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Slowing process creation under Java?

- by oconnor0

I have a single, large heap (up to 240GB, though in the 20-40GB range for most of this phase of execution) JVM [1] running under Linux [2] on a server with 24 cores. We have tens of thousands of objects that have to be processed by an external executable & then load the data created by those executables back into the JVM. Each executable produces about half a megabyte of data (on disk) that when read right in, after the process finishes, is, of course, larger. Our first implementation was to have each executable handle only a single object. This involved the spawning of twice as many executables as we had objects (since we called a shell script that called the executable). Our CPU utilization would start off high, but not necessarily 100%, and slowly worsen. As we began measuring to see what was happening we noticed that the process creation time [3] continually slows. While starting at sub-second times it would eventually grow to take a minute or more. The actual processing done by the executable usually takes less than 10 seconds. Next we changed the executable to take a list of objects to process in an attempt to reduce the number of processes created. With batch sizes of a few hundred (~1% of our current sample size), the process creation times start out around 2 seconds & grow to around 5-6 seconds. Basically, why is it taking so long to create these processes as execution continues? [1] Oracle JDK 1.6.0_22 [2] Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Platform 5.3, Linux kernel 2.6.18-194.26.1.el5 #1 SMP [3] Creation of the ProcessBuilder object, redirecting the error stream, and starting it.

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Replacing one image with another image through ajax makes it dissappear for a split second

- by ooo

I have the following code (asp.net-mvc, jquery) (i have simplified the example to show the issue) where i want to click on an image and have it replaced with another image. This works fine but the first time i click it, the original image disappears (for a split second) before the other image shows up. After that it works seamlessly. Is there any way to eliminate this quirk so there is not split second where no image is shown? Here is my controller code: public ActionResult UpdateFavoriteExercise(int id, string toggle) { if (toggle == "off") { return Content("<img toggle='off' src='/images/vote-favorite-off1.png' border=0'>"); } return Content("<img toggle='on' src='/images/vote-favorite-on1.png' border=0'>"); } Here is my jquery code: $('div.favoriteExercise').live('click', function() { var id = $(this).attr("id"); var toggle = $(this).attr("toggle"); if (toggle == 'off') { onOff = 'on'; } else { onOff = 'off'; } var url = '/Tracker/UpdateFavoriteExercise/' + id + '?toggle=' + onOff; $(this).load(url); $(this).attr("toggle", onOff); });

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Function Triggered before fadeOut(); is finished

- by willmcneilly

Hi I'm new to javascript/jQuery this really has me stumped. What I'm trying to achieve here is On toggling a#sameDayTab jquery will look for .changeAlert and fadeOut it's container div, when toggled again the div will fade in (this works well.) Each toggle will also call a function that tells me how many .changeAlert's are present on the page and updates the number appropriately in a span. The problem is when I first click the toggled anchor the number of visible should be 0 as the .changeAlert has been hidden by fadeOut instead it returns the number of classes present on page load this value never changes no matter how many times the toggle is activated. Any help greatly appreciated. function totalNumFares () { var n = $('.changeAlert:visible').size(); $('.numFares').replaceWith('<span class=\"numFares\">'+ n +'</span>'); } totalNumFares(); //Toggle On/off Same Day Connections $('a#sameDayTab').toggle(function() { $('.changeAlert').parent().parent().parent().parent().parent().fadeOut(); totalNumFares(); },function(){ $('.changeAlert').parent().parent().parent().parent().parent().fadeIn(); totalNumFares(); });

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Accessing preloaded images from parent script two use in child script. How?

- by Matt

I'm trying to update an image in a parent window with clickable links in a child window. I've preloaded the images in the parent window with one javascript file. "scriptss.js" My problem is I need to access the preloaded images of the parent window with the childscript "scriptremote.js" Thanks again for all the JS Help! The JS (scriptss.js) var newWindow = null; window.onload = init; var i = 0; image_object = new Image(); myImages = new Array(); // declare array myImages[0]="images/img1.jpg" // load array myImages[1]="images/img2.jpg" myImages[2]="images/img3.jpg" myImages[3]="images/img4.jpg" myImages[4]="images/img5.jpg" myImages[5]="images/img6.jpg" Here's the HTML for parent window: <img src="" width="200px" height="200px" id="myimage" name="myimage" /></img> Here's the JS for child window: window.onload = init; function init() { } function first_image() { window.parent.image_object.src = myImages[3]; //Problem happens here I think document.getElementById("myimage")window.parent.src = window.parent.image_object.src; } The HTML Child Window <h1>My Remote</h1> <a href="#" id="first" onclick="first_image()" >First Image</a> </br>

