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• LINQ EF not saving to database...

  - by Keith Barrows

  I guess this is a continuation of the last question I asked: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2587542/bulk-insert-and-update-with-ado-net-entity-framework. I am not getting any errors while doing inserts yet no data is actually going into my DB. My DB is a SDF file (SQL CE). Any ideas what to check? My app.config looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <configSections> </configSections> <connectionStrings> <add name="Lab_Use_Billing.Properties.Settings.LabUseConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Models\LabUse.sdf" providerName="Microsoft.SqlServerCe.Client.3.5" /> <add name="LabUseEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.csdl|res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.ssdl|res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlServerCe.3.5; provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Models\LabUse.sdf&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> TIA

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• Returning objects in php

  - by user220201

  I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

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• Is this method of static file serving safe in node.js? (potential security hole?)

  - by MikeC8

  I want to create the simplest node.js server to serve static files. Here's what I came up with: fs = require('fs'); server = require('http').createServer(function(req, res) { res.end(fs.readFileSync(__dirname + '/public/' + req.url)); }); server.listen(8080); Clearly this would map http://localhost:8080/index.html to project_dir/public/index.html, and similarly so for all other files. My one concern is that someone could abuse this to access files outside of project_dir/public. Something like this, for example: http://localhost:8080/../../sensitive_file.txt I tried this a little bit, and it wasn't working. But, it seems like my browser was removing the ".." itself. Which leads me to believe that someone could abuse my poor little node.js server. I know there are npm packages that do static file serving. But I'm actually curious to write my own here. So my questions are: Is this safe? If so, why? If not, why not? And, if further, if not, what is the "right" way to do this? My one constraint is I don't want to have to have an if clause for each possible file, I want the server to serve whatever files I throw in a directory.

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• Visual Studio internal project references not always working

  - by Chris

  I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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• How to delete ProgIDs from other user accounts when uninstalling from Windows?

  - by Mordachai

  I've been investigating "how should a modern windows c++ application register its file types" with Windows (see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828637/c-how-do-i-correctly-register-and-unregister-file-type-associations-for-our-ap). And having combed through the various MSDN articles on the subject, the summary appears to be as follows: The installer (elevated) should register the global ProgID HKLM\Software\Classes\my-app.my-doc[.version] (e.g. HKLM\Software\Classes\TextPad.text) The installer also configures default associations for its document types (e.g. .myext) and points this to the aforementioned global ProgID in HKLM. NOTE: a user interface should be provided here to allow the user to either accept all default associations, or to customize which associations should be set. The application, running standard (unelevated), should provide a UI for allowing the current user to set their personal associations as is available in the installer, except that these associations are stored in HKCU\Software\Classes (per user, not per machine). The UN-installer is then responsible for deleting all registered ProgIDs (but should leave the actual file associations alone, as Windows is smart enough to handle associations pointing to missing ProgIDs, and this is the specified desired behavior by MSDN). So that schema sounds reasonable to me, except when I consider #4: How does an uninstaller, running elevated for a given user account, delete any per-user ProgIDs created in step #3 for other users? As I understand things, even in elevated mode, an uninstaller cannot go into another user's registry hive and delete items? Or can it? Does it have to load each given user hive first? What are the rules here? Thanks for any insight you might have to offer! EDIT: See below for the solution (My question was founded in confusion)

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• Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

  - by jtolle

  A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

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• Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

  - by Rob

  Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

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• What does "Select Distinct Null As xxxxx" mean?

  - by Soylent Green

  Background: I am mapping Sybase stored procedure return values to java objects using Spring. For example I map a Sybase datatype of varchar as a String type in Java, and a Sybase datatype of int as an int type in Java, etc. I have come across the following code in one of the stored procedures: SELECT DISTINCT A.Col1 AS val1, A.Col2 AS val2, NULL AS someVal, A.col3 AS val3, ... A.col9 AS val9 FROM #SomeTable A ORDER BY Col2, Col3 I have 2 related questions: What does Null mean in this scenario? I am confused as to what is happening here. I am able to determine the data type of Col1, Col2, etc. of course by looking at the table definition of Table A defined earlier in the stored procedure. Thus I know what datatype I can define in my Java object for val1, val2, etc.. But what about "someVal"? What datatype mapping am I supposed to perform for this Null value? I am fairly inexperienced in SQL. Perhaps the answer is much simpler than I realize.

