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  • Multiple leaf methods problem in composite pattern

    - by Ondrej Slinták
    At work, we are developing an PHP application that would be later re-programmed into Java. With some basic knowledge of Java, we are trying to design everything to be easily re-written, without any headaches. Interesting problem came out when we tried to implement composite pattern with huge number of methods in leafs. What are we trying to achieve (not using interfaces, it's just an example): class Composite { ... } class LeafOne { public function Foo( ); public function Moo( ); } class LeafTwo { public function Bar( ); public function Baz( ); } $c = new Composite( Array( new LeafOne( ), new LeafTwo( ) ) ); // will call method Foo in all classes in composite that contain this method $c->Foo( ); It seems like pretty much classic Composite pattern, but problem is that we will have quite many leaf classes and each of them might have ~5 methods (of which few might be different than others). One of our solutions, which seems to be the best one so far and might actually work, is using __call magic method to call methods in leafs. Unfortunately, we don't know if there is an equivalent of it in Java. So the actual question is: Is there a better solution for this, using code that would be eventually easily re-coded into Java? Or do you recommend any other solution? Perhaps there's some different, better pattern I could use here. In case there's something unclear, just ask and I'll edit this post.

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  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

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  • How do I refer to a windows form control by name (C# / VB)

    - by Alex
    Suppose I have a label control on a windows form called "UserName". How can I refer to that label programmatically using the label name? For example I can do: For each ctrl as Control in TabPage.Controls If ctrl.Name = "UserName" Then ' Do something End If Next This seems quite inefficient. I would like to do something like: TabPage.Controls("UserName").Text = "Something" I did some googling but couldn't find a satisfactory answer. Most suggested looping, some said .NET 2005 doesn't support direct refenece using string name, and FindControl method was asp.net only... EDIT Thanks for the response so far. Here is a bit more detail. I have a windows form with three tabpages, all of which a very similar in design and function i.e. same drop down menus, labels, react in simlar way to events etc. Rather than write code for each event per tabpage I have built a class that controls the events etc. per tabpage. For example, on each tabpage there is a Label called "RecordCounter" that simply shows the number of rows in the datagridview when it is populated by selection of a variable in a drop down menu. So what I want to be able to do is, upon selection of a variable in the drop down menu, the datagridview populates itself with data, and then I simply want to display the number of rows in a label ("RecordCounter"). This is exactly the same process on each tabpage so what I am doing is passing the tabpage to the class and then I want to be able to refer to the "RecordCounter" and then update it. In my class I set the ActivePage property to be the TabPage that the user has selected and then want to be able to do something like: ActivePage.RecordCounter.Text = GetNumberOfRows()

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  • PHP arrays. There must be a simpler method to do this

    - by RisingSun
    I have this array in php returned from db Array ( [inv_templates] = Array ( [0] = Array ( [inven_subgroup_template_id] = 1 [inven_group] = Wires [inven_subgroup] = CopperWires [inven_template_id] = 1 [inven_template_name] = CopperWires6G [constrained] = 0 [value_constraints] = [accept_range] = 2 - 16 [information] = Measured Manual ) [1] = Array ( [inven_subgroup_template_id] = 1 [inven_group] = Wires [inven_subgroup] = CopperWires [inven_template_id] = 2 [inven_template_name] = CopperWires2G [constrained] = 0 [value_constraints] = [accept_range] = 1 - 7 [information] = Measured by Automated Calipers ) ) ) I need to output this kind of multidimensional stuff Array ( [Wires] = Array ( [inv_group_name] = Wires [inv_subgroups] = Array ( [CopperWires] = Array ( [inv_subgroup_id] = 1 [inv_subgroup_name] = CopperWires [inv_templates] = Array ( [CopperWires6G] = Array ( [inv_name] = CopperWires6G [inv_id] = 1 ) [CopperWires2G] = Array ( [inv_name] = CopperWires2G [inv_id] = 2 ) ) ) ) ) ) I currently do this stuff foreach ($data['inv_templates'] as $key = $value) { $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_group_name'] = $value['inven_group']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_subgroup_id'] = $value['inven_subgroup_template_id']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_subgroup_name'] = $value['inven_subgroup']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_templates'][$value['inven_template_name']]['inv_name'] = $value['inven_template_name']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_templates'][$value['inven_template_name']]['inv_id'] = $value['inven_template_id']; } return $processeddata; EDIT : A var_export array ( 'inv_templates' = array ( 0 = array ( 'inven_subgroup_template_id' = '1', 'inven_group' = 'Wires', 'inven_subgroup' = 'CopperWires', 'inven_template_id' = '1', 'inven_template_name' = 'CopperWires6G', 'constrained' = '0', 'value_constraints' = '', 'accept_range' = '2 - 16', 'information' = 'Measured Manual', ), 1 = array ( 'inven_subgroup_template_id' = '1', 'inven_group' = 'Wires', 'inven_subgroup' = 'CopperWires', 'inven_template_id' = '2', 'inven_template_name' = 'CopperWires6G', 'constrained' = '0', 'value_constraints' = '', 'accept_range' = '1 - 7', 'information' = 'Measured by Automated Calipers', ), ), ) The foreach is almost unreadable. There must be a simpler way