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iPhone loading view from nib only works once

- by The Swissdude

Hi Forum I'm trying to add a «loader-view» to my app which shows a spinner while doing stuff. This works fine the first time, but it doesn't work a second time. here's what I do: I have a viewController for the spinner (spinnerViewController) and a nib-file which I made in IB (spinner.xib). I load the nib in the viewDidLoad-event: spinnerView = [[spinnerViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"spinner" bundle:nil]; [spinnerView retain]; spinnerView is declared in the .h-file (spinnerViewController *spinnerView;) next, I show the spinner-view: [self.view addSubview:spinnerView.view]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:spinnerView.view]; which works fine... And now the trouble starts. No matter what I do, I can't show the spinner view again. I tried just hiding it (self.view sendSubViewToBack: spinnerView.view) which works for hiding, but when I try to bring it to the front again (self.view bringSubViewToFront: spinnerView.view) it doesn't work. I also tried removing the spinner-view and add it again with no success (within the spinnerViewController: [self.view removeFromSuperview] and to show it again [self.view addSubview... ) Any ideas what I'm doing wrong??? ;) Thanks for the help!

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How can I unobtrusively disable submit buttons with Javascript and Prototype?

- by Frew

So I found this recommendation, but I can't quite seem to figure out how. This is the code I originally started with: function greySubmits(e) { var value = e.srcElement.defaultValue; // This doesn't work, but it needs to $(e).insert('<input type="hidden" name="commit" value="' + value + '" />'); // This causes IE to not submit at all $$("input[type='submit']").each(function(v) {v.disabled = true;}) } // This works fine Event.observe(window, 'load', function() { $$("input[type='submit']").each(function(e) { Event.observe(e, 'click', greySubmits); }); }); Anyway, I am pretty close, but I can't seem to get any further. Thanks for any help at all! Update: Sorry, I guess I wasn't entirely clear. I'd like to disable all of the submit buttons when someone clicks a submit button. But I do need to send along the value of the submit button so the server knows which button I clicked, hence the insert call. (Note: insert does not create a child of the element you call it on.) And then after disabling the submit buttons I need to call the containing form of the submit buttons submit call, as IE will not submit after you disable the button. Does that make sense?

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Blit SDL_Surface onto another SDL_Surface and apply a colorkey

- by NordCoder

I want to load an SDL_Surface into an OpenGL texture with padding (so that NPOT-POT) and apply a color key on the surface afterwards. I either end up colorkeying all pixels, regardless of their color, or not colorkey anything at all. I have tried a lot of different things, but none of them seem to work. Here's the working snippet of my code. I use a custom color class for the colorkey (range [0-1]): // Create an empty surface with the same settings as the original image SDL_Surface* paddedImage = SDL_CreateRGBSurface(image->flags, width, height, image->format->BitsPerPixel, #if SDL_BYTEORDER == SDL_BIG_ENDIAN 0xff000000, 0x00ff0000, 0x0000ff00, 0x000000ff #else 0x000000ff, 0x0000ff00, 0x00ff0000, 0xff000000 #endif ); // Map RGBA color to pixel format value Uint32 colorKeyPixelFormat = SDL_MapRGBA(paddedImage->format, static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.R * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.G * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.B * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.A * 255)); SDL_FillRect(paddedImage, NULL, colorKeyPixelFormat); // Blit the image onto the padded image SDL_BlitSurface(image, NULL, paddedImage, NULL); SDL_SetColorKey(paddedImage, SDL_SRCCOLORKEY, colorKeyPixelFormat); Afterwards, I generate an OpenGL texture from paddedImage using similar code to the SDL+OpenGL texture loading code found online (I'll post if necessary). This code works if I just want the texture with or without padding, and is likely not the problem. I realize that I set all pixels in paddedImage to have alpha zero which causes the first problem I mentioned, but I can't seem to figure out how to do this. Should I just loop over the pixels and set the appropriate colors to have alpha zero?

