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  • :include and table aliasing

    - by dondo
    I'm suffering from a variant of the problem described here: ActiveRecord assigns table aliases for association joins fairly unpredictably. The first association to a given table keeps the table name. Further joins with associations to that table use aliases including the association names in the path... but it is common for app developers not to know about [other] joins at coding time. In my case I'm being bitten by a toxic mix of has_many and :include. Many tables in my schema have a state column, and the has_many wants to specify conditions on that column: has_many :foo, :conditions => {:state => 1}. However, since the state column appears in many tables, I disambiguate by explicitly specifying the table name: has_many :foo, :conditions => "this_table.state = 1". This has worked fine until now, when for efficiency I want to add an :include to preload a fairly deep tree of data. This causes the table to be aliased inconsistently in different code paths. My reading of the tickets referenced above is that this problem is not and will not be fixed in Rails 2.x. However, I don't see any way to apply the suggested workaround (to specify the aliased table name explicitly in the query). I'm happy to specify the table alias explicitly in the has_many statement, but I don't see any way to do so. As such, the workaround doesn't appear applicable to this situation (nor, I presume, in many 'named_scope' scenarios). Is there a viable workaround?

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  • Should core application configuration be stored in the database, and if so what should be done to se

    - by Rl
    I'm writing an application around a lot of hierarchical data. Currently the hierarchy is fixed, but it's likely that new items will be added to the hierarchy in the future. (please let them be leaves) My current application and database design is fairly generic and nothing dealing with specific nodes in the hierarchy is hardcoded, with the exception of validation and lookup functions written to retrieve external data from each node's particular database. This pleases me from a design point of view, but I'm nervous at the realization that the entire application rests on a handful of records in the database. I'm also frustrated that I have to enforce certain aspects of data integrity with database triggers rather than by foreign key constraints (an example is where several different nodes in the hierarchy have their own proprietary IDs and I store them in a single column which, when coupled with the node ID can be used to locate the foreign data). I'm starting to wonder whether it may have been appropriate to simply hardcoded these known nodes into the system so that it would be more "type safe" and less generic. How does one know when something should be hardcoded, and when it should be a configuration item? Is it just a cost-benefit analysis of clarity/safety now vs less work later, or am I missing some metric I should be using to determine whether or not this is appropriate. The steps I'm taking to protect these valuable configurations are to add triggers that prevent updates/deletes. The database user that this application uses will only have the ability to manipulate data through stored procedures. What else can I do?

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  • Why isn't the inline element inheriting height from its children?

    - by jbarz
    I'm trying to make a rather complicated grid of images and information (almost like Pinterest). Specifically, I'm trying to inline position one set of <ul>s right after another. I have it working but one aspect is causing issues so I'm trying to ask about this small piece to avoid the complication of the whole problem. In order to horizontally align the images and their information we are using inline <li>s with other inline-block level elements inside of them. Everything works correctly for the most part except that the <li>s have almost no height. HTML and CSS is in JSFiddle here if you want to mess with it in addition to below: HTML: <div> <ul class="Container"> <li> <span class="Item"> <a href="#"><img src="http://jsfiddle.net/img/logo.png"/></a> <span class="Info"> <a href="#">Title One</a> <span class="Details">One Point One</span> </span> </span> </li> <li> <span class="Item"> <a href="#"><img src="http://jsfiddle.net/img/logo.png"/></a> <span class="Info"> <a href="#">Title Two</a> <span class="Details">Two Point One</span> </span> </span> </li> </ul> CSS: .Container { list-style-type:none; } .Container li { background-color:grey; display:inline; text-align:center; } .Container li .Item { border:solid 2px #ccc; display:inline-block; min-height:50px; vertical-align:top; width:170px; } .Container li .Item .Info { display:inline-block; } .Container li .Item .Info a { display:inline-block; width:160px; } If you check out the result in the jsfiddle link you can see that the grey background only encompasses a small strip of the whole <li>. I know that changing the <li> to display:inline-block solves this problem but that isn't feasible for other reasons. So first of all, I'm just looking to see if anyone understands why the inline <li> element doesn't have any height. I can't find anything in the spec that explains this. I know I can't add height to an inline element but any explanation as to why this is happening that might enable me to fix would be great. Secondly, if you inspect the elements using IE's Developer Mode you will see that although the background color is in the correct location, the actual location of the <li>'s bounding box is at the bottom of the container according to hovering over the element. I could deal with this problem if it was at the top in every browser but it apparently varies. NOTE: I don't really care about older browsers in this case but I don't use HTML5 or JavaScript positioning. Thanks.

