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  • Different approaches for finding users within Active Directory

    - by EvilDr
    I'm a newbie to AD programming, but after a couple of weeks of research have found the following three ways to search for users in Active Directory using the account name as the search parameter: Option 1 - FindByIdentity Dim ctx As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim u As UserPrincipal = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(ctx, IdentityType.SamAccountName, "MYDOMAIN\Administrator") If u Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn("Name=" & u.Name) Trace.Warn("DisplayName=" & u.DisplayName) Trace.Warn("DistinguishedName=" & u.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn("EmployeeId=" & u.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn("EmailAddress=" & u.EmailAddress) End If Option 2 - DirectorySearcher Dim connPath As String = "LDAP://" & Environment.MachineName Dim de As New DirectoryEntry(connPath) Dim ds As New DirectorySearcher(de) ds.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(anr={0}))", Split(User.Identity.Name, "\")(1)) ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("name") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("displayName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("distinguishedName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("employeeId") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail") Dim src As SearchResult = ds.FindOne() If src Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else For Each propertyKey As String In src.Properties.PropertyNames Dim valueCollection As ResultPropertyValueCollection = src.Properties(propertyKey) For Each propertyValue As Object In valueCollection Trace.Warn(propertyKey & "=" & propertyValue.ToString) Next Next End If Option 3 - PrincipalSearcher Dim ctx2 As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim sp As New UserPrincipal(ctx2) sp.SamAccountName = "MYDOMAIN\Administrator" Dim s As New PrincipalSearcher s.QueryFilter = sp Dim p2 As UserPrincipal = s.FindOne() If p2 Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn(p2.Name) Trace.Warn(p2.DisplayName) Trace.Warn(p2.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn(p2.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn(p2.EmailAddress) End If All three of these methods return the same results, but I was wondering if any particular method is better or worse than the others? Option 1 or 3 seem to be the best as they provide strongly-typed property names, but I might be wrong? My overall objective is to find a single user within AD based on the user principal value passed via the web browser when using Windows Authentication on a site (e.g. "MYDOMAIN\MyUserAccountName")

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  • http post request with cross-origin in javascript

    - by Calamarico
    i have a problem with a http post call in firefox. I know that when there are a cross origin, firefox first do a OPTIONS before the POST to know the access-control-allow headers. With this code i dont have any problem: Net.requestSpeech.prototype.post = function(url, data) { if(this.xhr != null) { this.xhr.open("POST", url); this.xhr.onreadystatechange = Net.requestSpeech.eventFunction; this.xhr.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/json; charset=utf-8"); this.xhr.send(data); } } I test this code with a simple html that invokes this function. Everything is ok and i have the response of the OPTIONS and POST, and i process the response. But, i'm trying to integrate this code with an existen application with uses jquery (i dont know if this is a problem), when the send(data) executes in this case, the browser (firefox) do the same, first do a OPTION request, but in this case dont receive the response of the server and puts this message in console: [18:48:13.529] OPTIONS http://localhost:8111/ [undefined 31ms] Undefined... the undefined is because dont receive the response, but the code is the same, i dont know why in this case the option dont receive the response, someone have an idea? i debug my server app and the OPTIONS arrive ok to the server, but it seems like the browser dont wait to the response. edit more later: ok i think that the problem is when i run with a simple html with a SCRIPT tag that invokes the method who do the request run ok, but in this app that dont receive the response, i have a form that do a onsubmit event, i think that the submit event returns very fast and the browser dont have time to get the OPTIONS request. edit more later later: WTF, i resolve the problem make the POST request to sync: this.xhr.open("POST", url, false); The submit reponse very quickly and can't wait to the OPTION response of the browser, any idea to this?