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retrieving variables with jquery ajax

- by vick

<div class="lead_detail_box_routing"> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 1</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 2</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 3</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 4</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div id="results" style="text-align:center;"></div> </div>  e.g. when user clicks on "route" I want my jquery-manual-routing.php to get the "3" .. so far I have: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a#route").click(function() { $("#results").load( "jquery-manual-routing.php", { route_to: ???? } ); return false; }); }); </script> so in my php script, when the user clicks on route next to location 3 I want to be able to grab $_GET['route_to'] =3; Also note that my table already has the class assigned since I am using css to style it The answer will be pure php echo

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i don't know how to solve this error

- by wide

in local it works. when i load server, i got this error. Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />).] System.Web.UI.PageTheme.SetStyleSheet() +2458406 System.Web.UI.Page.OnInit(EventArgs e) +8699420 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +378

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junit test error - ClassCastException

- by Josepth Vodary

When trying to run a junit test I get the following error - java.lang.ClassCastException: business.Factory cannot be cast to services.itemservice.IItemsService at business.ItemManager.get(ItemManager.java:56) at business.ItemMgrTest.testGet(ItemMgrTest.java:49) The specific test that is causing the problem is @Test public void testGet() { Assert.assertTrue(itemmgr.get(items)); } The code it is testing is... public boolean get(Items item) { boolean gotItems = false; Factory factory = Factory.getInstance(); @SuppressWarnings("static-access") IItemsService getItem = (IItemsService)factory.getInstance(); try { getItem.getItems("pens", 15, "red", "gel"); gotItems = true; } catch (ItemNotFoundException e) { // catch e.printStackTrace(); System.out.println("Error - Item Not Found"); } return gotItems; } The test to store items, which is nearly identical, works just fine... The factory class is.. public class Factory { private Factory() {} private static Factory Factory = new Factory(); public static Factory getInstance() {return Factory;} public static IService getService(String serviceName) throws ServiceLoadException { try { Class<?> c = Class.forName(getImplName(serviceName)); return (IService)c.newInstance(); } catch (Exception e) { throw new ServiceLoadException(serviceName + "not loaded"); } } private static String getImplName (String serviceName) throws Exception { java.util.Properties props = new java.util.Properties(); java.io.FileInputStream fis = new java.io.FileInputStream("config\\application.properties"); props.load(fis); fis.close(); return props.getProperty(serviceName); } }

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Mystery: How does Google do cross-domain iframe communication?

- by Shraga

Hi everyone, When you host Googles web search element on a page, a div is created which incorporates an iframe which points to a Google adsense ads page. However, if there are no ads for the specific query, Google somehow changes the class on YOUR domain to render the div (and iframe) invisible. They are NOT using postMessage, as it also works in IE7. They are also not using the fragment identifier method, as no hash appears in the url. So how do they do it? To check what I'm saying just put the following into a regular html page:  <div id="cse" style="width:100%;">Loading</div> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('search', '1'); google.setOnLoadCallback(function(){ new google.search.CustomSearchControl().draw('cse'); }, true); </script> and then do a search for "cars" (or anything else that will definitely have ads) and then for "wzxv", which has no ads...

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Facebook API - Detect if session is active OR NOT active

- by Tom Doe

I'm sure I'm simply overlooking something in the Facebook API docs. Basically, after I've loaded the FB Graph, I need to know if the session is active... I cannot simply assume they're logged out and simply re-render if they're logged in once the 'auth.statusChange' event is triggered. I need to know right off the bat. Below is the code that I've used. Most importantly the FB.getLoginStatus/getAuthResponse/getAccessToken don't work like I'd expect; essentially where it indicates, when invoked, whether they're logged in or out. (function(d) { // Create fb-root var fb_root = document.createElement('div'); fb_root.id = "fb-root"; document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild( fb_root ); // Load FB Async var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); // App config-data var config = { appId : XXXX, cookie: true, status: true, frictionlessRequests: true }; window.fbAsyncInit = function() { // This won't work. // I can't assume they're logged out and rely on this to tell me they're logged in. FB.Event.subscribe('auth.statusChange', function(response) {}); // Init FB.init(config); // These do not inidicate if the user is logged out :( FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { }); FB.getAuthResponse(function(response) { }); FB.getAccessToken(function(response) { }); }; }(document)); Any help is much appreciated. :)

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C# Custom user settings class not saving

