making a mess. The kids start squabbling over which ticket is whose, pulling them out of the printers, snarling the paper tape, jamming the printer and generally making a mess of the whole affair, often necessitating the exhibit caretakers having to restart the computer and clear torn bits of paper out the printers. What I need is some sort of fast programming language that can drive two printers *-simultaneously-*, not the MSOffice claptrap of having to switch the active printer, that can react to both left and right mouse button click events, can print a small graphic image and can print in different font sizes and styles and. I don't need many, but it's not all in one typeface. Can anyone suggest what I might use for this? I don't even know if it's possible at all under Windows, whether the "single active printer" garbage is an Office artifact, or a Windows restriction. My little Commodore-64 twenty-five years ago had two printers attached to it and drove both simultaneously with no difficulties - it doesn't seem to me it should be such an impossible requirement today.

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  • How to keep a local value from being set when a binding fails (so inherited values will propagate)

    - by redoced
    Consider the following scenario: I want to bind the TextElement.FontWeight property to an xml attribute. The xml looks somewhat like this and has arbitrary depth. <text font-weight="bold"> bold text here <inlinetext>more bold text</inlinetext> even more bold text </text> I use hierarchical templating to display the text, no problem there, but having a Setter in the template style like: <Setter Property="TextElement.FontWeight" Value="{Binding XPath=@font-weight}"/> sets the fontweight correctly on the first level, but overwrites the second level with null (as the binding can't find the xpath) which reverts to Fontweight normal. I tried all sorts of things here but nothing quite seems to work. e.g. i used a converter to return UnsetValue, which didn't work. I'm currently trying with: <Setter Property="custom:AttributeInserter.Wrapper" Value="{custom:AttributeInserter Property=TextElement.FontWeight, Binding={Binding XPath=@font-weight}}"/> Codebehind: public static class AttributeInserter { public static AttributeInserterExtension GetWrapper(DependencyObject obj) { return (AttributeInserterExtension)obj.GetValue(WrapperProperty); } public static void SetWrapper(DependencyObject obj, AttributeInserterExtension value) { obj.SetValue(WrapperProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Wrapper. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty WrapperProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Wrapper", typeof(AttributeInserterExtension), typeof(AttributeInserter), new UIPropertyMetadata(pcc)); static void pcc(DependencyObject o,DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var n=e.NewValue as AttributeInserterExtension; var c = o as FrameworkElement; if (n == null || c==null || n.Property==null || n.Binding==null) return; var bex = c.SetBinding(n.Property, n.Binding); bex.UpdateTarget(); if (bex.Status == BindingStatus.UpdateTargetError) c.ClearValue(n.Property); } } public class AttributeInserterExtension : MarkupExtension { public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { return this; } public DependencyProperty Property { get; set; } public Binding Binding { get; set; } } which kinda works, but can't track changes of the property Any ideas? Any links? thx for the help

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  • Android pluginable application

    - by Alxandr
    I've been trying to create an android-application the last couple of weeks, and mostly everything has worked out great, but there is one thing that I was wondering about, and that is pluginability trough the use of intents. What I'm trying to create is basically a comic-reader. As of the version I use now, I open the application and get a list of commics that are my favourites, then I enter one to get a detailed view, and finally I enter a page. This is managed trough 3 activities. List, Details and Page. However, as of now the application can only read comics of one source (a specialiced xml-feed comming from my server), and I was hoping to be able to expand this a litle (also, the page-activity and some other stuff needs to be cleaned up in, so I'm thinking about remaking from scratch, and just take the first go as a learning-round). And I came up with an idea which I think sounds great, but I don't know if it's possible, but this is what I'm thinking about: The user enters the application and get an (first time empty) list of comics. The user hits a button to find comics, this launces an intent that says something like "find comic" or something like that. This should cause the system to display all matching activities. This would make it possible to provide different comic-providers trough different applications. Another activity kicks in and might displays some options to the user (for instance a file-browser), or might not (in the example of an xml-feed, which should just load). The list is returned to the first activity and displayed to the user. The second (find) activity is closed. The user picks a comic from the list. This should open some details-activity. The details-activity should receive a key which corresponds to the comic selected. This should be unique amongst the comic-providers. The details-view should get it's data trough some cind of content-provider, or an activity (whichever is most suited, if one of them is). The user can select a page. This should be the same routine as step 5. My question is, is this possible in the android system, and if it is, is it a bad idea? And also, is there any better way to achieve more or less the same thing?