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  • How to set the the height of cell progamatically without using nib file ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    This is my program - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Uncomment the following line to display an Edit button in the navigation bar for this view controller. self.title = @"Library"; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Close" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(close:)]; // self.tableView.rowHeight = 80; } -(void)close:(id)sender { // } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; UILabel *dateLabel = [[UILabel alloc]init]; dateLabel.frame = CGRectMake(85.0f, 6.0f, 200.0f, 20.0f); dateLabel.tag = tag1; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator]; cell.contentView.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 80.0f); [cell.contentView addSubview:dateLabel]; [dateLabel release]; } // Set up the cell... //[(UILabel *)[cell viewWithTag:tag1] setText:@"Date"]; cell.textLabel.text = @"Date"; return cell; } I am setting the frame size of cell in tableView: but the cell is in default size only. I mean the height I set was 80 but it was not set as 80 height. How can I make it. Thank You

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  • Setting Session/Cookie via ajax request made on other website

    - by user596805
    Hi, That's my problem: I have an website, example.com, in which index.html file a introduced a <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> You can see, that this is on other web server. In the js.js I have some data that I want to send to php. For that, I am using Ajax. So, I made a request to "website.net/data.php" using method get. In data.php file everything is ok,I received the value, but I want to set a cookie which value is what I received through ajax. Here is the problem. The setcookie function says that the cookie was set, but when I check in the browser, there's no cookie! It works fine if the index.html file where I use <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> is hosted on the same domain where I am making the request. If it is on another domain, it doesn't work anymore. I have read something about Ajax cross site, but I don't want to send something back to example.com. All I want is to send some data from example.com to website.net and then setting a cookie based on that value. Thank you very much, and sorry for my English! Later edit: I am not used with this website. From the example.net I take a single value. On website.net I receive that value, I check if it's not already a cookie set, if it's not, I set it. On the same page, website.net, I use this cookie too.

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  • Drupal 6 Validation for Form Callback Function

    - by Wade
    I have a simple form with a select menu on the node display page. Is there an easy way to validate the form in my callback function? By validation I don't mean anything advanced, just to check that the values actually existed in the form array. For example, without ajax, if my select menu has 3 items and I add a 4th item and try to submit the form, drupal will give an error saying something similar to "an illegal choice was made, please contact the admin." With ajax this 4th item you created would get saved into the database. So do I have to write validation like if ($select_item > 0 && $select_item <= 3) { //insert into db } Or is there an easier way that will check that the item actually existed in the form array? I'm hoping there is since without ajax, drupal will not submit the form if it was manipulated. Thanks. EDIT: So I basically need this in my callback function? $form_state = array('storage' => NULL, 'submitted' => FALSE); $form_build_id = $_POST['form_build_id']; $form = form_get_cache($form_build_id, $form_state); $args = $form['#parameters']; $form_id = array_shift($args); $form_state['post'] = $form['#post'] = $_POST; $form['#programmed'] = $form['#redirect'] = FALSE; drupal_process_form($form_id, $form, $form_state); To get $_POST['form_build_id'], I sent it as a data param, is that right? Where I use form_get_cache, looks like there is no data. Kind of lost now.

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  • In Java, is there a gain in using interfaces for complex models?

    - by Gnoupi
    The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public method from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations.

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  • Hard coded contents in SVG Editor is not appearing?

