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  • Open closed prinicple, problem

    - by Marcus
    Hi, I'm trying to apply OCP to a code snippet I have that in it's current state is really smelly, but I feel I'm not getting all the way to the end. Current code: public abstract class SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject1 : SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject2 : SomeObject {} // Smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { if (someObject is SpecificObject1) {} else if (someObject is SpecificObject2) {} } } That is really ugly, my new approach looks like this: // No so smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { throw new Expception("Not allowed!"); } public void Store(SpecificObject1 someObject) {} public void Store(SpecificObject2 someObject) {} } When a new SomeObject type comes along I must implement how that specific object is stored, this will break OCP cause I need to alter the Model-class. To move the store logic to SomeObject also feels wrong cause then I will violate SRP (?), becuase in this case the SomeObject is almost like a DTO, it's resposibility it not how to know to store itself. If a new implementation to SomeObject comes along who's store implementation is missing I will get a runtime error due to exception in Store method in Model class, it also feels like a code smell. This is because calling code will in the form of IEnumerable<SomeObject> sequence; I will not know the specific types of the sequence objects. I can't seem to grasp the OCP-concept. Anyone has any concrete examples or links that is a bit more than just some Car/Fruit example?

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  • Can't unwrap Optional.None tableviewcell

    - by Mathew Padley
    I've a table view that has a custom table view cell in it. My problem is that when i try and assign a value to a variable in the custom table view cell I get the stated error. Now, I think its because the said variable is not initialised, but its got me completely stumped. This is the custom table cell: import Foundation import UIKit class LocationGeographyTableViewCell: UITableViewCell { //@IBOutlet var Map : MKMapView; @IBOutlet var AddressLine1 : UILabel; @IBOutlet var AddressLine2 : UILabel; @IBOutlet var County : UILabel; @IBOutlet var Postcode : UILabel; @IBOutlet var Telephone : UILabel; var location = VisitedLocation(); func Build(location:VisitedLocation) -> Void { self.location = location; AddressLine1.text = "test"; } } My cell for row at index path is: override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, cellForRowAtIndexPath indexPath: NSIndexPath!) -> UITableViewCell! { var addressCell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier("ContactDetail") as? LocationGeographyTableViewCell; if !addressCell { addressCell = LocationGeographyTableViewCell(style: UITableViewCellStyle.Value1, reuseIdentifier: "ContactDetail"); } addressCell!.Build(Location); return addressCell; } As I say I'm completely baffled, the Build function calls the correct function in the tableviewcell. Any help will be gratefully appreciated. Ta

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  • stripping random number with substr problem

    - by Jim
    Using a random number to be included with another character. Then I want to strip out the random number and just leave the other character. I have this code that generates the random number (8 characters long) consistently. If you hit your refresh button multiple times, the “ID” field disappears even though the “Random Number” plus “ID” are still there. Not sure what is happening to the random number on refresh in the substr function. This is the code: // Begin Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// function gRanStr1() { $length1 = 8; $characters = “0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ”; for ($p = 0; $p < $length1; $p++) { $lcrs1 .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } $lcrs9 = str_replace(' ', '', $lcrs9); return $lcrs1; } // End Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// // Begin Decode Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// $TrkR99 = "c"; $ResHeadID = gRanStr1() . $TrkR99; $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); echo "”; echo $ResHeadID . ” = echo of Random Number plus ID“; for($i=0; $i if ($ResHeadID == "") { ""; } else { $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); $TrkRa1 = substr($ResHeadID, $Index1 + 8, 1); } $dTrkRes = $TrkRa1; echo $TrkRa1 . " = echo of ID after random number stripped.“; echo “”; // End Decode Random ID Code /////////////////////////////////////////

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  • Statically checking a Java app for link errors

    - by monorailkitty
    I have a scenario where I have code written against version 1 of a library but I want to ship version 2 of the library instead. The code has shipped and is therefore not changeable. I'm concerned that it might try to access classes or members of the library that existed in v1 but have been removed in v2. I figured it would be possible to write a tool to do a simple check to see if the code will link against the newer version of the library. I appreciate that the code may still be very broken even if the code links. I am thinking about this from the other side - if the code won't link then I can be sure there is a problem. As far as I can see, I need to run through the bytecode checking for references, method calls and field accesses to library classes then use reflection to check whether the class/member exists. I have three-fold question: (1) Does such a tool exist already? (2) I have a niggling feeling it is much more complicated that I imagine and that I have missed something major - is that the case? (3) Do you know of a handy library that would allow me to inspect the bytecode such that I can find the method calls, references etc.? Thanks!