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  • Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

    - by rhtx
    I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • How to measure a canvas that has auto height and width

    - by Wymmeroo
    Hi Folks, I'm a beginner in silverlight so i hope i can get an answer that brings me some more light in the measure process of silverlight. I found an interessting flap out control from silverlight slide control and now I try to use it in my project. So that the slide out is working proper, I have to place the user control on a canvas. The user control then uses for itself the height of its content. I just wanna change that behavior so that the height is set to the available space from the parent canvas. You see the uxBorder where the height is set. How can I measure the actual height and set it to the border? I tried it with Height={Binding ElementName=notificationCanvas, Path=ActualHeight} but this dependency property has no callback, so the actualHeight is never set. What I want to achieve is a usercontrol like the tweetboard per example on Jesse Liberty's blog Sorry for my English writing, I hope you understand my question. <Canvas x:Name="notificationCanvas" Background="Red"> <SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl GripWidth="20" GripTitle="Task" GripHeight="100"> <Border x:Name="uxBorder" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" BorderBrush="DarkGray" Background="DarkGray" Padding="5" Width="300" Height="700" > <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="Tasks"></TextBlock> <Button x:Name="btn1" Margin="5" Content="{Binding ElementName=MainBorder, Path=Height}"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn2" Margin="5" Content="Second Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn3" Margin="5" Content="Third Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy1" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy2" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy3" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy4" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy5" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy6" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl>

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • How to perform add/update of a model object that contains EntitySet

    - by David Liddle
    I have a similar concept to the SO questions/tags scenario however am trying to decide the best way of implementation. Tables Questions, QuestionTags and Tags Questions QuestionTags Tags --------- ------------ ---- QID QID TID QName TID TName When adding/updating a question I have 2 textboxes. The important part is a single textbox that allows users to enter in multiple Tags separated by spaces. I am using Linq2Sql so the Questions model has an EntitySet of QuestionTags with then link to Tags. My question is regarding the adding/updating of Questions (part 1), and also how to best show QuestionTags for a Question (part 2). Part 1 Before performing an add/update, my service layer needs to deal with 3 scenarios before passing to their respective repositories. Insert Tags that do not already exist Insert/Update Question Insert QuestionTags - when updating need to remove existing QuestionTags Here is my code below however started to get into a bit of a muddle. I've created extension methods on my repositories to get Tags WithNames etc. public void Add(Question q, string tags) { var tagList = tags.Split(new string[] { " " }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries).ToList(); using (DB.TransactionScope ts = new DB.TransactionScope()) { var existingTags = TagsRepository.Get() .WithName(tagList) .ToList(); var newTags = (from t in tagList select new Tag { TName = t }).Except(existingTags, new TagsComparer()).ToList(); TagsRepository.Add(newTags); //need to insert QuestionTags QuestionsRepository.Add(q); ts.Complete(); } } Part 2 My second question is, when displaying a list of Questions how is it best to show their QuestionTags? For example, I have an Index view that shows a list of Questions in a table. One of the columns shows an image and when the user hovers over it shows the list of Tags. My current implementation is to create a custom ViewModel and show a List of QuestionIndexViewModel in the View. QuestionIndexViewModel { Question Question { get; set; } string Tags { get; set; } } However, this seems a bit clumsy and quite a few DB calls. public ViewResult Index() { var model= new List<QuestionIndexViewModel>(); //make a call to get a list of questions //foreach question make a call to get their QuestionTags, //to be able to get their Tag names and then join them //to form a single string. return View(model); } Also, just for test purposes using SQL Profiler, I decided to iterate through the QuestionTags entity set of a Question in my ViewModel however nothing was picked up in Profiler? What would be the reason for this?