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  • How to avoid the linebreak inside a word (Static Layout

    - by Addev
    I'm trying to make a text as big as I can making it fit a Rect. basically I use a StaticLayout for pre-calculate the text size and make it fit the Rect's height: // Since the width is fixed for the StaticLayout it should only fit the height while (currentHeight>Rect.getHeight()){ size-=2; } textPaint.setTextSize(size); The problem is that if the Rect is very high, the exit condition is reached but breaking the words (see the capture). Is there a way for avoid this? Goal: Actual: Current code: textSize=MAX_TEXT_SIZE do { if (textSize < mMinTextSize) { Log.i(TAG, "Min reached"); textSize = mMinTextSize; textPaint.setTextSize(textSize); fits = true; } else { textPaint.setTextSize(textSize); StaticLayout layout = new StaticLayout(text, textPaint, targetWidth, Alignment.ALIGN_NORMAL, 1.0, 0, true); layout.draw(canvas); float heightRatio= (float) layout.getHeight() / (float) targetHeight; boolean fitsHeight = heightRatio<= 1f; if (fitsHeight) { fits = true; } else { textSize -= 2; } } Log.i(TAG, "textSize=" + textSize + " fits=" + fits); } while (!fits); thanks

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  • How to secure connection strings in VS?

    - by salvationishere
    I see several others have posted this question, however, none of the solutions I've tried have fixed this yet. I have a 32-bit XP running VS 2008 and I am trying to encrypt my connection string in my web.config file. But I am getting the error: The configuration section '...' was not found. Failed! The command I give it: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VCAspnet_regiis.exe -pe "system.we b/AdventureWorksConnectionString2" -app "/Documents and Settings/Admin/My Docume nts/Visual Studio 2008/Projects/AddFileToSQL2" Also, how does -app map virtual directory? In other words the path above is the directory right below c:. Is this the correct path to use? And AddFileToSQL2 is the name of my project, although it is part of the AddFileToSQL solution. I have this folder web shared with all of the permissions. And the relevant part of my web.config file: <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString2" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Persist Security Info=true; User ID=AdventureWorks;Password=sqlMagic" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" />

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  • getting string.substring(N) not to choke when N > string.length

    - by aape
    I'm writing some code that takes a report from the mainframe and converts it to a spreadsheet. They can't edit the code on the MF to give me a delimited file, so I'm stuck dealing with it as fixed width. It's working okay now, but I need to get it more stable before I release it for testing. My problem is that in any given line of data, say it could have three columns of numbers, each five chars wide at positions 10, 16, and 22. If on this one particular row, there's no data for the last two cols, it won't be padded with spaces; rather, the length of the string will be only 14. So, I can't just blindly have dim s as string = someStream.readline a = s.substring(10, 5) b = s.substring(16, 5) c = s.substring(22, 5) because it'll choke when it substrings past the length of the string. I know I could test the length of the string before processing each row, and I have automated the filling of some of the vsariables using a counter and a loop, and using the counter*theWidthOfTheGivenVariable to jump around, but this project was a dog to start with (come on! turning a report into a spreadsheet?), but there are many different types of rows (it's not just a grid), and the code's getting ugly fast. I'd like this to be clean, clear, and maintainable for the poor sucker that gets this after me. If it matters, here's my code so far (it's really crufty at the moment). You can see some of my/its idiocy in the processSection#data subs So, I'm wondering 1) is there a way baked in to .NET to have string.substring not error when reading past the end of a string without wrapping it in a try...catch? and 2) would it be appropriate in this situation to write a new string class that inherits from string that has a more friendly substring function in it? ETA: Thanks for all the advice and knowledge everyone. I'll go with the extension. Hopefully one of these years, I'll get my chops up enough to pay someone back in kind. :)

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  • Mercurial repository narrow clone?

