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  • Avoiding a fork()/SIGCHLD race condition

    - by larry
    Please consider the following fork()/SIGCHLD pseudo-code. // main program excerpt for (;;) { if ( is_time_to_make_babies ) { pid = fork(); if (pid == -1) { /* fail */ } else if (pid == 0) { /* child stuff */ print "child started" exit } else { /* parent stuff */ print "parent forked new child ", pid children.add(pid); } } } // SIGCHLD handler sigchld_handler(signo) { while ( (pid = wait(status, WNOHANG)) > 0 ) { print "parent caught SIGCHLD from ", pid children.remove(pid); } } In the above example there's a race-condition. It's possible for "/* child stuff */" to finish before "/* parent stuff */" starts which can result in a child's pid being added to the list of children after it's exited, and never being removed. When the time comes for the app to close down, the parent will wait endlessly for the already-finished child to finish. One solution I can think of to counter this is to have two lists: started_children and finished_children. I'd add to started_children in the same place I'm adding to children now. But in the signal handler, instead of removing from children I'd add to finished_children. When the app closes down, the parent can simply wait until the difference between started_children and finished_children is zero. Another possible solution I can think of is using shared-memory, e.g. share the parent's list of children and let the children .add and .remove themselves? But I don't know too much about this. EDIT: Another possible solution, which was the first thing that came to mind, is to simply add a sleep(1) at the start of /* child stuff */ but that smells funny to me, which is why I left it out. I'm also not even sure it's a 100% fix. So, how would you correct this race-condition? And if there's a well-established recommended pattern for this, please let me know! Thanks.

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

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  • Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

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  • Confused about UIView frame property

    - by slowfungus
    I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

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  • Rack, FastCGI, Lighttpd configuration

    - by zacsek
    Hi! I want to run a simple application using Rack, FastCGI and Lighttpd, but I cannot get it working. I get the following error: /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/rack/handler/fastcgi.rb:23:in `initialize': Address already in use - bind(2) (Errno::EADDRINUSE) from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/rack/handler/fastcgi.rb:23:in `new' from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/rack/handler/fastcgi.rb:23:in `run' from /www/test.rb:7 Here is the application: #!/usr/bin/ruby app = Proc.new do |env| [200, {'Content-Type' => 'text/plain'}, "Hello World!"] end require 'rack' Rack::Handler::FastCGI.run app, :Port => 4000 ... and the lighttpd.conf: server.modules += ( "mod_access", "mod_accesslog", "mod_fastcgi" ) server.port = 80 server.document-root = "/www" mimetype.assign = ( ".html" => "text/html", ".txt" => "text/plain", ".jpg" => "image/jpeg", ".png" => "image/png" ) index-file.names = ( "test.rb" ) fastcgi.debug = 1 fastcgi.server = ( ".rb" => (( "host" => "127.0.0.1", "port" => 4000, "bin-path" => "/www/test.rb", "check-local" => "disable", "max-procs" => 1 )) ) Can someone help me? What am I doing wrong?

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  • SQL Server becomes slow after restart

    - by Tobi DM
    We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

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  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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  • Error Message-The source attachment does not contain the source for the file ListView.class

    - by user603695
    Hello, new to Android. I get the following message in the debugger perspective: The source attachment does not contain the source for the file ListView.class You can change the source attachment by clicking the change attached Source Below Needless to say the app errors. I've tried to change the source attachment to the location path: C:/Program Files/Android/android-sdk-windows/platforms/android-8/android.jar However, this did not work. Any thoughts would be much appreciated. Code is: import android.app.ListActivity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.*; import android.widget.*; public class HelloListView extends ListActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.main, COUNTRIES)); ListView lv = getListView(); lv.setTextFilterEnabled(true); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new AdapterView.OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { // When clicked, show a toast with the TextView text Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), ((TextView) view).getText(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); } static final String[] COUNTRIES = new String[] { "Afghanistan", "Albania", "Algeria", "American Samoa... Thanks!