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  • @selector and return value

    - by user320926
    The idea it's very easy, i have an http download class, this class must support the http authentication but it's basically a background thread so i would like to avoid to prompt directly to the screen, i would like to use a delegate method to require from outside of the class, like a viewController. But i don't know if is possible or if i have to use a different syntax. This class use this delegate protocol: //Updater.h @protocol Updater <NSObject> -(NSDictionary *)authRequired; @optional -(void)statusUpdate:(NSString *)newStatus; -(void)downloadProgress:(int)percentage; @end @interface Updater : NSThread { ... } This is the call to the delegate method: //Updater.m // This check always fails :( if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(authRequired:)]) { auth = [delegate authRequired]; } This is the implementation of the delegate method //rootViewController.m -(NSDictionary *)authRequired; { // TODO: some kind of popup or modal view NSMutableDictionary *ret=[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [ret setObject:@"utente" forKey:@"user"]; [ret setObject:@"password" forKey:@"pass"]; return ret; }

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  • UIAlertView Will not show

    - by John
    I have a program that is requesting a JSON string. I have created a class that contains the connect method below. When the root view is coming up, it does a request to this class and method to load up some data for the root view. When I test the error code (by changing the URL host to 127.0.0.1), I expect the Alert to show. Behavior is that the root view just goes black, and the app aborts with no alert. No errors in debug mode on the console, either. Any thoughts as to this behavior? I've been looking around for hints to this for hours to no avail. Thanks in advance for your help. Note: the conditional for (error) is called, as well as the UIAlertView code. - (NSString *)connect:(NSString *)urlString { NSString *jsonString; UIApplication *app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; NSError *error = nil; NSURLResponse *response = nil; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *req = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSData *_response = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest: req returningResponse: &response error: &error]; if (error) { /* inform the user that the connection failed */ //AlertWithMessage(@"Connection Failed!", message); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Oopsie!" message:@"Unable to connect! Try later, thanks." delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } else { jsonString = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:_response encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; [url release]; return jsonString; }

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  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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  • Windows Phone - failing to get a string from a website with login information

    - by jumantyn
    I am new to accessing web services with Windows Phone 7/8. I'm using a WebClient to get a string from a php-website. The site returns a JSON string but at the moment I'm just trying to put it into a TextBox as a normal string just to test if the connection works. The php-page requires an authentication and I think that's where my code is failing. Here's my code: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUsername", "myPassword"); client.DownloadStringCompleted += new DownloadStringCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadStringCompleted); client.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri("https://www.mywebsite.com/ba/php/jsonstuff.php")); void client_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { try { string data = e.Result; this.jsonText.Text = data; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } This returns first a WebException and then a TargetInvocationException. If I replace the Uri with for example "http://www.google.com/index.html" the jsonText TextBox gets filled with html text from Google (oddly enough, this also works even when the WebClient credentials are still set). So is the problem in the setting of the credentials? I couldn't find any good results when searching for guides on how to access php-pages with credentials, only without them. Then I found a short mention somewhere to use the WebClient.Credentials property. But should it work some other way? Update: here's what I can get out of the WebException (sorry for the bad formatting): System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. ---System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClasse.b_d(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass1.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.WebClient.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request, IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.WebClient.DownloadBitsResponseCallback(IAsyncResult result)

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  • Protecting sensitive entity data

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

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  • Ideal HTTP cache control headers for different types of resources

    - by chris_l
    I want to find a minimal set of headers, that work with "all" caches and browsers (also when using HTTPS!) On my (GWT-based) web site, I'll have three kinds of resources: 1. Forever cacheable (public / equal for all users) These files don't ever change, and they get a filename based on the MD5 of their contents (this is GWT's approach). They should get cached as much as possible, even when using HTTPS (so I assume, I should set Cache-Control: public, especially for Firefox?) 2. Changing for every new version of the site (public / equal for all users) These files can be cached, but probably need to be revalidated every time. 3. Individual for each request (private / user specific) These resources (e. g. JSON responses) should never be cached unencrypted to disk under no circumstances. (Maybe I'll have a few specific requests that could be cached.) I have a general idea on which headers I would probably use for each type, but there's always something I could be missing.

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  • how to validate the dropdownlist box values on submit