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  • problem with Using SAX parser

    - by moustafa
    Hi guys i have this small class task that im having trouble with. I need to create a PHP file using SAX to generate the display shown below from an XML file. Im not sure how to Use | to represent its level, where the root element orders is at level zero. This is what the result should look like when i parse it through a SAX parser http://img13.imageshack.us/img13/6950/75914446.jpg This is the XML source code from which i need to generate the display: <orders> <order> <count>37</count> <price>49.99</price> <book> <isbn>0130897930</isbn> <title>Core Web Programming Second Edition</title> <authors> <count>2</count> <author>Marty Hall</author> <author>Larry Brown</author> </authors> </book> </order> <order> <count>1</count> <price>9.95</price> <yacht> <manufacturer>Luxury Yachts, Inc.</manufacturer> <model>M-1</model> <standardFeatures oars="plastic" lifeVests="none">false</standardFeatures> </yacht> </order> <order> <count>3</count> <price>22.22</price> <book> <isbn>B000059Z4H</isbn> <title>Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix</title> <authors> <count>1</count> <author>J.K. Rowling</author> </authors> </book> </order>

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  • Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

    - by Matt
    I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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  • jQuery: modify href attribute for first level list only

    - by bloggerious
    I'm a noob in jQuery and have stuck at this. I have the following HTML code output from a PHP page: <ul class="cats"> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yet1">Lifestyle</a></span></li> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yet2">Entertainment</a></span></li> <li class="has_child"> <span><a href="cant_post_link_yet3">Technology</a></span> <ul class="subcats"> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yet4">Gadgets</a></span></li> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yet5">Hardware</a></span></li> </ul> </li> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yetsports">Sports</a></span></li> <li class="has_child"> <span><a href="cant_post_link_yet6">Design</a></span> <ul class="subcats"> <li class="has_child"> <span><a href="cant_post_link_yet7">Web Design</a></span> <ul class="subcat"> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yet8">Adobe Photoshop</a></span></li> </ul> </li> <li><span><a href="cant_post_link_yet9">Graphics and Print</a></span></li> </ul> </li> What's the correct jQuery code so that I can modify the href attribute for the first-level list only? Basically, I want to change the href of Technology and Design to be "#" but will not change the href of Web Design which is already on second-level list. More Info: In the code above, if list has subcategories, then it has the class has_child, whether it's on first-level or not. So I want only the first-level list which has class has_child to be modified the href to "#" I can't alter output anymore because it's in the PHP code. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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  • How can I improve the recursion capabilities of my ECMAScript implementation?

    - by ChaosPandion
    After some resent tests I have found my implementation cannot handle very much recursion. Although after I ran a few tests in Firefox I found that this may be more common than I originally thought. I believe the basic problem is that my implementation requires 3 calls to make a function call. The first call is made to a method named Call that makes sure the call is being made to a callable object and gets the value of any arguments that are references. The second call is made to a method named Call which is defined in the ICallable interface. This method creates the new execution context and builds the lambda expression if it has not been created. The final call is made to the lambda that the function object encapsulates. Clearly making a function call is quite heavy but I am sure that with a little bit of tweaking I can make recursion a viable tool when using this implementation. public static object Call(ExecutionContext context, object value, object[] args) { var func = Reference.GetValue(value) as ICallable; if (func == null) { throw new TypeException(); } if (args != null && args.Length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = Reference.GetValue(args[i]); } } var reference = value as Reference; if (reference != null) { if (reference.IsProperty) { return func.Call(reference.Value, args); } else { return func.Call(((EnviromentRecord)reference.Value).ImplicitThisValue(), args); } } return func.Call(Undefined.Value, args); } public object Call(object thisObject, object[] arguments) { var lexicalEnviroment = Scope.NewDeclarativeEnviroment(); var variableEnviroment = Scope.NewDeclarativeEnviroment(); var thisBinding = thisObject ?? Engine.GlobalEnviroment.GlobalObject; var newContext = new ExecutionContext(Engine, lexicalEnviroment, variableEnviroment, thisBinding); Engine.EnterContext(newContext); var result = Function.Value(newContext, arguments); Engine.LeaveContext(); return result; }

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  • Poor performance / speed of regex with lookahead

