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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Are you using C++0x today? [closed]

    - by Roger Pate
    This is a question in two parts, the first is the most important and concerns now: Are you following the design and evolution of C++0x? What blogs, newsgroups, committee papers, and other resources do you follow? Even where you're not using any new features, how have they affected your current choices? What new features are you using now, either in production or otherwise? The second part is a follow-up, concerning the new standard once it is final: Do you expect to use it immediately? What are you doing to prepare for C++0x, other than as listed for the previous questions? Obviously, compiler support must be there, but there's still co-workers, ancillary tools, and other factors to consider. What will most affect your adoption? Edit: The original really was too argumentative; however, I'm still interested in the underlying question, so I've tried to clean it up and hopefully make it acceptable. This seems a much better avenue than duplicating—even though some answers responded to the argumentative tone, they still apply to the extent that they addressed the questions, and all answers are community property to be cleaned up as appropriate, too.

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  • Ant path/pathelement not expanding properties correctly

    - by Jonas Byström
    My property gwt.sdk expands just fine everywhere else, but not inside a path/pathelement: <target name="setup.gwtenv"> <property environment="env"/> <condition property="gwt.sdk" value="${env.GWT_SDK}"> <isset property="env.GWT_SDK" /> </condition> <property name="gwt.sdk" value="/usr/local/gwt" /> <!-- Default value. --> </target> <path id="project.class.path"> <pathelement location="${gwt.sdk}/gwt-user.jar"/> </path> <target name="libs" depends="setup.gwtenv" description="Copy libs to WEB-INF/lib"> </target> <target name="javac" depends="libs" description="Compile java source"> <javac srcdir="src" includes="**" encoding="utf-8" destdir="war/WEB-INF/classes" source="1.5" target="1.5" nowarn="true" debug="true" debuglevel="lines,vars,source"> <classpath refid="project.class.path"/> </javac> </target> For instance, placing an echo of ${gwt.sdk} just above works, but not inside "project.class.path". Is it a bug, or do I have to do something that I'm not? Edit: I tried moving the property out from target setup.gwtenv into "global space", that helped circumvent the problem.

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  • Creating an object in the loop

    - by Jacob
    std::vector<double> C(4); for(int i = 0; i < 1000;++i) for(int j = 0; j < 2000; ++j) { C[0] = 1.0; C[1] = 1.0; C[2] = 1.0; C[3] = 1.0; } is much faster than for(int i = 0; i < 1000;++i) for(int j = 0; j < 2000; ++j) { std::vector<double> C(4); C[0] = 1.0; C[1] = 1.0; C[2] = 1.0; C[3] = 1.0; } I realize this happens because std::vector is repeatedly being created and instantiated in the loop, but I was under the impression this would be optimized away. Is it completely wrong to keep variables local in a loop whenever possible? I was under the (perhaps false) impression that this would provide optimization opportunities for the compiler. EDIT: I use VC++2005 (release mode) with full optimization (/Ox)

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  • Javascript error : " 'Sys' is undefined "

    - by Simon
    Hi there, I keep having an error when running my web application. The error does not cause a compilation error when on live server at least a javascript error and nothing else. But the real problem is when "debug" ... javascript error stops the compilation and I have to "Continue" three times before proceeding normally my debug. But this error occurs at every refresh the page. All this using Visual Studio. After several hours of search on google, I saw that it was a problem with the ScriptManager and Ajax. The real problem is that I do not use any Ajax on this page but the ScriptManager is on the masterpage. Worse still, on any other page on the website, that may use Ajax or not, no javascript error! Only THIS page cause this error! Any suggestion? Note that I usualy talk french so there's probably error and sorry for this! EDIT There's the 3 places were compilation stop. 1. Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ctl08', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); 2. Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls([], [], [], 90); 3. Sys.Application.initialize();

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  • Javascript private member on prototype...

    - by Wilq32
    Well I tried to figure out is this possible in any way. Here is code: a=function(text) { var b=text; if (!arguments.callee.prototype.get) arguments.callee.prototype.get=function() { return b; } else alert('already created!'); } var c=new a("test"); // creates prototype instance of getter var d=new a("ojoj"); // alerts already created alert(c.get()) // alerts test alert(d.get()) // alerts test from context of creating prototype function :( As you see I tried to create prototype getter. For what? Well if you write something like this: a=function(text) { var b=text; this.getText=function(){ return b} } ... everything should be fine.. but in fact every time I create object - i create getText function that uses memory. I would like to have one prototypical function lying in memory that would do the same... Any ideas? EDIT: I tried solution given by Christoph, and it seems that its only known solution for now. It need to remember id information to retrieve value from context, but whole idea is nice for me :) Id is only one thing to remember, everything else can be stored once in memory. In fact you could store a lot of private members this way, and use anytime only one id. Actually this is satisfying me :) (unless someone got better idea). someFunc = function() { var store = new Array(); var guid=0; var someFunc = function(text) { this.__guid=guid; store[guid++]=text; } someFunc.prototype.getValue=function() { return store[this.__guid]; } return someFunc; }() a=new someFunc("test"); b=new someFunc("test2"); alert(a.getValue()); alert(b.getValue());

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  • On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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  • Why is my element variable always null in this foreach loop?