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• Practicing inserting data into an array by using binary search, few problems

  - by HelpNeeder

  I'm trying to create a method which inserts and then sort elements in form of binary form. The problem I am experiencing that my code doesn't insert data correctly which means that output does not appear to be in order at all. The list is not organized, and data is added in order that is being inserted. Now, 2 questions, what am I doing wrong here? And how to fix this? public void insertBinarySearch(long value) // put element into array { int j = 0; int lower = 0; int upper = elems-1; int cur = 0; while (cur < elems) { curIn = (lower + upper ) / 2; if(a[cur] < value) { j = cur + 1; break; } else if(a[cur] > value) { j = cur; break; } else { if(a[cur] < value) lower = cur + 1; else upper = cur - 1; } } for(int k = elems; k > j; k--) a[k] = a[k-1]; a[j] = value; elems++; }

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• BufferedImage & ColorModel in Java

  - by spol

  I am using a image processing library in java to manipulate images.The first step I do is I read an image and create a java.awt.Image.BufferedImage object. I do it in this way, BufferedImage sourceImage = ImageIO.read( new File( filePath ) ); The above code creates a BufferedImage ojbect with a DirectColorModel: rmask=ff0000 gmask=ff00 bmask=ff amask=0. This is what happens when I run the above code on my macbook. But when I run this same code on a linux machine (hosted server), this creates a BufferedImage object with ColorModel: #pixelBits = 24 numComponents = 3 color space = java.awt.color.ICC_ColorSpace@c39a20 transparency = 1 has alpha = false isAlphaPre = false. And I use the same jpg image in both the cases. I don't know why the color model on the same image is different when run on mac and linux. The colormodel for mac has 4 components and the colormodel for linux has 3 components.There is a problem arising because of this, the image processing library that I use always assumes that there are always 4 components in the colormodel of the image passed, and it throws array out of bounds exception when run on linux box. But on macbook, it runs fine. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong or there is a problem with the library. Please let me know your thoughts. Also ask me any questions if I am not making sense!

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• Please clarify how create/update happens against child entities of an aggregate root

  - by christian

  After much reading and thinking as I begin to get my head wrapped around DDD, I am a bit confused about the best practices for dealing with complex hierarchies under an aggregate root. I think this is a FAQ but after reading countless examples and discussions, no one is quite talking about the issue I'm seeing. If I am aligned with the DDD thinking, entities below the aggregate root should be immutable. This is the crux of my trouble, so if that isn't correct, that is why I'm lost. Here is a fabricated example...hope it holds enough water to discuss. Consider an automobile insurance policy (I'm not in insurance, but this matches the language I hear when on the phone w/ my insurance company). Policy is clearly an entity. Within the policy, let's say we have Auto. Auto, for the sake of this example, only exists within a policy (maybe you could transfer an Auto to another policy, so this is potential for an aggregate as well, which changes Policy...but assume it simpler than that for now). Since an Auto cannot exist without a Policy, I think it should be an Entity but not a root. So Policy in this case is an aggregate root. Now, to create a Policy, let's assume it has to have at least one auto. This is where I get frustrated. Assume Auto is fairly complex, including many fields and maybe a child for where it is garaged (a Location). If I understand correctly, a "create Policy" constructor/factory would have to take as input an Auto or be restricted via a builder to not be created without this Auto. And the Auto's creation, since it is an entity, can't be done beforehand (because it is immutable? maybe this is just an incorrect interpretation). So you don't get to say new Auto and then setX, setY, add(Z). If Auto is more than somewhat trivial, you end up having to build a huge hierarchy of builders and such to try to manage creating an Auto within the context of the Policy. One more twist to this is later, after the Policy is created and one wishes to add another Auto...or update an existing Auto. Clearly, the Policy controls this...fine...but Policy.addAuto() won't quite fly because one can't just pass in a new Auto (right!?). Examples say things like Policy.addAuto(VIN, make, model, etc.) but are all so simple that that looks reasonable. But if this factory method approach falls apart with too many parameters (the entire Auto interface, conceivably) I need a solution. From that point in my thinking, I'm realizing that having a transient reference to an entity is OK. So, maybe it is fine to have a entity created outside of its parent within the aggregate in a transient environment, so maybe it is OK to say something like: auto = AutoFactory.createAuto(); auto.setX auto.setY or if sticking to immutability, AutoBuilder.new().setX().setY().build() and then have it get sorted out when you say Policy.addAuto(auto) This insurance example gets more interesting if you add Events, such as an Accident with its PolicyReports or RepairEstimates...some value objects but most entities that are all really meaningless outside the policy...at least for my simple example. The lifecycle of Policy with its growing hierarchy over time seems the fundamental picture I must draw before really starting to dig in...and it is more the factory concept or how the child entities get built/attached to an aggregate root that I haven't seen a solid example of. I think I'm close. Hope this is clear and not just a repeat FAQ that has answers all over the place.