    - by Hugo Zaragoza
    I have been observing extremely slow execution times with expressions with several lookaheads. I suppose that this is due to underlying data structures, but it seems pretty extreme and I wonder if I do something wrong or if there are known work-arounds. The problem is determining if a set of words are present in a string, in any order. For example we want to find out if two terms "term1" AND "term2" are somewhere in a string. I do this with the expresion: (?=.*\bterm1\b)(?=.*\bterm2\b) But what I observe is that this is an order of magnitude slower than checking first just \bterm1\b and just then \bterm2\b This seems to indicate that I should use an array of patterns instead of a single pattern with lookaheads... is this right? it seems wrong... Here is an example test code and resulting times: public static void speedLookAhead() { Matcher m, m1, m2; boolean find; int its = 1000000; // create long non-matching string char[] str = new char[2000]; for (int i = 0; i < str.length; i++) { str[i] = 'x'; } String test = str.toString(); // First method: use one expression with lookaheads m = Pattern.compile("(?=.*\\bterm1\\b)(?=.*\\bterm2\\b)").matcher(test); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); ; for (int i = 0; i < its; i++) { m.reset(test); find = m.find(); } time = System.currentTimeMillis() - time; System.out.println(time); // Second method: use two expressions and AND the results m1 = Pattern.compile("\\bterm1\\b").matcher(test); m2 = Pattern.compile("\\bterm2\\b").matcher(test); time = System.currentTimeMillis(); ; for (int i = 0; i < its; i++) { m1.reset(test); m2.reset(test); find = m1.find() && m2.find(); } time = System.currentTimeMillis() - time; System.out.println(time); } This outputs in my computer: 1754 150

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  • Basic Custom String Class for C++

    - by wdow88
    Hey all, I'm working on building my own string class with very basic functionality. I am having difficulty understand what is going on with the basic class that I have define, and believe there is some sort of error dealing with the scope occurring. When I try to view the objects I created, all the fields are described as (obviously bad pointer). Also, if I make the data fields public or build an accessor method, the program crashes. For some reason the pointer for the object is 0xccccccccc which points to no where. How can a I fix this? Any help/comments are much appreciated. //This is a custom string class, so far the only functions are //constructing and appending #include<iostream> using namespace std; class MyString1 { public: MyString1() { //no arg constructor char *string; string = new char[0]; string[0] ='\0'; std::cout << string; size = 1; } //constructor receives pointer to character array MyString1(char* chars) { int index = 0; //Determine the length of the array while (chars[index] != NULL) index++; //Allocate dynamic memory on the heap char *string; string = new char[index+1]; //Copy the contents of the array pointed by chars into string, the char array of the object for (int ii = 0; ii < index; ii++) string[ii] = chars[ii]; string[index+1] = '\0'; size = index+1; } MyString1 append(MyString1 s) { //determine new size of the appended array and allocate memory int newsize = s.size + size; MyString1 MyString2; char *newstring; newstring = new char[newsize+1]; int index = 0; //load the first string into the array while (string[index] != NULL) { newstring[index] = string[index]; index++; } //load the second string while (s.string[index] != NULL) { newstring[index] = s.string[index]; index++; } //null terminate newstring[newsize+1] = '\0'; delete string; //generate the object for return MyString2.string=newstring; MyString2.size=newsize; return MyString2; } private: char *string; int size; }; int main() { MyString1 string1; MyString1 string2("Hello There"); MyString1 string3("Buddy"); string2.append(string3); return 0; }

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  • Grid sorting with persistent master sort

    - by MikeWyatt
    I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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  • What (tf) are the secrets behind PDF memory allocation (CGPDFDocumentRef)

    - by Kai
    For a PDF reader I want to prepare a document by taking 'screenshots' of each page and save them to disc. First approach is CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc [pool drain]; } CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); This results in a lot of memory which seems not to be released after the first run of the loop (preparing the 1st document), but no more unreleased memory in additional runs: MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 25 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 25 MB .... Changing the code to for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); [pool drain]; } changes the memory usage to MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 7 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 7 MB .... but is obviously a step backwards in performance. When I start reading a PDF (later in time, different thread) in the first case no more memory is allocated (staying at 25 MB), while in the second case memory goes up to 20 MB (from 7). In both cases, when I remove the CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); line memory is (nearly) constant at 6 MB during and after all preparations of documents. Can anybody explain whats going on there?

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