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  • Liquid Layout: 100% max-width img not applied - why?

    - by MEM
    I'm totally new to this liquid layout stuff. I've notice, as most of us, that while most of my layout components "liquify", images, unfortunately, don't. So I'm trying to use the max-width: 100% on images as suggested on several places. However, and despite the definition of max-width and min-height of the img container, the img don't scale. Sample code: CSS img { max-width: 100%; } article { float: left; margin: 30px 1%; max-width: 31%; min-height: 350px; } HTML <article> <header> <h2>some header</h2> </header> <img src="/images/thumb1.jpg" alt="thumb"> <p>Vestibulum ante ipsum primis in faucibus orci luctus et ultrices posuere cubilia Curae; Proin vel ante a orci tempus eleifend.</p> </article> Please have a look on the following link: http://tinyurl.com/d849f8x If you see it on a wide resolution, you will notice that the "kid image", for example, don't scale. Any clue about what could the issue be, why does that image not scale? Test case: Browsers: Firefox 15.0 / Chrome 21.0 IOS: MAC OS X Lion - 10.7.3 Resolution: 1920x1200 What I get: I get an image that doesn't scale until the end of it's container. The img width won't fit the article element that contains it. What I do expect: I expect the image to enlarge, until it reaches the end it's container. Visually, I'm expecting the image to be as wide as the paragraph immediately below, in a way that, the right side of the image stays vertically aligned with the right side of the paragraph below.

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  • Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

    - by sevennineteen
    I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

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  • Configuring TeamCity + NUnit unit tests so files can be loaded properly

    - by Dave
    In a nutshell, I have a solution that builds fine in the IDE, and the unit tests all run fine with the NUnit GUI (via the NUnitit VS2008 plugin). However, when I execute my TeamCity build runner, all unit tests that require file access (e.g. for running tests against specific XML files), I just get System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundExceptions. The reason for this is clear: it's looking for those supporting XML files loaded by various unit tests in the wrong folder. The way my unit tests are structured looks like this: +-- project folder +-- unit tests folder +-- test.xml +-- test.cs +-- project file.xaml +-- project file.xaml.cs All of my projects own their own UnitTests folder, which contains the .cs file and any XML files, XML Schemas, etc that are necessary to run the tests. So when I write my test.cs, I have it look for "test.xml" in the code because they are in the same folder (actually, I do something like ....\unit tests\test.xml, but that's kind of silly). As I said before, the tests run great in NUnit. But that's because the unit tests are part of the project. When running the unit tests from TeamCity, I am executing them against the assemblies that get copied to the main app's output folder. These unit test XML files should not be copied willy-nilly to the output folder just to make the tests pass. Can anyone suggest a better method of organizing my unit tests in each project (which are dependencies for the main app), such that I can execute the unit tests from NUnit and from the TeamCity build runner? The only other option I can come up with is to just put the testing XML data in code, rather than loading it from a file. I would rather not do this.

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  • How to eliminate tearing from animation?

    - by MusiGenesis
    I'm running an animation in a WinForms app at 18.66666... frames per second (it's synced with music at 140 BPM, which is why the frame rate is weird). Each cel of the animation is pre-calculated, and the animation is driven by a high-resolution multimedia timer. The animation itself is smooth, but I am seeing a significant amount of "tearing", or artifacts that result from cels being caught partway through a screen refresh. When I take the set of cels rendered by my program and write them out to an AVI file, and then play the AVI file in Windows Media Player, I do not see any tearing at all. I assume that WMP plays the file smoothly because it uses DirectX (or something else) and is able to synchronize the rendering with the screen's refresh activity. It's not changing the frame rate, as the animation stays in sync with the audio. Is this why WMP is able to render the animation without tearing, or am I missing something? Is there any way I can use DirectX (or something else) in order to enable my program to be aware of where the current scan line is, and if so, is there any way I can use that information to eliminate tearing without actually using DirectX for displaying the cels? Or do I have to fully use DirectX for rendering in order to deal with this problem? Update: forgot a detail. My app renders each cell onto a PictureBox using Graphics.DrawImage. Is this significantly slower than using BitBlt, such that I might eliminate at least some of the tearing by using BitBlt?