    - by Berry Langerak
    Hi. I'm currently in the process of moving from Subversion to Mercurial, and I have to say I don't regret that decision. However, when trying to convert my project, I ran into a problem of Mercurial, which I can't seem to get fixed. I have two distinct projects: one is a framework, and the other is an application that relies on that framework. Here's what the repositories look like: The Framework repository: docs/ deploy/ lib/ tests/ The Application repository: application/ config/ lib/ tests/ www/ What I'd like is for the application's lib directory to contain a copy of the frameworks' lib/ directory. I used to do this using svn:externals. Now, I am aware that Mercurial supports the concept of subrepositories, but that doesn't seem like the "correct" solution, as it doesn't actually pull in the lib/ directory like I wanted, as you'll still have to pull and push changes manually. That, plus once you clone the framework repository, you'll get all of it, not just the lib/ directory. I only need the lib/ directory, not the tests, or the docs. Now, I thought up two different solutions to this problem, but I wonder which is the best. The first solution would be to clone the framework in a different directory altogether and create symlink in the application's lib/ directory which points to the framework's lib/ directory. Putting the symlink in .hgignore should make sure all is well, I think? That means that you could edit the frameworks code, and commit that, and you could edit the application's code and commit that, too. The other option is to have multiple repositories. The framework gets pulled as a whole, which means you'll get the docs/, deploy/, test/ etc. directories, which are not needed for usage of the framework. I thought maybe creating a repository purely for the library might be a solution, although I sincerely doubt it, as the Unit Tests are very dependant upon the library itself. Does anyone know a decent solution for this problem?

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  • Link my tag on other website search

    - by kresna kurdang
    This is my search code <div id="search"> <form method="get" action="http://www.other-website.com/search"> <input type="hidden" name="f" value=""> <input type="text" placeholder="Temukan informasi, komunitas & produk yang kamu cari disini" accesskey="s" name="q"> <input type="submit" value="Search"> </form> </div> This is the tag code (display only text "do not link") <?php $posttags = get_the_tags(); if ($posttags) { foreach($posttags as $tag) { echo $tag->name . ' '; } } ?> The code can apply well on the website, but I have to enter text to the search. I just want to place my tag on that search text so my question is How to make fixed word(my tag) automatically placed on search or where I must place the tag code, the search result is mytag linked on @www.other-website.com/search so user do not have to type? I want to search my tag on other website search

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  • can't find what's wrong with my code :(

    - by blood
    the point of my code is for me to press f1 and it will scan 500 pixels down and 500 pixels and put them in a array (it just takes a box that is 500 by 500 of the screen). then after that when i hit end it will click on only on the color black or... what i set it to. anyway it has been doing odd stuff and i can't find why: #include <iostream> #include <windows.h> using namespace std; COLORREF rgb[499][499]; HDC hDC = GetDC(HWND_DESKTOP); POINT main_coner; BYTE rVal; BYTE gVal; BYTE bVal; int red; int green; int blue; int ff = 0; int main() { for(;;) { if(GetAsyncKeyState(VK_F1)) { cout << "started"; int a1 = 0; int a2 = 0; GetCursorPos(&main_coner); int x = main_coner.x; int y = main_coner.y; for(;;) { //cout << a1 << "___" << a2 << "\n"; rgb[a1][a2] = GetPixel(hDC, x, y); a1++; x++; if(x > main_coner.x + 499) { y++; x = main_coner.x; a1 = 0; a2++; } if(y > main_coner.y + 499) { ff = 1; break; } } cout << "done"; break; } if(ff == 1) break; } for(;;) { if(GetAsyncKeyState(VK_END)) { GetCursorPos(&main_coner); int x = main_coner.x; int y = main_coner.y; int a1 = -1; int a2 = -1; for(;;) { x++; a1++; rVal = GetRValue(rgb[a1][a2]); gVal = GetGValue(rgb[a1][a2]); bVal = GetBValue(rgb[a1][a2]); red = (int)rVal; // get the colors into __int8 green = (int)gVal; // get the colors into __int8 blue = (int)bVal; // get the colors into __int8 if(red == 0 && green == 0 && blue == 0) { SetCursorPos(main_coner.x + x, main_coner.y + y); mouse_event(MOUSEEVENTF_LEFTDOWN, 0, 0, 0, 0); Sleep(10); mouse_event(MOUSEEVENTF_LEFTUP, 0, 0, 0, 0); Sleep(100); } if(x > main_coner.x + 499) { a1 = 0; a2++; } if(y > main_coner.y + 499) { Sleep(100000000000); break; } if(GetAsyncKeyState(VK_CONTROL)) { Sleep(100000); break; } } } } for(;;) { if(GetAsyncKeyState(VK_END)) { break; } } return 0; } anyone see what's wrong with my code :( (feel free to add tags)