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  • Best Functional Approach

    - by dbyrne
    I have some mutable scala code that I am trying to rewrite in a more functional style. It is a fairly intricate piece of code, so I am trying to refactor it in pieces. My first thought was this: def iterate(count:Int,d:MyComplexType) = { //Generate next value n //Process n causing some side effects return iterate(count - 1, n) } This didn't seem functional at all to me, since I still have side effects mixed throughout my code. My second thought was this: def generateStream(d:MyComplexType):Stream[MyComplexType] = { //Generate next value n return Stream.cons(n, generateStream(n)) } for (n <- generateStream(initialValue).take(2000000)) { //process n causing some side effects } This seemed like a better solution to me, because at least I've isolated my functional value-generation code from the mutable value-processing code. However, this is much less memory efficient because I am generating a large list that I don't really need to store. This leaves me with 3 choices: Write a tail-recursive function, bite the bullet and refactor the value-processing code Use a lazy list. This is not a memory sensitive app (although it is performance sensitive) Come up with a new approach. I guess what I really want is a lazily evaluated sequence where I can discard the values after I've processed them. Any suggestions?

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  • .Net Inherited Control Property Default

    - by Yisman
    Hello fellows Im trying to make a simple "ButtonPlus" control. the main idea is to inherit from the button control and add some default property values (such as font,color,padding...) No matter how i try, the WinForm always generates (or "serializes") the property value in the client forms the whole point is to have minimal and clean code, not that every instance of the buttonPlus should have 5 lines of init code. I want that the form designer should not generate any code for theses properties and be able to control them from the ButtonPlus code. In other words, if I change the ForeColor from red to blue only 1 single bingle line of code in the app should change. heres my code so far. as you can see, ive tried using defaultvalue, reset , shouldserialize.... anything i was able to find on the web! Public Class ButtonPlus Inherits Button Sub New() 'AutoSize = True AutoSizeMode = Windows.Forms.AutoSizeMode.GrowAndShrink Font = New System.Drawing.Font("Arial", 11.0!, System.Drawing.FontStyle.Bold, System.Drawing.GraphicsUnit.Point, CType(177, Byte)) Padding = New System.Windows.Forms.Padding(3) Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left + AnchorStyles.Right + AnchorStyles.Top ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Sub ' _ 'Public Overrides Property AutoSize() As Boolean ' Get ' Return MyBase.AutoSize ' End Get ' Set(ByVal value As Boolean) ' MyBase.AutoSize = value ' End Set 'End Property Public Function ShouldSerializeAutoSize() As Boolean Return False ' Not AutoSize = True End Function Public Function ShouldSerializeForeColor() As Boolean Return False 'Not ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Function Public Overrides Sub ResetForeColor() ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Sub End Class Thank you very much for taking the time to look this over and answer all the best

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  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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  • Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

    - by Saurabh Bhandari
    I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

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  • Getting visitors country from their IP

    - by Ali Abdulkarim Salem
    i want to get visitors country via their IP.. right now I'm using this ( http://api.hostip.info/country.php?ip=...... ) here's my code <?php if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_CLIENT_IP'])) { $real_ip_adress = $_SERVER['HTTP_CLIENT_IP']; } if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR'])) { $real_ip_adress = $_SERVER['HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR']; } else { $real_ip_adress = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; } $cip = $real_ip_adress; $iptolocation = 'http://api.hostip.info/country.php?ip=' . $cip; $creatorlocation = file_get_contents($iptolocation); ?> Well, it's working properly, but the thing is, this returns the country code like US or CA., and not the whole country name like United States or Canada So, is there any good alternative to hostip.info offers this? I know that I can just write some code that will eventually turn this two letters to whole country name, but I'm just too lazy to write a code that contains all countries... P.S: For some reason I don't want to use any ready made CSV file or any code that will grab this information for me, something like ip2country ready made code and CSV.