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• Transparently surround a component with a link in Wicket

  - by Toni Menzel

  I want to be able to add links on certain items in an ListView. If an items is surrounded by the link or not is up to the code, so its not in the normal page markup. Say i have a markup like this: <div class="column" wicket:id="columnRepeater"> <span wicket:id="column"></span> </div> So essentially, while filling the repeater with a ListView i am able to find a custom renderer for the column component. (not my playingfield). What i want is to add a Link/Ajax Link around the column component. I learned using wicket:border lets you surround additional stuff. Now, the border markup looks like this: <wicket:border> <a wicket:id="link"><wicket:body/></a> </wicket:border> Now, i am a bit puzzled what the Border implementation looks like. Anyone there who can suggest a working java part? I have a couple of "work in progress" solutions but none works. Most questions have to do with usage of component ids. Is the border id = column ? Whats the id of the inner (border body) id then?

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• C++ Returning Pointers/References

  - by m00st

  I have a fairly good understanding of the dereferencing operator, the address of operator, and pointers in general. I however get confused when I see stuff such as this: int* returnA() { int *j = &a; return j; } int* returnB() { return &b; } int& returnC() { return c; } int& returnC2() { int *d = &c; return *d; } In returnA() I'm asking to return a pointer; just to clarify this works because j is a pointer? In returnB() I'm asking to return a pointer; since a pointer points to an address, the reason why returnB() works is because I'm returning &b? In returnC() I'm asking for an address of int to be returned. When I return c is the & operator automatically "appended" c? In returnC2() I'm asking again for an address of int to be returned. Does *d work because pointers point to an address? Assume a, b, c are initialized as integers. Can someone validate if I am correct with all four of my questions?

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• LINQ to SQL - Lightweight O/RM?

  - by CoffeeAddict

  I've heard from some that LINQ to SQL is good for lightweight apps. But then I see LINQ to SQL being used for Stackoverflow, and a bunch of other .coms I know (from interviewing with them). Ok, so is this true? for an e-commerce site that's bringing in millions and you're typically only doing basic CRUDs most the time with the exception of an occasional stored proc for something more complex, is LINQ to SQL complete enough and performance-wise good enough or able to be tweaked enough to run happily on an e-commerce site? I've heard that you just need to tweak performance on the DB side when using LINQ to SQL for a better approach. So there are really 2 questions here: 1) Meaning/scope/definition of a "Lightweight" O/RM solution: What the heck does "lightweight" mean when people say LINQ to SQL is a "lightweight O/RM" and is that true??? If this is so lightweight then why do I see a bunch of huge .coms using it? Is it good enough to run major .coms (obviously it looks like it is) and what determines what the context of "lightweight" is...it's such a generic statement. 2) Performance: I'm working on my own .com and researching different O/RMs. I'm not really looking at the Entity Framework (yet), just want to figure out the LINQ to SQL basics here and determine if it will be efficient enough for me. The problem I think is you can't tweak or control the SQL it generates...