    - by ZeroDivide
    Here is the code: public IEnumerable<UserSummary> getUserSummaryList() { var db = new entityContext(); List<UserSummary> model = new List<UserSummary>(); List<aspnet_Users> users = (from user in db.aspnet_Users select user).ToList<aspnet_Users>(); foreach (aspnet_Users u in users) //u is always null while users is a list that contains 4 objects { model.Add(new UserSummary() { UserName = u.UserName, Email = u.aspnet_Membership.Email, Role = Roles.GetRolesForUser(u.UserName).First(), AdCompany = u.AD_COMPANIES.ad_company_name != null ? u.AD_COMPANIES.ad_company_name : "Not an Advertiser", EmployeeName = u.EMPLOYEE.emp_name != null ? u.EMPLOYEE.emp_name : "Not an Employee" }); } return model; } For some reason the u variable in the foreach loop is always null. I've stepped through the code and the users collection is always populated. The table entity for db.aspnet_Users is the users table that comes with asp.net membership services. I've only added a couple associations to it. edit : image of debugger

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  • How can I control UISlider Value Changed-events frequncy?

    - by Albert
    I'm writing an iPhone app that is using two uisliders to control values that are sent using coreBluetooth. If I move the sliders quickly one value freezes at the receiver, presumably because the Value Changed events trigger so often that the write-commands stack up and eventually get thrown away. How can I make sure the events don't trigger too often? Edit: Here is a clarification of the problem; the bluetooth connection sends commands every 105ms. If the user generates a bunch of events during that time they seem to que up. I would like to throw away any values generated between the connection events and just send one every 105ms. This is basically what I'm doing right now: -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } What I'm asking is how to implement something like -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; if (105msHasPassed) { int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } }

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  • Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

    - by Oded
    I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

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  • How to direct link to an attribute set?

    - by monocat
    I have created attributes; “Shop by Type” and “Shop by Color”. They work great within the layered navigation and extended search. I’ve designed graphics and placed them in the home page and would like to link to the respective attribute’s assigned products. Been searching the webs, but so far have been unsuccessful. If there’s no direct possible way, the next method would be creating cms pages and linking to it directly. How can I display products that are assigned to a specific attribute? Specifically “Multiple Select” types. I know you guys prefer at least some attempts, but as mentioned, been playing with it with no luck. I would appreciate some kind of starting point. Happy Holidays! Edit: I was able to put together this code that lists all the products assigned to said category id. Tried to filter it down where it only displays products that have an assigned same attribute with no luck yet. Any ideas? <?php $cat_id = 123; // category id $category = Mage::getModel('catalog/category')->load($cat_id); $_products = $category->getProductCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect('shop_by_color'); if (($this->getProductCollection()) && $_products->getSize()): ?> By the way, $cat_id is a sub category of root. Is there an easier way to point to it instead of using direct id number?

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  • assigning selected="selected" to dynamic option list

    - by leemjac
    In an "edit article" page i have a select list which displays author first and last name, as well as authorId as the value. As well as the article context and headline and so on (fetched with a different method) - though this method also holds the authorId of the specific article. I need to have the Author of the Article selected in the option list, instead of it defaulting to the first option in the select list. what i have: echo''; //loop through author names in option list $authors_name foreach($authors_name as $nameRow){ echo'<option class="authorId" value = "' . $nameRow['AuthorID'] . '">'. $nameRow['FirstName'].' '.$nameRow['LastName'] .''; } echo'</select>'; and the jquery: var currID = ('#selectAuthor').val(); if(('.authorId').val() == currID){ $('.authorId').addClass('new_class') $('.new_class').prop('selected',true); } OR var currID = ('#selectAuthor').val(); if($("select option[value=currID]").attr('selected','selected')); Any help would be greatly appreciated, I hope what I am trying to do is clear. Thanks in advance I have simplified it with just regular input and checked it in jsfiddle.net here is the HTML '; <option value = "2">Name val 2</option> <option value = "5">Name val 5</option> <option value = "1">Name val 1</option> and here is the jquery var currID = $('#selectAuthor').val(); if($("select option[value='+currID+']").prop('selected',true));? and even then it doesn't apply selected="selected" to option with value="1"

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  • How do I stop Chrome from yellowing my site's input boxes?