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  • NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

    - by Rich
    I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

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  • Which is the best license for my Open Source project?

    - by coderex
    I am a web developer, and I don't have enough knowledge about software licenses. I wish to publish some of my works, and I need to select licenses for them. My software product is free of cost. But I have some restrictions on the distribution/modification of the code. It's free of cost (but donations are acceptable ;-)). The source code is freely available. You can use, customize or edit/remove code (as long as the basic nature of the software is not changed). You don't have any permission to change the product name. There are some libraries and classes which are in a folder caller "myname". You don't have the permission to rename "myname". You can contribute any additions or modifications to my project, to the original source repository (the contributors name/email/site link will be listed on the credit file). You can't remove the original author's name from the license. You can put the license file or license code anywhere in the project file or folder. You can redistribute this code as free or commercial software. :) Do you think all these restrictions are valid? Given these restrictions, which license should I use? Edit 1:- My main intention is to make the product more popular with free source code while ensuring the original author is not ignored. The product is open. Edit 2:- Thank you all, the above points are because of my lack of knowledge of license terms. You can help me to correct or remove some of the above points. What I'm basically looking for is in my Edit 1.

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  • How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

    - by Scott Smith
    I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

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  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

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  • Setting "submit"

    - by user361626
    Driving me a bit nuts this one, have tried alsorts of combination's... At the top of my file I have PHP Code: if (!ISSET ($_POST['submit'])) which tests if the submit has been hit, if not displays the form.... What I'd like to be able to to is generate a link that would be processed directly by the php code that the form would normally be submitted to... (does that make sense ?) so a generated link in the code looks like .. PHP Code: echo '<a href="index.php?submit&s_type=' . $s_type . '&d_height=' . $d_height . '&j_ref=' . $j_ref . '&j_name=' . j_name . '">' . $j_ref . '</a>'; The link generated looks like .. HTML Code: index.php?s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name I have tried setting "submit" with links like HTML Code: index.php?submit=submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name index.php?submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name How do I create a link that sets "submit so it gets processed rather than going through the form ???

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  • Trying to get codeblocks working on Mac, running Lion. Can't get the compiler set up properly

    - by tjtoml
    First off, sorry if this is a stupid question. I installed code::blocks to try and get to know the program and start working on teaching myself c++. I have a MacBook Pro with OS 10.7.3. I ave code::blocks 10.05. When I try to build a "Hello world" nothing happens. Based on some googling I've figured out that it's because code::blocks doesn't know where to find the debugger/compiler. Further googling yielded me this page which tells me to install Xcode and to fix some things in the code::blocks settings. However, this wiki obviously has not been updated since Apple went to the App store, because the file paths it gives for the compiler do not exist (there is no /Developer/* even after installing Xcode). Xcode 4.3.2 was already installed when I installed code::blocks and code::blocks "auto-detected" several compilers. They did not work. If anyone knows where Xcode hides its compilers now that Apple has moved to the app store, I would be much obliged.

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  • Programmatically Update UITableView in Response to Button Press

    - by Kyle Begeman
    I have a completely custom view that holds a UITableView and a Custom Tab Bar (basically a UIView that contains 6 UIButtons). I am loading data from a plist file, and then I am sorting the data into multiple arrays based on categories (an array for misc items, and array for mail items, etc.) Each button in the tab bar represents a category, and when I press the button I call the custom function "miscSelected" and so on. How can I have the table view completely reload and then display the tableview based on the array selected (select the misc category and the tableview clears itself and loads the misc array data, same for any other category)? The method I have experimented with is created and NSString named "selection" and then in each button function I set selected to equal whatever section I am selecting. In my cellForRoxAtIndexPath method I have this: if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"All Items"]) { NSArray *mainDataArray = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; NSSortDescriptor *brandDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:brandDescriptor]; self.sortedData = [mainDataArray sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; } else if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"Misc Items"]){ self.sortedData = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; } cell.itemTitle.text = [[self.sortedData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; For the sake of example and testing I am simply displaying the same data, just one button displays it in alphabetical order and the other does not. This code works only when I start to scroll down and back up, but it does not actually update on button press. Calling myTable reloadData does not do anything either. Any help would be great, thanks!