    - by kumar
    Hello friends, I have validate_excpt on Form Before Submit I am doing this.. on the View I have two dropdown listboxes I am using On Submit I need to check.. If I selet ResolutionCode I need to validat ReasonCode Dropdownlist that It should select if not Pelase select ReasonCode I should Dispaly? Do I need to do this on Submit ButtonClick? or Can I do it on Validate_excpt? Can anybody help me out? <label for="ResolutionCode"> Resolution: <span> <%=Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ResolutionCode, new SelectList(Model.LookupCodes["C_EXCPT_RESL"], "Key", "Value"))%> </span> </label> <label for="ReasonCode"> Reason: <span><%=Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ReasonCode, new SelectList(Model.LookupCodes["C_EXCPT_RSN"], "Key", "Value"))%></span> </label> function validate_excpt(formData, jqForm, options) { var form = jqForm[0]; return true; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { if (responseText[0].substring(0, 16) != "System.Exception") { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update successful.</strong>'); } else { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update failed.</strong> ' + responseText[0].substring(0, 48)); } $('#error-msg-ID').removeClass('hide'); } $('#exc-').ajaxForm({ target: '#error-msg-ID', beforeSubmit: validate_excpt, success: showResponse, dataType: 'json' });

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  • Need Help with .NET OpenId HttpHandler

    - by Mark E
    I'm trying to use a single HTTPHandler to authenticate a user's open id and receive a claimresponse. The initial authentication works, but the claimresponse does not. The error I receive is "This webpage has a redirect loop." What am I doing wrong? public class OpenIdLogin : IHttpHandler { private HttpContext _context = null; public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { _context = context; var openid = new OpenIdRelyingParty(); var response = openid.GetResponse(); if (response == null) { // Stage 2: user submitting Identifier openid.CreateRequest(context.Request.Form["openid_identifier"]).RedirectToProvider(); } else { // Stage 3: OpenID Provider sending assertion response switch (response.Status) { case AuthenticationStatus.Authenticated: //FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(response.ClaimedIdentifier, false); string identifier = response.ClaimedIdentifier; //****** TODO only proceed if we don't have the user's extended info in the database ************** ClaimsResponse claim = response.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claim == null) { //IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(identifier); IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(Identifier.Parse(identifier)); var fields = new ClaimsRequest(); fields.Email = DemandLevel.Request; req.AddExtension(fields); req.RedirectingResponse.Send(); //Is this correct? } else { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write(claim.Email); //claim.FullName; } break; case AuthenticationStatus.Canceled: //TODO break; case AuthenticationStatus.Failed: //TODO break; } } }

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  • Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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  • Do I need to Salt and Hash a randomly generated token?

    - by wag2639
    I'm using Adam Griffiths's Authentication Library for CodeIgniter and I'm tweaking the usermodel. I came across a generate function that he uses to generate tokens. His preferred approach is to reference a value from random.org but I considered that superfluous. I'm using his fall back approach of randomly generating a 20 character long string: $length = 20; $characters = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ'; $token = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $length; $i++) { $token .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } He then hashes this token using a salt (I'm combing code from different functions) sha1($this->CI->config->item('encryption_key').$str); I was wondering if theres any reason to to run the token through the salted hash? I've read that simply randomly generating strings was a naive way of making random passwords but is the sh1 hash and salt necessary? Note: I got my encryption_key from https://www.grc.com/passwords.htm (63 random alpha-numeric)

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  • jQuery UI Autocomplete and CodeIgniter

    - by Kere Puki
    I am trying to implement a simple autocomplete script using jQuery UI and CodeIgniter 2 but my model keeps telling me there is an undefined variable so I dont know if my setup is right. My view $(function() { $("#txtUserSuburb").autocomplete({ source: function(request, response){ $.ajax({ url: "autocomplete/suggestions", data: { term: $("#txtUserSuburb").val() }, dataType: "json", type: "POST", success: function(data){ response(data); } }); }, minLength: 2 }); }); My controller function suggestions(){ $this->load->model('autocomplete_model'); $term = $this->input->post('term', TRUE); $rows = $this->autocomplete_model->getAutocomplete($term); echo json_encode($rows); } My Model function getAutocomplete() { $this->db->like('postcode', $term, 'after'); $query = $this->db->get('tbl_postcode'); $keywords = array(); foreach($query->result() as $row){ array_push($keywords, $row->postcode); } return $keywords; } There arent any errors except it doesn't seem to be passing the $term variable to the model.

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  • C# Interface Method calls from a controller

    - by ArjaaAine
    I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

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  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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  • Editting CSS in iframe that sets Select tag's text color to black?