    - by davebug
    Among other text and visual aids on a form submission, post-validation, I'm coloring my input boxes red to signify the interactive area needing attention. On Chrome (and for Google Toolbar users) the auto-fill feature re-colors my input forms yellow. Here's the complex issue: I want auto-complete allowed on my forms, as it speeds users logging in. I am going to check into the ability to turn the autocomplete attribute to off if/when there's an error triggered, but it is a complex bit of coding to programmatically turn off the auto-complete for the single effected input on a page. This, to put it simply, would be a major headache. So to try to avoid that issue, is there any simpler method of stopping Chrome from re-coloring the input boxes? [edit] I tried the !important suggestion below and it had no effect. I have not yet checked Google Toolbar to see if the !important attribute woudl work for that. As far as I can tell, there isn't any means other than using the autocomplete attribute (which does appear to work).

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  • Can I use Eclipse JDT to create new 'working copies' of source files in memory only?

    - by RYates
    I'm using Eclipse JDT to build a Java refactoring platform, for exploring different refactorings in memory before choosing one and saving it. I can create collections of working copies of the source files, edit them in memory, and commit the changes to disk using the JDT framework. However, I also want to generate new 'working copy' source files in memory as part of refactorings, and only create the corresponding real source file if I commit the working copy. I have seen various hints that this is possible, e.g. http://www.jarvana.com/jarvana/view/org/eclipse/jdt/doc/isv/3.3.0-v20070613/isv-3.3.0-v20070613.jar!/guide/jdt%5Fapi%5Fmanip.htm says "Note that the compilation unit does not need to exist in the Java model in order for a working copy to be created". So far I have only been able to create a new real file, i.e. ICompilationUnit newICompilationUnit = myPackage.createCompilationUnit(newName, "package piffle; public class Baz{private int i=0;}", false, null); This is not what I want. Does anyone know how to create a new 'working copy' source file, that does not appear in my file system until I commit it? Or any other mechanism to achieve the same thing?

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  • iPhone inputting NSUserDefaults into a UITextField

    - by Rob
    I am writing a program where I where the first time a user runs it - they will have to fill out about 10 different UITextFields. I am trying to save the fields so that on subsequent runs of the program that whatever they previously put will already be displayed in those UITextFields so the wont have to re-input it in - unless they want to edit something in which case they still have that option. I think that I have figured out a good way to save the strings using NSUserDefaults but now I am trying to figure out how to have those fields populate a UITextField - it doesnt seem as easy as if they were UILabels. This is the route I am attempting: // in the viewDidLoad portion. NSUserDefaults *userData = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; //Hooks. NSString *placeHolderName = [userData stringForKey:@"name"]; txtName.text = @"%@", placeHolderName; When I do this, it simply displays the '%@' in the textfields. I want whatever variable being held by placeHolderName to be automatically put into that UITextField. Is this possible?

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  • Beginner Question on traversing a EF4 model

    - by user564577
    I have a basic EF4 model with two entities. I'm using Self Tracking Entities Client has ClientAddresses relationship on clientkey = clientkey. (1 to many) How do i get a list/collection of client entities (STE) and their addresses (STE) but only ones where they live in a particular state or some such filter on the address??? This seems to filter and bring back clients but doesnt bring back addresses. var j = from client in context.Clients where client.ClientAddresses.All(c => c.ZIP == "80923") select client; I cant get this to create the Addresses because ClientAddresses is IEnumerable and it needs a TrackableCollection var query = from t1 in context.Clients join t2 in context.ClientAddresses on t1.ClientKey equals t2.ClientKey where t2.ZIP == "80923" select new Client { FirstName = t1.FirstName, LastName = t1.LastName, IsEnabled = t1.IsEnabled, ClientKey = t1.ClientKey, ChangeUser = t1.ChangeUser, ChangeDate = t1.ChangeDate, ClientAddresses = from a in t1.ClientAddresses select new ClientAddress { AddressKey = a.AddressKey, AddressLine1 = a.AddressLine1, AddressLine2 = a.AddressLine2, AddressTypeCode = a.AddressTypeCode, City = a.City, ClientKey = a.ClientKey, State = a.State, ZIP = a.ZIP } }; Any pointers would be appreciated. Thanks Edit: This seems to work.... var j = from client in context.Clients.Include("ClientAddresses") where client.ClientAddresses.Any(c => c.ZIP == "80923") select client;