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  • Printing in Silverlight 4

    - by Number8
    Hello, We have an application structured roughly like this: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <ScrollViewer> <Canvas x:Name="canvas"> <StackPanel> < Button /><Slider /><Button /></StackPanel> <custom:Blob /> <custom:Blob /> <custom:Blob /> </Canvas> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> Each Blob consists of 1 or more rectangles, lines, and text boxes; they are positioned anywhere on the canvas. If I print the document using the LayoutRoot: PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument(); pd += (s, pe) => { pe.PageVisual = LayoutRoot; }; pd.Print("Blobs"); ... it is like a print-screen -- the scrollbars, the sliders, the blobs that are visible -- are printed. If I set PageVisual = canvas, nothing is printed. How can I get all the blob objects, and just those objects, to print? Do I need to copy them into another container, and give that container to PageVisual? Can I use a ViewBox to make sure they all fit on one page? Thanks for any pointers....

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  • nextgen gallery order issue

    - by mro
    Hi, wonder if anyone can help. I think what I'm after won't be solved by any exsiting code in nextgen plugin (in wordpress) due to the custom way I'm using it hence I come to stackoverflow for some opnions. Bascially - I am only really using the admin of nextgen to work with the gallerys etc. The actual meat of the functionality I'm querying the nextgen DB's direct from my code, I would have loved to use the inbuilt gallerys in nextgen, but my spec specifics were so custom I couldn't. My issue is, I need to pull the images from the DB's in the order it is in the admin (ie if a user pulls the sort order around in the drag and drop area). I have noticed however this doesn't affect the image id order in the DB, and wouldn't expect it to - that would be some complex shifting around just to reorder everytime surely. So obviously when I query the DB the order it's looking at is when it was created, by image id, with my filtering on top. I'm wondering though if there is a way I can query that sort order that's determined in the admin somehow, then at least I could sort the array somehow in the code ? does next gen store it's user custom sort order somewhere ? Hope this makes sense :) any thoughts appreciated. Thanks

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  • sort elements in jQuery object

    - by Fresheyeball
    <div class="myClass">1</div> <div class="myClass">2</div> <div class="myClass">3</div> <div class="myClass">4</div> <div class="myClass">5</div> <div class="myClass">6</div> var $myClass = $('.myClass'); $myClass.eq(0).text() //returns '1' $myClass.eq(4).text() //returns '5' $myClass.eq(5).text() //returns '6' What I want to do is reorder the objects in jQuery manually. //fantasy command reversing $myClass.eqSorter([5,4,3,2,1,0]); $myClass.eq(0).text() //returns '6' $myClass.eq(5).text() //returns '1' What I really want is to allow a fully custom order input //fantasy command custom ordering $myClass.eqSorter([3,5,4,2,0,1]); $myClass.eq(0).text() //returns '4' $myClass.eq(5).text() //returns '2' Now I've looked at basic ways of doing this like .sort as a part of javascript, but .sort takes a dynamic argument the compares things, and does not allow for a fully custom order. I also looked at making a new blank jquery object that I could pass elements into like this $newObjectVar.eq(0) = $myClass.eq(3); for example. But as of yet I have not found a way to make a blank jQuery object like this.

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  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

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  • Unknown ListView Behavior

    - by st0le
    I'm currently making a SMS Application in Android, the following is a code snippet from Inbox Listactivity, I have requested a cursor from the contentresolver and used a custom adapter to add custom views into the list. Now, in the custom view i've got 2 TextViews (tvFullBody,*tvBody*)... tvFullBody contains the Full SMS Text while tvBody contains a short preview (35 characters) The tvFullBody Visibility is by default set to GONE. My idea is, when the user clicks on a list item, the tvBody should dissappear(GONE) and the tvFullBody should become visible (VISIBLE). On Clicking again, it should revert back to its original state. //isExpanded is a BitSet of the size = no of list items...keeps track of which items are expanded and which are not @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { if(isExpanded.get(position)) { v.findViewById(R.id.tvFullBody).setVisibility(View.GONE); v.findViewById(R.id.tvBody).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); }else { v.findViewById(R.id.tvFullBody).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); v.findViewById(R.id.tvBody).setVisibility(View.GONE); } isExpanded.flip(position); super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); } The Code works as it is supposed to :) except for an undesired sideeffect.... Every 10th (or so) List Item also gets "toggled". eg. If i Expand the 1st, then the 11th, 21th list items are also expanded...Although they remain off screen, but on scrolling you get to see the undesired "expansion". By my novice analysis, i'm guessing Listview keeps track of 10 list items that are currently visible, upon scrolling, it "reuses" those same variables, which is causing this problem...(i didn't check the android source code yet.) I'd be gratefull for any suggestion, on how i should tackle this! :) I'm open to alternative methods aswell....Thanks in advance! :)

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  • Authentication and Security in my website - need advice please.