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  • Android 2.0+ account duplication

    - by Stoyan
    I know that you can setup accounts in Android 2.0+ and thats great but as i have recently found out, it can create duplication. My phone(Sprint HTC hero 2.1-upadate1) comes with HTC Sense and thats great, it also has Peep pre-installed and it asked me when i setup the phone to add a twitter account, and so i did. I can now open peep and it all works, perfect. But I decided i wanted to try the Twitter for Android app. I installed it and it also asked me to create a twitter account, not good. I did create the new account and the app worked just like it was supposed to. Then when i go into my accounts i can see that i have two twitter accounts(the same one). Is this something that can be avoided in the programming or is this something that can be fixed with the os? I also noticed the same for the facebook account. Is there something in the SDK that can prevent this...or combine the accounts after the fact? or is this all completely up to the developers. If its up to the developers then i would really like to see some code/documentation so i can avoid such things.

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  • Allow login from another site

    - by tunmise fasipe
    I have web application where I store users' password and username. If you logon to this site, you can login with the password and username to have access to your profile. There is another option that requires you to login to my site from your site and have your profile within your site. This is because you might already have a site that your clients know you with. This latter part is what I don't know to implement. I have these ideas: Have a fixed IFrame within your site to contain my site: but I am concerned about size/layout since different clients have different layout/size for their content section. I am thinking of how to maintain session too A webservice: I don't know how feasible this is since the Password and ID are on my server. You may have to send them back and forth. It means client would have to code with my API. But I am not just returning data, I have to show them a page that contains the profile details OpenID, Single-SignOn: Just guessing - but the authentication and data resides on my server. there is nothing to access on your side in this case Any other methods/better approach Examples: like login into facebook within my site and still be able to do post updates, receive notifications Facebook implement some of these with IFrame e.g. the Like button

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  • Any workarounds for non-static member array initialization?

    - by TomiJ
    In C++, it's not possible to initialize array members in the initialization list, thus member objects should have default constructors and they should be properly initialized in the constructor. Is there any (reasonable) workaround for this apart from not using arrays? [Anything that can be initialized using only the initialization list is in our application far preferable to using the constructor, as that data can be allocated and initialized by the compiler and linker, and every CPU clock cycle counts, even before main. However, it is not always possible to have a default constructor for every class, and besides, reinitializing the data again in the constructor rather defeats the purpose anyway.] E.g. I'd like to have something like this (but this one doesn't work): class OtherClass { private: int data; public: OtherClass(int i) : data(i) {}; // No default constructor! }; class Foo { private: OtherClass inst[3]; // Array size fixed and known ahead of time. public: Foo(...) : inst[0](0), inst[1](1), inst[2](2) {}; }; The only workaround I'm aware of is the non-array one: class Foo { private: OtherClass inst0; OtherClass inst1; OtherClass inst2; OtherClass *inst[3]; public: Foo(...) : inst0(0), inst1(1), inst2(2) { inst[0]=&inst0; inst[1]=&inst1; inst[2]=&inst2; }; }; Edit: It should be stressed that OtherClass has no default constructor, and that it is very desirable to have the linker be able to allocate any memory needed (one or more static instances of Foo will be created), using the heap is essentially verboten. I've updated the examples above to highlight the first point.

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  • C++ new memory allocation fragmentation

    - by tamulj
    I was trying to look at the behavior of the new allocator and why it doesn't place data contiguously. My code: struct ci { char c; int i; } template <typename T> void memTest() { T * pLast = new T(); for(int i = 0; i < 20; ++i) { T * pNew = new T(); cout << (pNew - pLast) << " "; pLast = pNew; } } So I ran this with char, int, ci. Most allocations were a fixed length from the last, sometimes there were odd jumps from one available block to another. sizeof(char) : 1 Average Jump: 64 bytes sizeof(int): 4 Average Jump: 16 sizeof(ci): 8 (int has to be placed on a 4 byte align) Average Jump: 9 Can anyone explain why the allocator is fragmenting memory like this? Also why is the jump for char so much larger then ints and a structure that contains both an int and char.