    - by Corey Ogburn
    This is a very specific question for a Google Chrome extension. http://www.meebo.com/mobile/ This page is where you're kicked to when you go to Meebo.com on an iPhone or Droid phone. But if you notice, the Status box where you can set yourself away or what you want your status to be has white text on a white background. In order to get a website to appear in a Google Chrome extension's popup window (the one that drops down when you click the icon next to the address bar) that isn't an included html file in the extension, I need to use an iFrame. I know that there's security measures about Cross-Site stuff like javascript and I'm not surprised I'm having trouble accessing the CSS. But there's a class, status, and it's color is white and I need to change that to black. I've tested it with Chrome's Inspect Element window and if I change that, I'll be fine. I've tried changing the manifest.json file to inject a CSS file using Content-Scripts, but nothing... I'm new to Chrome Extensions but I have experience doing web development.

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  • integrating jquery with AJAX using MVC for ddl/html.dropdownlist

    - by needhelp
    the situation: a user on the page in question selects a category from a dropdown which then dynamically populates all the users of that category in a second dropdown beside it. all the data is being retrieved using LinqtoSQL and i was wondering if this can be done a) using html.dropdownlist in a strongly typed view? b) using jquery to trigger the ajax request on selected index change instead of a 'populate' button trigger? sorry i dont have code as what i was trying really wasnt working at all. I am having trouble with how to do it conceptually and programatically! will appreciate any links to examples etc greatly! thanks in advance! EDIT: this is kind of what i was trying to achieve.. first the ViewPage: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready function TypeSearch() { $.getJSON("/Home/Type", null, function(data) { //dont know what to do here }); } </script> <p> <label for="userType">userType:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("userType") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("userType", "*") %> <input type="submit" runat="server" onclick="TypeSearch()" /> <label for="accountNumber">accountNumber:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("accountNumber") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("accountNumber", "*") %> </p> Then home controller action: public ActionResult Type() { string accountType = dropdownvalue; List<Account> accounts = userRep.GetAccountsByType(accountType).ToList(); return Json(accounts); }

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  • chrome extension: get specific part of the current tab page in DOM object and display it in either popup.html or new html page?

    - by sandeep
    IS there any way so that i can convert any DOM object into HTML page within the script ? suppose I have dom object like this: content script.js chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { if (request.method == "fromPopup") { console.log("got Request from Popup"); var myDivObj = document.getElementById("definition"); //sendResponse({data: "from Content Script to Popup"}); if ( myDivObj ) { sendResponse({data:myDivObj}); } else{ sendResponse({data:"Empty or No Tag"}); } console.log("sent Response1"); } else { sendResponse({}); // snub them. console.log("sent Response2"); } }); here is my popup.html <body> <Div>Searching..</Div> <Div id="output">Response??</Div> <script> console.log("Pop UP Clicked"); chrome.tabs.getSelected(null, function(tab) { chrome.tabs.sendRequest(tab.id, {method: "fromPopup", tabid: tab.id}, function(response) { console.log("got Response from Content Script"); document.getElementById("output").innerHTML=response.data; }); }); </script> </body> I know we can send onaly JSON type of data to the popup.html page.. am i right ? If yes is ther any way that I can creat HTML page with DOM Object( myDivObj ) which I collected.. Any alternative solution..? In short i want get only specific part of the current tab page in DOM object and display it in either popup.html or separate html page..

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  • Perl 500 internal server error. Something wrong with my code.

    - by Nitish
    I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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  • Rails: RESTful Find, Initialize, or Create

    - by Andrew
    I have an app that has Cities in it. I'm looking for some suggestions on how to RESTfully structure a controller so that I can lookup, initialize, and create city records via AJAX requests. For instance: Given a text field city_name A user enters the name of a City, like "Paris, France" The app checks this location to see if there is such a city in the database already If there is, it returns the city object If there is not, it returns a new record initialized with the name "Paris" and the country "France", and prompts the user to confirm they want to add this city to the database If the user says "Yes" the record is saved. If not the record is discarded and the form is cleared. Now, my first approach was to change the Create action to use find_or_create, so that an AJAX post to cities_path would result in either returning the existing city or creating it and returning it. That works ok... However, it would be better to setup controller actions that would take a string input, find , or else initialize and return, then only create if the user confirms the generated record is correct. The ideal scenario would put this all in one action so AJAX request can go to that url, the server responds with JSON objects, and javascript can handle things from there. I'd like to keep all the user-interaction logic client side, and also minimize the number of requests it takes to achieve this. Any suggestions on the cleanest, most RESTful way to accomplish this?