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  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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  • Can't get node.js built on cygwin

    - by mwt
    Following the instructions here: https://github.com/ry/node/wiki/Building-node.js-on-Cygwin-(Windows) I've tried installing on two machines, either of which I'd be happy to get up and running. WinXP On 'make', I get: Build failed: -> task failed <err #2>: {task: libv8.a SConstruct -> libv8.a} According to the instructions, this is caused by having $SHELL set to a Windows style path, but I've set it to /bin/bash and get the same error. Win7 On './configure', I get: $ ./configure Checking for program g++ or c++ : /usr/bin/g++ Checking for program cpp : /usr/bin/cpp Checking for program ar : /usr/bin/ar Checking for program ranlib : /usr/bin/ranlib Checking for g++ : ok Checking for program gcc or cc : /usr/bin/gcc 0 [main] python 1092 C:\bin\python.exe: *** fatal error - unable to remap \\?\C:\lib\python2.6\lib-dynload\_functools.dll to same address as parent: 0x360000 != 0x3E0000 Stack trace: Frame Function Args 002891E8 6102749B (002891E8, 00000000, 00000000, 00000000) 002894D8 6102749B (61177B80, 00008000, 00000000, 61179977) 0028A508 61004AFB (611A136C, 61241CF4, 00360000, 003E0000) End of stack trace 0 [main] python 3536 fork: child 1092 - died waiting for dll loading, errno 11 /Users/Michael/Desktop/node/wscript:177: error: could not configure a c compiler! I've run 'rebaseall' and restarted the machine but still get that error. Edit: Ok, rebaseall was apparently erroring on some mingw stuff, so I edited the rebaseall script to fix that, and now it configures on Win7. The new problem is that it emits the exact same error as my XP machine now when I try to make. This is on tag v0.3.5.

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  • PowerPoint PlugIn does not read defaults from .dll.config file

    - by Nick T
    I'm working on a very simple PowerPoint plugin, and I'm quite a bit stumped. In my settings.settings file, I have configured a setting "StartPath", which references where the PowerPoint plugin will navigate to using a Browser component. After I compile the application, and run the installer generated by the Setup project, the application is installed and uses the default value in the settings file. However, if I edit the application.dll.config file, the plugin still uses the old values. How can I set things up such that the plugin references the .dll.config file and not its default settings? The code to access the settings is listed below, including the other variants I have tried: //Attempt 1 string location = MyApplication.Properties.Settings.Default.StartPath; //Attempt 2 string location = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["StartPath"]; //Attempt 3: Configuration element is inaccessible due to its protection level string applicationName = Environment.GetCommandLineArgs()[0] + ".exe"; string exePath = System.IO.Path.Combine(Environment.CurrentDirectory, applicationName); Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(exePath); string location = config.AppSettings["StartPath"];

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  • Incrementing value by one over a lot of rows

    - by Andy Gee
    Edit: I think the answer to my question lies in the ability to set user defined variables in MySQL through PHP - the answer by Multifarious has pointed me in this direction Currently I have a script to cycle over 10M records, it's very slow and it goes like this: I first get a block of 1000 results in an array similar to this: $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>46732, 'db_id'=>5532); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>12324, 'db_id'=>1234); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>45235, 'db_id'=>8345); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>75543, 'db_id'=>2562); I then cycle through them one by one and update the record $mult = count($matches)*2; foreach($matches as $m) { $rank++; $score = (($m[quality_rank] + $rank)/($mult))*100; $s = "UPDATE `packages_sorted` SET `price_rank` = '".$rank."', `deal_score` = '".$score."' WHERE `db_id` = '".$m[db_id]."' LIMIT 1"; } It seems like this is a very slow way of doing it but I can't find another way to increment the field price_rank by one each time. Can anyone suggest a better method. Note: Although I wouldn't usually store this kind of value in a database I really do need on this occasion for comparison search queries later on in the project. Any help would be kindly appreciated :)

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  • Procedure expects parameter which was not supplied.