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  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

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  • Some ASP.NET and Access

    - by Fazleh
    Good Day all, I have a big problem but i think its minor for you guys in Stackoverflow. I am creating a web application that has two main parts. The Payment part and Requisition part. It backbone is using access and the script is in ASP.NET. I managed to sort out most of the application. But I have been having a few problems. I have pasted the link to the project in http://www.mediafire.com/download/p09fefreifidud3/Inyatsi.rar so it will be easy for someone to see what I am blabbing about. Now for my problems: The AddRequisition.aspx/AddPayment.aspx: both have a reference number. I wanted it to be unique number(but not a primary key). I wanted it to be in the following format: DDMMYY(TransactionNo)(UserID) eg: 24061101PK. I have tried and tried but have not been able to sort it out. The AmountINWords gets the value from Amount. It converts the Amount into words. Thats not all. It picks what currncy was picked in the CurrencyPaidIn and pust the respective currency inside. eg. 123.45 USD becomes One Hundred and twenty three dollars and forty five cents. I tried using queries but as you will see that went all wrong. Those are the only two things that I cant seem to get my head around. I do know that there are some things that are not conventional ASP.NET and some text boxes are not the right size. I was thinking of sorting out those after I get those two fixed because they are simple to do. I really need some help with this application please. If someone can just have a look at the code and add a few things here and there. Thanks in advance. Faz

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  • Binding a TextBox's Width to its parent container's ActualWidth

    - by Praetorian
    Hi, I'm loading a Textbox and a Button into a horizontal StackPanel programmatically. The size of the button (which only contains an Image) is fixed, but I can't get the textbox to fill the available width of its parent. This is what the code looks like: StackPanel parent = new StackPanel() { Orientation = Orientation.Horizontal, HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Stretch, VerticalAlignment = VerticalAlignment.Top, }; TextBox textbox = new TextBox() { HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Stretch, VerticalAlignment = VerticalAlignment.Top, //MinWidth = 375, }; Button btn = new Button() { Content = new Image() { MaxHeight = 40, MaxWidth = 40, MinHeight = 40, MinWidth = 40, Margin = new Thickness( 0 ), Source = new BitmapImage( new Uri( "btnimage.png", UriKind.Relative ) ), }, HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Right, BorderBrush = new SolidColorBrush( Colors.Transparent ), Margin = new Thickness( 0 ), }; btn.Click += ( ( s, e ) => OnBtnClicked( s, e, textbox ) ); parent.Children.Add( textbox ); parent.Children.Add( btn ); If I uncomment the MinWidth setting for the textbox it is displayed as I want it to, but I'd like to not have to specify a width explicitly. I tried adding a binding as follows but that doesn't work at all (the textbox just disappears!) Binding widthBinding = new Binding() { Source = parent.ActualWidth, }; passwdBox.SetBinding( TextBox.WidthProperty, widthBinding ); Thanks for your help in advance!

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  • custom sorting or ordering a table without resorting the whole shebang

    - by fuugus
    for ten years we've been using the same custom sorting on our tables, i'm wondering if there is another solution which involves fewer updates, especially since today we'd like to have a replication/publication date and would'nt like to have our replication replicate unnecessary entries. i had a look into nested sets, but it does'nt seem to do the job for us. base table: id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 2 20 3 30 after inserting insert into table (a_sort) values(15) an entry at the second position. id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 2 20 3 30 4 15 ordering the table with select * from table order by a_sort and resorting all the a_sort entries, updating at least id=(2,3,4) will of course produce the desired output id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 4 20 2 30 3 40 the column names, the column count, datatypes, a possible join, possible triggers or the way the resorting is done is/are irrelevant to the problem. also we've found some pretty neat ways to do this task fast. only; how the heck can we reduce the updates in the db to 1 or 2 max. seems like an awfully common problem. the captain obvious in me thougth once "use an a_sort float(53), insert using a fixed value of ordervaluefirstentry+abs(ordervaluefirstentry-ordervaluenextentry)/2".. but this would only allow around 1040 "in between" entries - so never resorting seems a bit problematic ;)