- by Zenox

I have the following class: [Serializable] [XmlRoot ( ElementName = "TextData", IsNullable = false)] public class TextData { private System.Drawing.Font fontColor; [XmlAttribute ( AttributeName = "Font" )] public System.Drawing.Font Font { get; set; } [XmlAttribute ( AttributeName = "FontColor" )] public System.Drawing.Color FontColor { get; set; } [XmlAttribute ( AttributeName = "Text" )] public string Text { get; set; } public TextData ( ) { } // End of TextData } // End of TextData And Im attempting to save it with the following code: // Create our font dialog FontDialog fontDialog = new FontDialog ( ); fontDialog.ShowColor = true; // Display the dialog and check for an ok if ( DialogResult.OK == fontDialog.ShowDialog ( ) ) { // Save our changes for the font settings if ( null == Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData ) { Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData = new TextData ( ); } Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData.Font = fontDialog.Font; Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData.FontColor = fontDialog.Color; Properties.Settings.Default.Save ( ); } Everytime I load the the application, the Properties.Settings.Default.MainHeadlineTextData is still null. Saving does not seem to take effect. I read on another post that the class must be public and it is. Any ideas why this would not be working properly?

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Reverse wildcard search in codeigniter

- by Andy Platt

I am implementing a snippet-based content management system into my current project. Snippets can be associated with a page either by exact match of the full url falling back to a wildcard match on a partial url or finally a default snippet. To implement this I have a created table of page associations with a wildcard flag, the system first checks the current url against the non-wildcard associations and if it doesn't find a match it checks against the partial url's where the wildcard flag is set. In order to achieve this I am getting all the partial url's from the database and putting them into an array then walking the array to check for a match against the current url: protected function _check_wildcard($url = NULL) { if($url) { $q = $this->db->where('wildcard' ,'Y') ->from('content') ->get(); $wildcards = $q->result_array(); foreach($wildcards AS $wildcard) { if(strpos($url,$wildcard['url']) > 0) { return $wildcard['snipppet_id']; } } } else { return NULL; } } Can anyone suggest a better way to do this - preferably one that doesn't involve having to constantly download the full list of all the wildcards each time I load a page as I am afraid that this will have a negative effect on the scalability of the system down the line?

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Target to a page inside an iframe

- by Marcelo Srougi

I will try to explain again: I have 3 images in my index.html that when clicked i'd like to point respectively to ourmission.html, ourvalues.html and ourvision.html. But this 3 pages are inside an iframe located in the page ourcompany.html as you can see below: <aside class="sidebar"> <h4>Our Company</h4> <ul class="nav nav-list primary pull-bottom"> <li><a href="contactus.html"target="conteudo">Contact Us</a></li> <li><a href="ourmission.html" target="conteudo">Our Mission</a></li> <li><a href="ourvalues.html" target="conteudo">Our Values</a></li> <li><a href="ourvision.html"target="conteudo">Our Vision</a></li> </ul> </aside> <iframe src="contactus.html" frameborder='0' name="conteudo" width="700" height="700"> </iframe> How do i to point them directly, so the page ourcompany.html will load with the specific iframe opened.

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Remove the hash after Ajax loading (I'm ajaxing wordpress 8-) )

- by Alberto

Hi everybody, I followed this great tutorial to"ajax" my blog:http://www.deluxeblogtips.com/2010/05/how-to-ajaxify-wordpress-theme.html But it creates some problems and I think the problem is in the hash that ajax creates. So, after the content is loaded, how can I remove the hash from the url? I copy my code here: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var $mainContent = $("#content"), siteUrl = "http://" + top.location.host.toString(), url = ''; $(document).delegate("a[href^='"+siteUrl+"']:not([href*=/wp-admin/]):not([href*=/wp-login.php]):not([href$=/feed/]):not([href*=/go.php]):not(.comment-reply-link)", "click", function() { location.hash = this.pathname; $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); $("#searchform").submit(function(e) { location.hash = '?s=' + $("#search").val(); e.preventDefault(); }); $(window).bind('hashchange', function(){ url = window.location.hash.substring(1); if (!url) { return; } url = url + " #inside"; $mainContent.html('<div id="loader">Caricamento in corso...</div>').load(url, function() { //$mainContent.animate({opacity: "1"}); scriptss(); }); }); $(window).trigger('hashchange'); }); Thank all very much!

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float** allocation limit + serialized struct problem. Need advice!