    - by Tony Peterson
    I'm getting the error when accessing a Stored Procedure in SQL Server Server Error in '/' Application. Procedure or function 'ColumnSeek' expects parameter '@template', which was not supplied. This is happening when I call a Stored Procedure with a parameter through .net's data connection to sql (System.data.SqlClient), even though I am supplying the parameter. Here is my code. SqlConnection sqlConn = new SqlConnection(connPath); sqlConn.Open(); // METADATA RETRIEVAL string sqlCommString = "QCApp.dbo.ColumnSeek"; SqlCommand metaDataComm = new SqlCommand(sqlCommString, sqlConn); metaDataComm.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; SqlParameter sp = metaDataComm.Parameters.Add("@template", SqlDbType.VarChar, 50); sp.Value = Template; SqlDataReader metadr = metaDataComm.ExecuteReader(); And my Stored Procedure is: USE [QCApp] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[ColumnSeek] @template varchar(50) AS EXEC('SELECT Column_Name, Data_Type FROM [QCApp].[INFORMATION_SCHEMA].[COLUMNS] WHERE TABLE_NAME = ' + @template); I'm trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong here. Edit: As it turns out, Template was null because I was getting its value from a parameter passed through the URL and I screwed up the url param passing (I was using @ for and instead of &)

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  • (Rails) Creating multi-dimensional hashes/arrays from a data set...?

    - by humble_coder
    Hi All, I'm having a bit of an issue wrapping my head around something. I'm currently using a hacked version of Gruff in order to accommodate "Scatter Plots". That said, the data is entered in the form of: g.data("Person1",[12,32,34,55,23],[323,43,23,43,22]) ...where the first item is the ENTITY, the second item is X-COORDs, and the third item is Y-COORDs. I currently have a recordset of items from a table with the columns: POINT, VALUE, TIMESTAMP. Due to the "complex" calculations involved I must grab everything using a single query or risk way too much DB activity. That said, I have a list of items for which I need to dynamically collect all data from the recordset into a hash (or array of arrays) for the creation of the data items. I was thinking something like the following: @h={} e = Events.find_by_sql(my_query) e.each do |event| @h["#{event.Point}"][x] = event.timestamp @h["#{event.Point}"][y] = event.value end Obviously that's not the correct syntax, but that's where my brain is going. Could someone clean this up for me or suggest a more appropriate mechanism by which to accomplish this? Basically the main goal is to keep data for each pointname grouped (but remember the recordset has them all). Much appreciated. EDIT 1 g = Gruff::Scatter.new("600x350") g.title = self.name e = Event.find_by_sql(@sql) h ={} e.each do |event| h[event.Point.to_s] ||= {} h[event.Point.to_s].merge!({event.Timestamp.to_i,event.Value}) end h.each do |p| logger.info p[1].values.inspect g.data(p[0],p[1].keys,p[1].values) end g.write(@chart_file)

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  • What library can I use to do simple, lightweight message passing?

    - by Mike
    I will be starting a project which requires communication between distributed nodes(the project is in C++). I need a lightweight message passing library to pass very simple messages(basically just strings of text) between nodes. The library must have the following characteristics: No external setup required. I need to be able to get everything up-and-running in my code - I don't want to require the user to install any packages or edit any configuration files(other than a list of IP addresses and ports to connect to). The underlying protocol which the library uses must be TCP(or if it is UDP, the library must guarantee the eventual receipt of the message). The library must be able to send and receive arbitrarily large strings(think up to 3GB+). The library needn't support any security mechanisms, fault tolerance, or encryption - I just need it to be fast, simple, and easy to use. I've considered MPI, but concluded it would require too much setup on the user's machine for my project. What library would you recommend for such a project? I would roll my own, but due to time constraints, I don't think that will be feasible.

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  • iOS: display modal view over the top of a UIWebView

    - by Sly
    Is it possible to display a modal view over the top of a UIWebView? I have a UIViewController that loads a WebView. I then want to push a Modal View Controller over the top so that a modal view covers up the WebView temporarily... The WebView is working fine; here's how it's loaded in the View Controller: - (void)loadView { // Initialize webview and add as a subview to LandscapeController's view myWebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]] autorelease]; myWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; myWebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; myWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); myWebView.delegate = self; self.view = myWebView; } If I attempt to load a Modal View controller from within viewDidLoad, however, no modal view appears: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Edit dcftable.html with updated figures NSMutableString *updated_html = [self _updateHTML:@"dcftable"]; // Load altered HTML file as an NSURL request [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:updated_html baseURL:nil]; // If user hasn't paid for dcftable, then invoke the covering modal view if (some_condition) { LandscapeCoverController *landscapeCoverController = [[[LandscapeCoverController alloc] init] autorelease ]; [self presentModalViewController:landscapeCoverController animated:YES]; } } I suspect that there's something that needs to be done with the UIWebView delegate to get it to receive the new modal view...but can't find any discussion or examples of this anywhere...again, the objective is to invoke a modal view that covers over the top of the WebView. Thanks for any thoughts in advance!

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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