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  • Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

    - by Matt Rowles
    I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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  • Basic C question, concerning memory allocation and value assignment

    - by VHristov
    Hi there, I have recently started working on my master thesis in C that I haven't used in quite a long time. Being used to Java, I'm now facing all kinds of problems all the time. I hope someone can help me with the following one, since I've been struggling with it for the past two days. So I have a really basic model of a database: tables, tuples, attributes and I'm trying to load some data into this structure. Following are the definitions: typedef struct attribute { int type; char * name; void * value; } attribute; typedef struct tuple { int tuple_id; int attribute_count; attribute * attributes; } tuple; typedef struct table { char * name; int row_count; tuple * tuples; } table; Data is coming from a file with inserts (generated for the Wisconsin benchmark), which I'm parsing. I have only integer or string values. A sample row would look like: insert into table values (9205, 541, 1, 1, 5, 5, 5, 5, 0, 1, 9205, 10, 11, 'HHHHHHH', 'HHHHHHH', 'HHHHHHH'); I've "managed" to load and parse the data and also to assign it. However, the assignment bit is buggy, since all values point to the same memory location, i.e. all rows look identical after I've loaded the data. Here is what I do: char value[10]; // assuming no value is longer than 10 chars int i, j, k; table * data = (table*) malloc(sizeof(data)); data->name = "table"; data->row_count = number_of_lines; data->tuples = (tuple*) malloc(number_of_lines*sizeof(tuple)); tuple* current_tuple; for(i=0; i<number_of_lines; i++) { current_tuple = &data->tuples[i]; current_tuple->tuple_id = i; current_tuple->attribute_count = 16; // static in our system current_tuple->attributes = (attribute*) malloc(16*sizeof(attribute)); for(k = 0; k < 16; k++) { current_tuple->attributes[k].name = attribute_names[k]; // for int values: current_tuple->attributes[k].type = DB_ATT_TYPE_INT; // write data into value-field int v = atoi(value); current_tuple->attributes[k].value = &v; // for string values: current_tuple->attributes[k].type = DB_ATT_TYPE_STRING; current_tuple->attributes[k].value = value; } // ... } While I am perfectly aware, why this is not working, I can't figure out how to get it working. I've tried following things, none of which worked: memcpy(current_tuple->attributes[k].value, &v, sizeof(int)); This results in a bad access error. Same for the following code (since I'm not quite sure which one would be the correct usage): memcpy(current_tuple->attributes[k].value, &v, 1); Not even sure if memcpy is what I need here... Also I've tried allocating memory, by doing something like: current_tuple->attributes[k].value = (int *) malloc(sizeof(int)); only to get "malloc: * error for object 0x100108e98: incorrect checksum for freed object - object was probably modified after being freed." As far as I understand this error, memory has already been allocated for this object, but I don't see where this happened. Doesn't the malloc(sizeof(attribute)) only allocate the memory needed to store an integer and two pointers (i.e. not the memory those pointers point to)? Any help would be greatly appreciated! Regards, Vassil

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  • How can I layout a sidebar or pullquote?

    - by Rich
    I have 4 divs in a fixed width layout: a, b, c, and d, and they are ordered in the html like this: <div id="a"> </div> <div id="b"> </div> <div id="c"> </div> <div id="d"> </div> Using CSS, I want them to be laid out with divs a, b, and d in a vertical column, and div c to the right of and top-aligned with div b, like this: aaa aaa aaa bbbccc bbbccc bbbccc ddd ddd ddd I need this layout to work even though the divs contain unknown content, and so could be of varying length: aaa aaa aaa bbbccc bbbccc dddccc dddccc ddd or: aaa aaa aaa bbbccc bbb bbb ddd ddd ddd or even (if possible): aaa aaa bbbccc dddccc eeeccc eee I can't simply float div c to the right and then move it up, because, without using Javascript, I don't know the height of div b, and so don't know how much to move it up by. Is this possible in HTML and CSS, without reordering the divs?