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• Alternate colors on click with jQuery

  - by Jace Cotton

  I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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• The Purpose of a Service Layer and ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by user332022

  In an effort to understand MVC 2 and attempt to get my company to adopt it as a viable platform for future development, I have been doing a lot of reading lately. Having worked with ASP.NET pretty exclusively for the past few years, I had some catching up to do. Currently, I understand the repository pattern, models, controllers, data annotations, etc. But there is one thing that is keeping me from completely understanding enough to start work on a reference application. The first is the Service Layer Pattern. I have read many blog posts and questions here on Stack Overflow, but I still don't completely understand the purpose of this pattern. I watched the entire video series at MVCCentral on the Golf Tracker Application and also looked at the demo code he posted and it looks to me like the service layer is just another wrapper around the repository pattern that doesn't perform any work at all. I also read this post: http://www.asp.net/Learn/mvc/tutorial-38-cs.aspx and it seemed to somewhat answer my question, however, if you are using data annotations to perform your validation, this seems unnecessary. I have looked for demonstrations, posts, etc. but I can't seem to find anything that simply explains the pattern and gives me compelling evidence to use it. Can someone please provide me with a 2nd grade (ok, maybe 5th grade) reason to use this pattern, what I would lose if I don't, and what I gain if I do?a

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• Calculate the number of ways to roll a certain number

  - by helloworld

  I'm a high school Computer Science student, and today I was given a problem to: Program Description: There is a belief among dice players that in throwing three dice a ten is easier to get than a nine. Can you write a program that proves or disproves this belief? Have the computer compute all the possible ways three dice can be thrown: 1 + 1 + 1, 1 + 1 + 2, 1 + 1 + 3, etc. Add up each of these possibilities and see how many give nine as the result and how many give ten. If more give ten, then the belief is proven. I quickly worked out a brute force solution, as such int sum,tens,nines; tens=nines=0; for(int i=1;i<=6;i++){ for(int j=1;j<=6;j++){ for(int k=1;k<=6;k++){ sum=i+j+k; //Ternary operators are fun! tens+=((sum==10)?1:0); nines+=((sum==9)?1:0); } } } System.out.println("There are "+tens+" ways to roll a 10"); System.out.println("There are "+nines+" ways to roll a 9"); Which works just fine, and a brute force solution is what the teacher wanted us to do. However, it doesn't scale, and I am trying to find a way to make an algorithm that can calculate the number of ways to roll n dice to get a specific number. Therefore, I started generating the number of ways to get each sum with n dice. With 1 die, there is obviously 1 solution for each. I then calculated, through brute force, the combinations with 2 and 3 dice. These are for two: There are 1 ways to roll a 2 There are 2 ways to roll a 3 There are 3 ways to roll a 4 There are 4 ways to roll a 5 There are 5 ways to roll a 6 There are 6 ways to roll a 7 There are 5 ways to roll a 8 There are 4 ways to roll a 9 There are 3 ways to roll a 10 There are 2 ways to roll a 11 There are 1 ways to roll a 12 Which looks straightforward enough; it can be calculated with a simple linear absolute value function. But then things start getting trickier. With 3: There are 1 ways to roll a 3 There are 3 ways to roll a 4 There are 6 ways to roll a 5 There are 10 ways to roll a 6 There are 15 ways to roll a 7 There are 21 ways to roll a 8 There are 25 ways to roll a 9 There are 27 ways to roll a 10 There are 27 ways to roll a 11 There are 25 ways to roll a 12 There are 21 ways to roll a 13 There are 15 ways to roll a 14 There are 10 ways to roll a 15 There are 6 ways to roll a 16 There are 3 ways to roll a 17 There are 1 ways to roll a 18 So I look at that, and I think: Cool, Triangular numbers! However, then I notice those pesky 25s and 27s. So it's obviously not triangular numbers, but still some polynomial expansion, since it's symmetric. So I take to Google, and I come across this page that goes into some detail about how to do this with math. It is fairly easy(albeit long) to find this using repeated derivatives or expansion, but it would be much harder to program that for me. I didn't quite understand the second and third answers, since I have never encountered that notation or those concepts in my math studies before. Could someone please explain how I could write a program to do this, or explain the solutions given on that page, for my own understanding of combinatorics? EDIT: I'm looking for a mathematical way to solve this, that gives an exact theoretical number, not by simulating dice