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I'm using this: http://code.google.com/p/svg-edit/ I put a hard coded code inside the svgcanvas div html tag: <div id="svgcanvas"> <svg xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" id="svgroot" height="480" width="640"><svg xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" viewbox="0 0 640 480" id="svgcontent"><g style="pointer-events: all;"><title style="pointer-events: inherit;">Layer 1</title><ellipse ry="69" rx="90" style="pointer-events: inherit;" stroke-width="5" stroke="#000000" fill="#FF0000" id="svg_1" cy="156.5" cx="286"></ellipse></g></svg><g id="selectorParentGroup"><rect style="pointer-events: none;" display="none" stroke-width="0.5" stroke="#22C" fill-opacity="0.15" fill="#22C" id="selectorRubberBand"></rect></g></svg> </div> My expected output is that it should draw the example svg code in there but it didn't. Even if I reload the page it will still not appear. How can I make it appear? Thanks

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  • Confirm bug Magento 1.4 'show/hide editor' in CMS

    - by latvian
    Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

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  • Unit Testing - Algorithm or Sample based ?

    - by ohadsc
    Say I'm trying to test a simple Set class public IntSet : IEnumerable<int> { Add(int i) {...} //IEnumerable implementation... } And suppose I'm trying to test that no duplicate values can exist in the set. My first option is to insert some sample data into the set, and test for duplicates using my knowledge of the data I used, for example: //OPTION 1 void InsertDuplicateValues_OnlyOneInstancePerValueShouldBeInTheSet() { var set = new IntSet(); //3 will be added 3 times var values = new List<int> {1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5}; foreach (int i in values) set.Add(i); //I know 3 is the only candidate to appear multiple times int counter = 0; foreach (int i in set) if (i == 3) counter++; Assert.AreEqual(1, counter); } My second option is to test for my condition generically: //OPTION 2 void InsertDuplicateValues_OnlyOneInstancePerValueShouldBeInTheSet() { var set = new IntSet(); //The following could even be a list of random numbers with a duplicate var values = new List<int> { 1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5}; foreach (int i in values) set.Add(i); //I am not using my prior knowledge of the sample data //the following line would work for any data CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(new HashSet<int>(values), set); } Of course, in this example, I conveniently have a set implementation to check against, as well as code to compare collections (CollectionAssert). But what if I didn't have either ? This is the situation when you are testing your real life custom business logic. Granted, testing for expected conditions generically covers more cases - but it becomes very similar to implementing the logic again (which is both tedious and useless - you can't use the same code to check itself!). Basically I'm asking whether my tests should look like "insert 1, 2, 3 then check something about 3" or "insert 1, 2, 3 and check for something in general" EDIT - To help me understand, please state in your answer if you prefer OPTION 1 or OPTION 2 (or neither, or that it depends on the case, etc )

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  • Differences in accessing resources between Simulator and Device?

    - by Tony
    Is there some difference between the way that bundle resources can be accessed on the iPhone simulator versus a device (in my case, an iPad)? I am able to access a file on the former, but not the latter. NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@",[[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath], @"/AppResources/html/pages/quickHelp.html"]; BOOL fileExists = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]; // fileExists == YES in the debugger on both the simulator and the device NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"AppResources/html/pages/%@", contentsFileName]; NSString *pathForURL = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:path ofType:@"html"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:pathForURL isDirectory:NO]; The code above works fine in the simulator, but on the device pathForResource:path returns nil, so the last line throws a 'nil string parameter' exception. Am I missing something obvious? edit: Of course, in the above @"quickHelp" is being passed in the contentsFileName var. edit2: if it makes any difference, in my build settings "Base SDK" is set to "iPhone Device 4.0", and "iPhone OS Deployment Target" is set to "iPhone OS 3.1.3". Any other settings that might have an influence?

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  • How to hide canvas content from parent rounded corners in any webkit for Mac?

    - by Jose Rui Santos
    I have a parent div with rounded corners that contains a canvas: <div id="box"> <canvas width="300px" height="300px"></canvas> </div>? #box { width: 150px; height: 150px; background-color: blue; border-radius: 50px; overflow: hidden; }? The canvas renders a red rectangle that overflows the parent. As expected, this is what I get in all browsers: The problem: However, for webkit browsers running in Mac OS lion (I tested Safari 5.1.5 and Chrome 19), the canvas is still visible in the round corners: Interestingly, this problem seems to happen only when the inner element is a canvas. For any other child element, the content is correctly hidden. One workaround would be to apply the same rounded corners to the canvas itself, but unfortunately this is not possible, since I need to animate the canvas relative position. Another workaround that should work, is to redraw the canvas in a clipped region that resembles the rounded corners shape, but I would prefer a cleaner CSS3 solution. So, does one know how to fix this for Safari and Chrome on Mac? EDIT: Problem also happens in Chrome on Win7 jsFiddle here