- by jmgunn

basically im getting an allocation limit error/warning when i create a float** array. the function i am calling to fill the float** retrieves data from a struct loaded from a file. The function works fine when i use one object but when i load 2 objects into memory i get the limit error. I am pretty sure this is to do with byte alignment or a similar thing because my struct is saved with a float** member which i am sure you are not susposed to do !?! Please confirm this! The next question i have now is how to save/serialize the float** member of this struct? I cant really afford to put an upper bound on the array ie "float [10000][3]" because i need/want to use this structure as a base for many other types of objects that may have well under the upper bound. Stroking my chin here! Any help/advice will recieve my highest gratitude. BTW these said struct objects will be used in a game/graphics package, the float** is a float[3] array for storing vertices in a model. Much thanks in advance

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Battery life if using GPS and background program

- by StealthRT

I was wondering if anyone has created an app that starts in the background and utilizes the GPS to gather the current Lat and Long every minute or so? If you have, would you please provide your battery times? As in, how long does your phone last until its all out of juice from just running that background app with standard cell phone programs. I'm trying to see if it would be worth the time to create an app for myself but if i work for 8 hours and dont have a way of charging my phone during that time then i dont want to be going home and it shut down on me since my app i would create works at my house. I need the app to work since it will see when i am in range of my home (from the GPS) and then send commands to my server at the house from my phone. So thats why it would need to be able to stay in the background doing a check every 1 minute or so. Or only turn on the GPS (Is is doable with iOS? & Android?) whenever its after 5pm each day so that it will minimize the load on the battery?!? Any help or suggestions would be great! Thanks!

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JQUERY - how to get updated value after ajax removes data from within it?

- by Brian

I have a an element with thumbnails. I allow users to sort their display order (which fires off an update to the DB via ajax). I also allow them to delete images (which, after deletion, fires off a request to update the display order for all remaining images). My problem is with binding or live I think, but I don't know where to apply it. The array fired off upon delete contains ALL the ids for the images that were there on page load. The issue is that after they delete an image the array STILL contains the original ids (including the one that was deleted) so it is obviously not refreshing the value of the element after ajax has removed things from inside it. I need to tell it to go get the refreshed contents... From what I have been reading, this is normal but I don't understand how to tie it into my routine. I need to trigger the mass re-ordering after any deletion. Any ideas gurus? $('a.delimg').click(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); var id = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../updateImages.php", data: "action=delete&id=" + id, beforeSend: function() { parent.animate({'backgroundColor':'#fb6c6c'},300); $.jnotify("<strong>Deleting This Image & Updating The Image Order</strong>", 5000); }, success: function(data) { parent.slideUp(300,function() { parent.remove(); $("#images ul").sortable(function() { //NEEDS TO GET THE UPDATED CONTENT var order = $(this).sortable("serialize") + '&action=updateRecordsListings'; $.post("../updateImages.php", order, function(theResponse){ $.jnotify("<strong>" + theResponse + "</strong>", 2000); }); }); }); } }); return false; }); Thanks for any help you can be.

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how to send on previous page where a part of html was loaded

- by I Like PHP

hello all, i m using Jquery ajax post method to edit a form on same page, but if there is some mistake then how do i send user back on that page where data were loaded. now i describe u what i do? i have a page manageMovies.php there are list of movie name, now when i click on a name of any movie, then i load editMovie.php on same page now when i do some mistakes( i.e when validations fails) then i want to go back on same page manageMovies.php loaded with editunit.php regarding that movie on the page. here is my page structure manageMovies.php <div id="display"></div> <div id="movieList"> <table > <tr><td id="mov_10">Apharan</td></tr> <tr><td id="mov_11">Gangaajal</td></tr> <tr><td id="mov_12">Rajniti</td></tr> </table> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery('td').click(function () { jQuery('#movieList').hide(); // hide the div 'movielist' jQuery.post('editMovie.php', { idForEdit: jQuery(this).attr('id') }, function (data) { jQuery("#display").html(data); //display the editMovie.php page on 'display' div }); }); </script> now when i do some mistakes on editunit.php and go further for post, then i need to go back on same page (manageMovies.php) where editMovie.php is shown on display div and movielist div should be hidden

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Transfering data from Excel to dataGridView

- by Panecillo

I have a problem when I want to transfer data from Excel to dataGridView in C#. My Excel's column has numeric and alphanumeric values. But for example, if the column has 3 numbers and 2 alphanumeric values then only the numbers are shown in the dataGridView, and vice versa. Why aren't all the values shown? The next is what happen: Excel's Column: DataGridView's Column: 45654 45654 P745K 31233 31233 23111 23111 45X2Y Here is my code to load the dataGridView: string connectionString = @"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=D:\test.xls;Extended Properties=""Excel 8.0;HDR=YES;"""; DbProviderFactory factory = DbProviderFactories.GetFactory("System.Data.OleDb"); DbDataAdapter adapter = factory.CreateDataAdapter(); DbCommand selectCommand = factory.CreateCommand(); selectCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM [sheet1$]"; DbConnection connection = factory.CreateConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = connectionString; selectCommand.Connection = connection; adapter.SelectCommand = selectCommand; data = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(data); dataGridView1.DataSource = data.Tables[0].DefaultView; I hope I explained it well. Sorry my bad english. Thanks.