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  • checking mongo database for data

    - by user1647484
    I'm playing around with this tutorial that uses Sinatra, backbone.js, and mongodb for the database. It's my first time using mongo. As far as I understand it the app uses both local storage and a database. it has these routes for the database. For example, it has these routes get '/api/:thing' do DB.collection(params[:thing]).find.to_a.map{|t| from_bson_id(t)}.to_json end get '/api/:thing/:id' do from_bson_id(DB.collection(params[:thing]).find_one(to_bson_id(params[:id]))).to_json end post '/api/:thing' do oid = DB.collection(params[:thing]).insert(JSON.parse(request.body.read.to_s)) "{\"_id\": \"#{oid.to_s}\"}" end After turning the server off and then on, I could see in the server getting data from the database routes 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Sep/2012 08:21:58] "GET /api/todos HTTP/1.1" 200 430 0.0033 My question is, how can I check from within the mongo shell whether the data's in the database? I started the mongo shell ./bin/mongo I selected the database 'use mydb' and then looking at the docs (http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Tutorial) I tried commands such as > var cursor = db.things.find(); > while (cursor.hasNext()) printjson(cursor.next()); but they didn't return anything.

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  • How should I handle expected errors? eg. "username already exists"

    - by Pheter
    I am struggling to understand how I should design the error handling parts of my code. I recently asked a similar question about how I should go about returning server error codes to the user, eg. 404 errors. I learnt that I should handle the error from within the current part of the application; seem's simple enough. However, what should I do when I can't handle the error from the current link in the chain? For example, I may have a class that is used to manage authentication. One of it's methods could be createUser($username, $password). Within that function, I need to determine if the username already exists. If this is true, how should I alert the calling code about this? Returning null instead of a user object is one way. But how do I then know what caused the error? How should I handle errors in such a way that calling code can easily find out what caused the error? Is there a design pattern commonly used for this kind of situation?

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  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

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  • How might a C# programmer approach writing a solution in javascript?

    - by Ben McCormack
    UPDATE: Perhaps this wasn't clear from my original post, but I'm mainly interested in knowing a best practice for how to structure javascript code while building a solution, not simply learning how to use APIs (though that is certainly important). I need to add functionality to a web site and our team has decided to approach the solution using a web service that receives a call from a JSON-formatted AJAX request from within the web site. The web service has been created and works great. Now I have been tasked with writing the javascript/html side of the solution. If I were solving this problem in C#, I would create separate classes for formatting the request, handling the AJAX request/response, parsing the response, and finally inserting the response somehow into the DOM. I would build properties and methods appropriately into each class, doing my best to separate functionality and structure where appropriate. However, I have to solve this problem in javascript. Firstly, how could I approach my solution in javascript in the way I would approach it from C# as described above? Or more importantly, what's a better way to approach structuring code in javascript? Any advice or links to helpful material on the web would be greatly appreciated. NOTE: Though perhaps not immediately relevant to this question, it may be worth noting that we will be using jQuery in our solution.

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  • Javascript Computed Values With Arrays

    - by user983969
    Jquery Each Json Values Issue This question is similar to above, but not the same before it gets marked duplicated. After realasing how to use computed values i came across another issue. In my javascript i have the following code: var incidentWizard = ['page1.html','page2.html','page3.html']; var magicWizard = ['page1.html','page2.html','page3.html']; var loadedURL = 'page1.html'; The input to this function would be (true,'incident') function(next,wizardname) { var WizSize = incidentWizard.length; wizardName = [wizardName] + 'Wizard'; var wizardPOS = jQuery.inArray(loadedURL,incidentWizard); And now i want to use the wizardname parameter to decide what array i am going to use... Loader(incidentWizard[wizardPOS],true); Ive also tried Loader([incidentWizard][wizardPOS],true); and Loader([incidentWizard][wizardPOS],true); Also the loader function just required the string value in the array at wizardPOS sorry for confusion But when trying this i always end up with the outcome... /incidentWizard I know this is something to do with using computed values but i've tried reading about them and cant seem to solve this issue. Basicly i want to use the computed value of wizardName to access an an array of that name. Please help supports, looking forward to seeing many ways to do this!

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