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  • Read a text file

    - by Cyprus106
    I have looked everywhere and surprisingly can't find a good solution to this! I've got the following code that is supposed to read a text file and display it's contents. But it's not reading, for some reason. Am I doing something wrong? FTR, I can't use PHP for this. It's gotta be Javascript. var txtFile = new XMLHttpRequest(); txtFile.open("GET", "http://www.mysite.com/todaysTrivia.txt", true); txtFile.send(null); txtFile.onreadystatechange = function() { if (txtFile.readyState == 4) { // Makes sure the document is ready to parse. alert(txtFile.responseText+" - "+txtFile.status); //if (txtFile.status === 200) { // Makes sure it's found the file. var doc = document.getElementById("Trivia-Widget"); if (doc) { doc.innerHTML = txtFile.responseText ; } //} } txtFile.send(null); } Any good ideas what I'm doing wrong? It just keeps givimg me a zero status. EDIT: I guess it would be a good idea to explain why I need this code. It's basically a widget that other folks can put on their own websites that grabs a line of text from my website and displays it on theirs. The problem is that it really can't be server-side since I've got zero control over everyone else's sites that use this.

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  • Why is my Android app force closing when I try to check if an EditText has a double

    - by user336861
    Scanner scanner = new Scanner(lapsPerMile_st); if (!scanner.hasNextDouble()) { Context context = getApplicationContext(); String msg = "Please Enter Digits and Decmials Only"; int duration = Toast.LENGTH_LONG; Toast.makeText(context, msg, duration).show(); lapsPerMileEditText.setText(""); return; } else { //Edit box has only digits, Set data and display stats data.setLapsPerMile(Integer.parseInt(lapsPerMile_st)); lapsRunLabel.setVisibility(0); lapsRunTextView.setText(Integer.toString(data.getLapsRun())); milesRunLabel.setVisibility(0); milesRunTextView.setText(Double.toString(data.getLapsRun()/data.getLapsPerMile())); } <EditText android:id="@+id/mileCount" android:layout_width="100dp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginTop="110dp" android:inputType="numberDecimal" android:maxLength="4" /> For some reason if I enter a non decimal number such as 3, or 5, it works fine but when I enter a floating point such as 3.4 or 5.8 it force closes. I cant seem to figure out whats going on. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Save object in CoreData

    - by John
    I am using CoreData with iPhone SDK. I am making a notes app. I have a table with note objects displayed from my model. When a button is pressed I want to save the text in the textview to the object being edited. How do I do this? I've been trying several things but none seem to work. Thanks EDIT: NSManagedObjectContext *context = [fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; NSManagedObject *newManagedObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newManagedObject setValue:detailViewController.textView.text forKey:@"noteText"]; NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } The above code saves it correctly but it saves it as a new object. I want it to be saved as the one I have selected in my tableView.

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  • Best practice for debug Asserts during Unit testing

    - by Steve Steiner
    Does heavy use of unit tests discourage the use of debug asserts? It seems like a debug assert firing in the code under test implies the unit test shouldn't exist or the debug assert shouldn't exist. "There can be only one" seems like a reasonable principle. Is this the common practice? Or do you disable your debug asserts when unit testing, so they can be around for integration testing? Edit: I updated 'Assert' to debug assert to distinguish an assert in the code under test from the lines in the unit test that check state after the test has run. Also here is an example that I believe shows the dilema: A unit test passes invalid inputs for a protected function that asserts it's inputs are valid. Should the unit test not exist? It's not a public function. Perhaps checking the inputs would kill perf? Or should the assert not exist? The function is protected not private so it should be checking it's inputs for safety.

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  • MATLAB: svds() not converging

    - by Paul
    So using MATLAB's svds() function on some input data as such: [U, S, V, flag] = svds(data, nSVDs, 'L') I noticed that from run to run with the same data, I'd get drastically different output SVD sizes from run to run. When I checked whether 'flag' was set, I found that it was, indicating that the SVDs had not converged. My normal system here would be that if it really needs to converge, I'd do something like this: flag = 1 svdOpts = struct('tol', 1e-10, 'maxit', 600, 'disp', 0); while flag: if svdOpts.maxit > 1e6 error('There''s a real problem here.') end [U, S, V, flag] = svds(data, nSVDs, 'L', svdOpts) svdOpts.maxit = svdOpts.maxit*2 end But from what I can tell, when you use 'L' as the third argument, the fourth argument is ignored, meaning I just have to deal with the fact that it's not converging? I'm not even really sure how to use the 'sigma' argument in place of the 'L' argument. I've also tried reducing the number of SVDs calculated to no avail. Any help on this matter would be much appreciated. EDIT While following up on the comments below, I found that the problem had to do with the way I was building my data matrices. Turned out I had accidentally inverted a matrix and had an input of size (4000x1) rather than (20x200), which was what was refusing to converge. I also did some more timing tets and found that the fourth argument was not, in fact, being ignored, so that's on me. Thanks for the help guys.