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  • Absolutely positioned element moved by margin of another element

    - by user1505528
    Here is my jsFiddle for the following question: http://jsfiddle.net/arelia/Rruxf/ I'd like to have a header that stays at the very top of the body and a footer that stays at the very bottom of the body. I have a content div (position: relative) between the header and footer, and when I set a margin around the div my absolutely positioned header and footer move from their top/bottom positions by the height of that margin (this also happened when I tried setting a margin above and below the paragraphs in the div). In the fiddle you can see that the footer is not attached to the bottom even though it's absolutely positioned (I went ahead and made the header static since static gives the intended result). How do I position the header and footer to the top and bottom of the body and not have the content in the middle move those two elements? If the position: absolute elements are moved out of the flow why would anything affect their position at all? I've tried searching here and Google for "CSS margin affects absolute" and a few other phrases to no avail. I discovered this while playing around with it some more in developer tools: Metrics show the body is the height of the html element minus the amount of one margin (the margin that's still affecting the footer). So, the body must be stretching to the height of the content div since there is nothing else within the document flow within the body to define its height. But that height ends where the content ends instead of after the margin. Shouldn't it include the margin? If I make the height of the body 100%, the footer positions itself to the bottom of the viewport and then stays fixed in that spot when I scroll. Why isn't it attaching itself to the bottom of the body instead of the bottom of the viewport?

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  • help with css formatting on table and div

    - by kralco626
    I have the following html (i'm also using Jquery and JqueryUI) <div style="display:none; position:fixed; z-index:100;padding:0;margin:0" class="ui-state-highlight" id="Info"> <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" style="padding:0;margin:0"> <tr style="padding:0;margin:0;"> <td><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-info"></span></td> <td width = "100%" style="padding:0;margin:0;"><div id = "InfoText"></div></td> <td><button style="width:25px;height:25px;margin:0;padding:0" id="closeInfo"></button></td> </tr> </table> </div> It procudes the following: See where i circled in red? I want to get rid of that yellow space under the button, but i can't figure out how... Thanks!

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  • jCarousel jQuery ajax loading 1000 records

    - by user1714862
    I'm using jCarousel to present a vertical scolling list of +-1000 names. I am using ajax to load the data 100 records at a time then when all the data has loaded I just let the jCarousel loop in the DOM. I have the ajax and loop all working but would like to make the code work no matter how large the total record count becomes. 1) I'd like to eliminate the 1201 fixed number and use a variable. 2) I currently loop on every record I see (carousel.first) to see if it matches my reload position(s) (albeit the loop is ony 12x it still seems a little "loopy") Any suggestions on improving this? function mycarousel_itemLoadCallback(carousel, state) { //if (carousel.has(carousel.first, carousel.last)) { //return; //} var getCount = 100; // Number of records to grab at a time var maxCount = 1201; // total possible number of records var visible = 9; // the number of records you can see in the window so this creates a pre-load by this number of records for (var i = 1; i < maxCount; i+=getCount ) { if (carousel.first === 1 || carousel.first === (i-visible)){ var getFrom = i; var getTo = getFrom+(getCount-1); //alert('TOP Record ='+carousel.first+'\n Now GET '+getFrom+'-'+getTo); jQuery.get('#ajaxscript#', { first: getFrom, last: getTo }, function(xml) { mycarousel_itemAddCallback(carousel, getFrom, getTo, xml); }, 'xml' ); break; } } };

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  • How do I stop events from bubbling/multiple events with animated mouseovers?

    - by Kurucu
    I noticed a lot of JQuery answers on this, but I'm using MooTools... I have a Table of Contents which uses CSS Fixed positioning to keep it off to the left side, except for 20 pixels. The user hovers their cursor over the 20 pixels, which fires the DIV's mouseover event and the ToC slides fully into the page. When the cursor leaves, the ToC slides back to where it was. $('frameworkBreakdown').addEvents({ 'mouseover': function(event){ event = new Event(event); $('frameworkBreakdown').tween('left', 20); event.stop; }, 'mouseout': function(event){ event = new Event(event); $('frameworkBreakdown').tween('left', (10 - $('frameworkBreakdown').getStyle('width').toInt()) ); event.stop; } }); This works well (aside from unrelated issues) except that when I move the mouse on the DIV it starts to jitter, presumably because the contents of the DIV are also firing the event, or the event refires as the mouse tracks over the DIV. How can I stop this behaviour from occuring? Is there a standard method, or do I use some sort of nast global variable that determines whether effects are in action, and thus ignore the event?

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