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how to delete the pluginassembly after AppDomain.Unload(domain)

- by Ase

hello, i have a weird problem. i would like to delete an assembly(plugin.dll on harddisk) which is already loaded, but the assembly is locked by the operating system (vista), even if i have unloaded it. f.e. AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; AppDomain appDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain(assemblyName + "_AppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, setup); IPlugin plugin = (IPlugin)appDomain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(assemblyName, "Plugin.MyPlugins"); I also need the assemblyinfos, because I don't know which classes in the pluginassembly implements the IPlugin Interface. It should be possible to have more than one Plugin in one Pluginassembly. Assembly assembly = appDomain.Load(assemblyName); if (assembly != null) { Type[] assemblyTypes = assembly.GetTypes(); foreach (Type assemblyTyp in assemblyTypes) { if (typeof(IPlugin).IsAssignableFrom(assemblyTyp)) { IPlugin plugin = (IPlugin)Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyTyp); plugin.AssemblyName = assemblyNameWithEx; plugin.Host = this; } } } AppDomain.Unload(appDomain); How is it possible to get the assemblyinfos from the appDomain without locking the assembly? best regards

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jQuery - Show id, based on selected items class?

- by Jon Hadley

I have a layout roughly as follows: <div id="foo">  </div> <div id="thumbnails"> <div class="thumb-content1"></div> <div class="thumb-content2"></div> <div class="thumb-content3"></div> </div> <div id="content-1">  </div> <div id="content-2">  </div> <div id="content-3">  </div> etc .... On page load I want to show 'foo' and 'thumbnails' and hide the three content divs. As the user clicks each thumbnail, I want to hide foo, and replace it with the matching 'content-x'. I can get my head round jQuery show, hide and replace (although, bonus points if you want to include that in your example!). But how would I extract and construct the appropriate content id, from the thumbnail class, then pass it to the show hide code?

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why would i get a different views when called from different controller actions in asp.net-mvc

- by ooo

I have 2 different controller actions. As seen below, one calls the same view as the other one. The fitness version has a bunch of jquery ui tabs. public ActionResult FitnessByTab(string tab, DateTime entryDate) { return View("Fitness", GetFitnessVM(DateTime.Today.Date)); } public ActionResult Fitness() { return View(GetFitnessVM(DateTime.Today.Date)); } private FitnessVM GetFitnessVM(DateTime dt) { FitnessVM vm = new FitnessVM(); vm.Date = dt; // a bunch of other date that comes from a database return vm; } the issue is that on the action FitnessByTab() the tabs dont load correctly but on the Fitness() it loads fine. How could this be as my understanding is that they would be going through the same code path at that point. As you can see i am hard coded both to the same date to make sure its not a different date causing the issue. EDIT Issues has been solved. It was the relative referencing of all my links. I didn't get any issues until i used firebug that highlighted some missing references due to "../../" instead of Url.Content("

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ObjectDataSource firing twice, or on its own

- by LoveMeSomeCode

Can someone explain exactly how/when an ObjectDataSource fires? I have an ASP.NET page, with a GridView, which is referencing an ODS. I put a breakpoint in the method the ODS is using, and noticed it was firing twice. I looked into the code and the answer seemed obvious at first. I had Page_Load() { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { MethodA(); MethodB(); } } where MethodA and MethodB were both eventually calling gv.DataBind(). This made sense because I assume that each call to GridView.DataBind() would result in asking the ODS for data, and therefore running my data access method. The weird thing is that when comment out the call to MethodA, it still fires twice. Checking the call stack shows the method being run first as a result of MethodB, and then again, with no trail except [External Code]. This mystery load does not happen when I let MethodA and MethodB both execute. Any idea what's going on here? Any idea what other code I might have that is asking the ODS for data? I'm starting to think all these 'no code' data controls are more obfuscation and BS than they're worth.

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