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  • Using Generics to return a literal string or from Dictionary<string, object>

    - by Mike
    I think I outsmarted myself this time. Feel free to edit the title also I could not think of a good one. I am reading from a file and then in that file will be a string because its like an xml file. But in the file will be a literal value or a "command" to get the value from the workContainer so <Email>[email protected]</Email> or <Email>[? MyEmail ?]</Email> What I wanted to do instead of writing ifs all over the place to put it in a generic function so logic is If Container command grab from container else grab string and convert to desired type Its up to the user to ensure the file is ok and the type is correct so another example is so <Answer>3</Answer> or <Answer>[? NumberOfSales ?]</Answer> This is the procedure I started to work on public class WorkContainer:Dictionary<string, object> { public T GetKeyValue<T>(string Parameter) { if (Parameter.StartsWith("[? ")) { string key = Parameter.Replace("[? ", "").Replace(" ?]", ""); if (this.ContainsKey(key)) { return (T)this[key]; } else { // may throw error for value types return default(T); } } else { // Does not Compile if (typeof(T) is string) { return Parameter } // OR return (T)Parameter } } } The Call would be mail.To = container.GetKeyValue<string>("[email protected]"); or mail.To = container.GetKeyValue<string>("[? MyEmail ?]"); int answer = container.GetKeyValue<int>("3"); or answer = container.GetKeyValue<int>("[? NumberOfSales ?]"); But it does not compile?

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  • AWK: compare apache dates without using regular expression

    - by smallmeans
    I'm writing a loganalysis application and wanted to grab apache log records between two certain dates. Assume that a date is formated as such: 22/Dec/2009:00:19 (day/month/year:hour:minute) Currently, I'm using a regular expression to replace the month name with its numeric value, remove the separators, so the above date is converted to: 221220090019 making a date comparison trivial.. but.. Running a regex on each record for large files, say, one containing a quarter million records, is extremely costly.. is there any other method not involving regex substitution? Thanks in advance Edit: here's the function doing the convertion/comparison function dateInRange(t, from, to) { sub(/[[]/, "", t); split(t, a, "[/:]"); match("JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec", a[2]); a[2] = sprintf("%02d", (RSTART + 2) / 3); s = a[3] a[2] a[1] a[4] a[5]; return s >= from && s <= to; } "from" and "to" are the intervals in the aforementioned format, and "t" is the raw apache log date/time field (e.g [22/Dec/2009:00:19:36)

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  • Select multi-select form from array

    - by Budove
    Here's the issue. I have a database column called pymnt_meth_pref, which contains a comma separated string of payment methods chosen from a multiselect form. <td>Payment Methods Used:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Cash">I can pay with cash.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Check">I can pay by check.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Credit Card">I can pay by credit card.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Paypal">I can pay with Paypal.<br /> </td> This array is posted to a variable and turned into a comma separated string if (isset($_POST['pyment_meth_pref'])) $pymntmethpref = implode(", ", $_POST['pyment_meth_pref']); if (isset($_POST['pyment_meth_acc'])) $pymntmethacc = implode(", ", $_POST['pyment_meth_acc']); This is then inserted into the database as a comma separated string. What I would like to do, is take this string and apply the values to the original form when the user goes back to the form as 'pre-selected' checkboxes, indicated that the user has already selected those values previously, and keeping those values in the database if they choose to edit any other information in the form. I'm assuming this would need to be done with javascript but if there is a way to do it with PHP I'd rather do it that way.

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  • How to map oracle timestamp to appropriate java type in hibernate?

    - by jschoen
    I am new to hibernate and I am stumped. In my database I have tables that have a columns of TIMESTAMP(6). I am using Netbeans 6.5.1 and when I generate the hibernate.reveng.xml, hbm.xml files, and pojo files it sets the columns to be of type Serializable. This is not what I expected, nor what I want them to be. I found this post on the hibernate forums saying to place: in the hibernate.reveng.xml file. In Netbeans you are not able to generate the mappings from this file (it creates a new one every time) and it does not seem to have the ability to re-generate them from the file either (at least according to this it is slated to be available in version 7). So I am trying to figure out what to do. I am more inclined to believe I am doing something wrong since I am new to this, and it seems like it would be a common problem for others. So what am I doing wrong? If I am not doing anything wrong, how do I work around this? I am using Netbeans 6.5, Oracle 10G, and I believe Hibernate 3 (it came with my netbeans). Edit: Meant to say I found this stackoverflow question, but it is really a different problem.