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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  • Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

    - by N. B.
    I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

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  • Keeping dates in order when using date_select and discarding year in Rails?

    - by MikeH
    My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true To explain our problem, consider that our products are apples. Vendor X carries apples every year from September to January. Years are irrelevant here, and that's why we're using discard_year => true. However, while the specific years are irrelevant, the relative point in time from the start date to the end date is relevant. This is where our problem arises. When you use discard_year => true, Rails does set a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to 0001 in our app. Going back to our apple example, this means that the database now thinks the user has selected September 0001 to January 0001. This is a problem for us for a number of reasons. To solve this, the logic that I need to implement is the following: - If season_start month/date is before season_end month/date, then standard Rails approach is fine. - But, if season_start month/date is AFTER season_end month/date, then I need to dynamically update the database field such that the year for season_end is equal to the year for season_start + 1. My best guess is that I would create a custom method that runs as an after_save or after_update in my products model. But I'm not really sure how to do this. Ideas? Anybody ever had this issue? Thanks!

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  • Android Maps: Installation error: INSTALL_FAILED_MISSING_SHARED_LIBRARY

    - by AP257
    I'm trying to use Android Maps, following the instructions in Hello MapView. I've added <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> in the Manifest, and I'm building against the 'Google APIs' target, which claims to be API version 7. So I don't think I'm doing anything obviously wrong, but the project refuses to build with this error: [2010-12-22 13:34:32 - FMS]Installing FMS.apk... [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Installation error: INSTALL_FAILED_MISSING_SHARED_LIBRARY [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Please check logcat output for more details. [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Launch canceled! logcat is telling me the following (not very enlightening): D/PackageParser( 55): Scanning package: /data/app/vmdl67147.tmp I/PackageParser( 55): com.android.fms: compat added android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE E/PackageManager( 55): Package com.android.fms requires unavailable shared library com.google.android.maps; failing! W/PackageManager( 55): Package couldn't be installed in /data/app/com.android.fms.apk D/AndroidRuntime( 206): Shutting down VM It is possible I haven't set up the Maps API key correctly - when I got it using keytools, I didn't specify an alias_name, though this didn't seem to cause an error. Can anyone help?

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  • Cocoa framework development: sharing between projects

    - by e.James
    I am currently developing a handful of similar Cocoa desktop apps. In an effort to share code between them, I have identified a set of core classes and functions that can be common across all of these applications. I would like to bundle this common code into a framework which all of my current applications (and any future ones) can link against. Now, here's the hard part: I'm going to be developing this framework as I go, so I need each of my desktop apps to have a reference to it, but I want to be able to edit the framework source code from within each of the app projects and have the framework automatically rebuilt as required. For example, let's say I have the Xcode project for DesktopAppNumberOne open, and I decide that one of my framework classes needs to be changed. I would like to: Open and edit the source file for that framework class without having to open the framework project in Xcode. Hit "build" on DesktopAppNumberOne, and see the framework rebuilt first (because one of its sources has changed), then see parts of DesktopAppNumberOne rebuilt (because one of the frameworks it links against has changed). I can see how to do this with only one app and one framework, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it with multiple apps that share a single framework. Has anyone had success with this approach? Am I perhaps going about this the wrong way? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How do I relocate assemblies from a deployment project without breaking application references?