    - by Ichirichi
    Hi, I am using database with a list of username/passwords, and a simple web form that allows for users to enter their username/password. When they submit the page, I simply do a stored procedure check to authenticate. If they are authorised, then their user details (e.g. username, dob, address, company address, other important info) are stored in a custom User object and then in a session. This custom User object that I created is used throughout the web application, and also in a sub-site (session sharing). My question/problems are: Is my method of authentication the correct way to do things? I find users complaining that their session have expired although they "were not idle", possibly due the app pool recycling? They type large amounts of text and find that their session had expired and thus lose all the text typed in. I am uncertain whether the session does really reset sporadically but will Forms Authentication using cookies/cookiless resolve the issue? Alternatively should I build and store the User Object in a session, cookie or something else instead in order to be more "correct" and avoid cases like in point #2. If I go down the Forms Authentication route, I believe I cannot store my custom User object in a Forms Authentication cookie so does it mean I would store the UserID and then recreate the user object on every page? Would this not be a huge increase on the server load? Advice and answers much appreciated. L

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  • jQuery Mobile: How to run a callback-function before $.mobile.changePage?

    - by Jugi84
    I'm setting up a mobile app with jQuery Mobile and PhoneGap. What I want to do is that when I click link with id "news_link" I want jQuery to fetch data from database and put it to jQm's collapsible set. In my solution, I've wanted to use $.mobile.changePage inside callback functions because I want to wait until the data has been fetched and put inside the container before the code changes page. Here's the code: $(function() { $('#news_link').click(function(){ loadNewsFromDB(function(){ $.mobile.changePage( $("#news"), { transition: "slideup"} ); }); }); loadNewsFromDB is PhoneGap's SQLite database function which would fetch the data with more callback functions from database. The contents would be put to desired container with .html-function function loadNewsFromDB(){ //some code here theDB.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql(sqlStr, [], onLoadNewsSuccess, onLoadNewsError); },onTxError, onTxSuccess); function onLoadNewsSuccess(tx, results){ //some code here $("#newsSet").html(htmlCodeAndContentToPut); Html is jQm's basic ui-modules: <!-- some html code here --!> <div data-role="page" id="news"> <div data-role="content"> <div id="newsSet" data-role="collapsible-set" data-mini="true"> With debugging I know that the code work up until it works very well unti it arrives to $.mobile.changePage-function. Somehow it doesn't change the page. I've checked the function it works well in other occasions, but not inside callback-functions. I would be very grateful if someone would give me a hand am I not seeing something obviously wrong or is something more specific? What other workarounds there is for fetching the data from SQLite, waiting for data to be fetched, putting the data to container and then changing the pages?

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  • How can you exclude a large number of records in a cross db query using LINQ2SQL?

    - by tap
    So here is my situation: I have a vendor supplied DB we cannot modify and a custom db that imports data from the vendor app and acts on it. Once records are imported form the vendor app, they cannot appear on the list of records to be imported. Also we only want to display the 250 most recent records that have not been imported. What I originally started with was select the list of ids that have been imported from the custom db, and then query the vendor db, using the list of ids in a .Where(x = !idList.Contains(x.Id)) clause on the remote query. This worked up until we broke 2100 records imported into the custom db, as 2100 is the limit on the number of parameters that can be passed into SQL. After finding out this was the actual problem and not the 'invalid buffer'/'severe error' ADO.Net reported, my solution was to remove the first 2000 ids in the remote query, and then remove the remaining records in the local query. Having to pull back a large number of irrelevant records, just to exclude them, so I can get the correct 250 records seems very inelegant. Is there a better way to do this, short of doing a cross db stored procedure? Thanks in advance.

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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