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  • Best way to use Google's hosted jQuery, but fall back to my hosted library on Google fail

    - by Nosredna
    What would be a good way to attempt to load the hosted jQuery at Google (or other Google hosted libs), but load my copy of jQuery if the Google attempt fails? I'm not saying Google is flaky. There are cases where the Google copy is blocked (apparently in Iran, for instance). Would I set up a timer and check for the jQuery object? What would be the danger of both copies coming through? Not really looking for answers like "just use the Google one" or "just use your own." I understand those arguments. I also understand that the user is likely to have the Google version cached. I'm thinking about fallbacks for the cloud in general. Edit: This part added... Since Google suggests using google.load to load the ajax libraries, and it performs a callback when done, I'm wondering if that's the key to serializing this problem. I know it sounds a bit crazy. I'm just trying to figure out if it can be done in a reliable way or not. Update: jQuery now hosted on Microsoft's CDN. http://www.asp.net/ajax/cdn/

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  • Behavior of Struts2 and convention-plugin when there is Index(extends ActionSupport)

    - by hanishi
    We have an Action class named 'Index' immediately under com.example.common.action and is annotated @ParentPackage('default') which is declared in package directive in struts.xml and has "/" for its namespace and extends "struts-default". It also declares @Result so that it responses with jsp files corresponding the string values returned by its execute() method. In our struts.xml, the following struts setting is configured along with other necessary configurations that are needed for convention-plugin. <constant name="struts.action.extension" value=","/> When accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, the request apparently hits this Index class and the contents of the jsp declared in the Index's @Result section gets returned. However, if we provide /my_context/, we receive the following error: HTTP Status 404-There is no Action mapped for namespace[/] and action name [] associated with context path [/my_context]. We want to know the reason why accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, where none_existing_path has no matching action, can fallback to Index class, but error is returned when when the URL requested is just /my_context/. Currently, our convention-plugin settings are declared as follows: <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage" value="com.example"/> <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators" value="action"/> Strangely, if we changed the value of the struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage to om.example.common, in which the aforementioned Index file can be immediately found by narrowing the search scope, requesting /my_context/ displays the content of the jsps declared in @Result section of the Index class. However, as our action classes are distributed throughout the com.example.[a-z].action packages, where [a-z] represents the large volume of directories we have in our package structure, we cannot use this trick as a workaround. We have also tried placing index.jsp at the top level of the class path, and have the index.jsp redirect to /my_context/index, which worked but not what we want. Could this be a bug? We appreciate your responses. Thank you in advance. EDIT: JIRA registered, problem solved (from Struts 2.3.12 up)

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  • Telerik ASP.NET MVC2 Grid Delete Function with compound key.

    - by Dani
    I have a grid with a compound key: OrderId, ItemID. When I update the grid - the public ActionResult UpdateItemGridAjax(int OrderID, string ItemID) Gets both values from the grid. When I delete a row I get only the first one: public ActionResult DeleteItemGridAjax(int OrderID, string ItemID) Why is it happens and how can I get the ItemId value of the deleted row ? Grid Definition: <%= Html.Telerik().Grid<ItemsInOrderPOCO>() .Name("ItemsInOrderGrid") .DataKeys(dataKeys => { dataKeys.Add(e => e.OrderID); dataKeys.Add(e => e.ItemID); }) .ToolBar(commands => commands.Insert()) .DataBinding(dataBinding => { dataBinding.Ajax() //Ajax binding .Select("SelectItemGridAjax", "Orders", new { OrderID = Model.myOrder.OrderID }) .Insert("InsertItemGridAjax", "Orders", new { OrderID = Model.myOrder.OrderID }) .Update("UpdateItemGridAjax", "Orders") .Delete("DeleteItemGridAjax", "Orders"); }) .Columns(c => { c.Bound(o => o.ItemID); c.Bound(o => o.OrderID).Column.Visible = false; c.Bound(o => o.ItemDescription); c.Bound(o => o.NumOfItems); c.Bound(o => o.CostOfItem); c.Bound(o => o.TotalCost); c.Bound(o => o.SupplyDate); c.Command(commands => { commands.Edit(); commands.Delete(); }).Width(180).Title("Upadte"); })

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