    - by James
    Hi, I have recently refactored a lot of my applications existing code and I am now looking at tidying up the deployment side of things. The existing installer application installs everything in the application folder (with the exclusion of a couple of config files which are located in a sub folder). However, I have multiple applications which all use some common assemblies and my goal is to relocate a these particular assemblies to the "Common Files" folder in the program files directory. NB: I have read a lot about the GAC but I have no experience with it and also read a few horror stories, so trying to get a simple solution for the time being. I managed to get the assemblies installed into the Common Files folder, however, as a result (typical I.T.) I have broken my app! If I copy the assemblies back into the application folder it works fine so the problem is obviously to do with how my app is referencing the assemblies. To get the installer to install the assemblies into the Common Files folder I just updated the Folder property of each assembly in the Detected Dependencies list. My thoughts were when I did that the installer would somehow update my application to tell it to look in that folder for them but that doens't appear to be the case. What exactly am I doing wrong here?

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  • Where should I store shared resources between LocalSystem and regular user with UAC?

    - by rwired
    My application consists of two parts: A Windows Service running under the LocalSystem account and a client process running under the currently logged in regular user. I need to deploy the application across Windows versions from XP up to Win7. The client will retrieve files from the web and collect user data from the user. The service will construct files and data of it's own which the client needs to read. I'm trying to figure out the best place (registry or filesystem, or mix) to store all this. One file the client or service needs to be able to retrieve from the net is an update_patch executable which needs to run whenever an upgrade is available. I need to be sure the initial installer SETUP.EXE, and also the update_patch can figure out this ideal location and set a RegKey to be read later by both client and server telling them the magic location (The SETUP.EXE will run with elevated privileges since it needs to install the service) On my Win7 test system the service %APPDATA% points to: C:\Windows\system32\config\systemprofile\AppData\Roaming and the %APPDATA% of the client points to: C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Roaming Interestingly Google Chrome stores everything (App and Data) in C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Local\Google\Chrome Chrome runs pretty much in exactly the way I want my suite to run (able to silently update itself in the background) What I'm trying to avoid is nasty popups warning the user that the app wants to modify the system, and I want to avoid problems when VirtualStore doesn't exist because the user is running XP/2000/2003 or has UAC turned off. My target audience are non-tech-savvy general Windows users.

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  • Broken console in Maven project using Netbeans

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    Hi, I have strange problem with my Neatens+Maven installation. This is the shortest code to reproduce the problem: public class App { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Create a scanner to read from keyboard Scanner scanner = new Scanner (System.in); Scanner s= new Scanner(System.in); String param= s.next(); System.out.println(param); } } When I'm running it as Maven Project inside Netbeans console seems to be broken. It just ignores my input. It's look like infinitive loop in System.out.println(param);. However this project works fine when it's compiled as "Java Aplication" project. It also works O.K. if I build and run it from cmd. System info: Os: Vista IDE: Netbeans 6.8 Maven: apache-maven-2.2.1 //edit Built program (using mavean from Netbeans) works fine. I just can't test it using Net beans. And I think I forgot to ask the question ;). So of course my first question is: how can I fix this problem? And second is: Is it any workaround for this? For example configuring Netbeans to run external commend line app instead of using built in console.

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  • Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

    - by Todd McDermid
    Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

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  • Way to store a large dictionary with low memory footprint + fast lookups (on Android)

    - by BobbyJim
    I'm developing an android word game app that needs a large (~250,000 word dictionary) available. I need: reasonably fast look ups e.g. constant time preferable, need to do maybe 200 lookups a second on occasion to solve a word puzzle and maybe 20 lookups within 0.2 second more often to check words the user just spelled. EDIT: Lookups are typically asking "Is in the dictionary?". I'd like to support up to two wildcards in the word as well, but this is easy enough by just generating all possible letters the wildcards could have been and checking the generated words (i.e. 26 * 26 lookups for a word with two wildcards). as it's a mobile app, using as little memory as possible and requiring only a small initial download for the dictionary data is top priority. My first naive attempts used Java's HashMap class, which caused an out of memory exception. I've looked into using the SQL lite databases available on android, but this seems like overkill. What's a good way to do what I need?

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  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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  • Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

    - by Robin Fisher
    Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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