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• Linq to Entities Joins

  - by Bob Avallone

  I have a question about joins when using Linq to Entities. According to the documentation the use on the join without a qualifier performs like a left outer join. However when I execute the code below, I get a count returned of zero. But if I comment out the three join lines I get a count of 1. That would indicate that the join are acting as inner join. I have two questions. One which is right inner or outer as the default? Second how do I do the other one i.e. inner or outer? The key words on inner and outer do not work. var nprs = (from n in db.FMCSA_NPR join u in db.FMCSA_USER on n.CREATED_BY equals u.ID join t in db.LKUP_NPR_TYPE on n.NPR_TYPE_ID equals t.ID join s in db.LKUP_AUDIT_STATUS on n.NPR_STATUS_ID equals s.ID where n.ROLE_ID == pRoleId && n.OWNER_ID == pOwnerId && n.NPR_STATUS_ID == pNPRStatusId && n.ACTIVE == pActive select n).ToList(); if (nprs.Count() == 0) return null;

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• How to use Many to Many in Rails?

  - by Newbie

  Hello! In my project, I have users and quests. One User can join multiple quests and one quest can have multiple users. So I created a table called questing, containing the user_id and the quest_id. In my user.rb I did following: require 'digest/sha1' class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questings has_many :quests ,:through =>:questings ... My Quest.rb: class Quest < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questings has_many :users ,:through =>:questings ... My Questing.rb: class Questing < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :quest belongs_to :user end Now I want to create a link or button on my /quests/show.html.erb, calling an action in my controller, which will create the relationship between user and quest. So, in my quest_controller I did: def join_quest @quest = Quest.find(params[:id]) puts '************************' puts 'join quest:' + @quest.id puts '************************' respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@quest) } format.xml { head :ok } end end and in my show.html.erb I did: <%= link_to 'join this quest!!!', :action => :join_quest %> Now, clicking on this link will cause an error like: Couldn't find Quest with ID=join_quest and the url points to */quests/join_quest* instead of */quests/1/join_quest* Now my questions: Is my quests_controller the right place for my join_quest action, or should I move it to my users_controller? Why do I get this error? How to solve it? What do I have to write in my join_quest action for saving the relationship? On my /users/show.html.erb I want to output all quests the user joined. How to do this? I have to get all this quests from my relationship table, right? How? I hope you can help me! THX!

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• show hidden div tag from another page

  - by neueweblernen

  I'm trying to link to an all-inclusive FAQ page from various pages. The answers are contained in tags, nested within a line item of an unordered list housed by categories. The FAQ page has the following categories: Practical Nurse Exam Online Renewal Practice Hours etc. Under Practical Nurse Exam, there are sub categories, subjects, with questions below in tags that expand onClick. (e.g. Examination Day, Exam Results, etc.) Let's say I'm on a different page called Registration and there's a link to the FAQs for Exam Results. I'm able to link to the page and included the hashtag on the anchor or Exam Results, but it does not expand the subcategory. I've read this thread but it didn't work for me. Please help! The code is below: <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle(Info,pic) { var CState = document.getElementById(Info); CState.style.display = (CState.style.display != 'block') ? 'block' : 'none'; } window.onload = function() { var hash = window.location.hash; // would be "#div1" or something if(hash != "") { var id = hash.substr(1); // get rid of # document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'block'; } } </script> <style type="text/css"> .FAQ { cursor:hand; cursor:pointer; } .FAA { display:none; padding-left:20px; text-indent:-20px; } #FAQlist li { list-style-type: none; } #FAQlist ul { margin-left:0px; } headingOne{ font-family:Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; color:#66BBFF; font-size:20px; font-weight:bold;} </style> Here's the body (part of it anyway) <headingOne class="FAQ" onClick="toggle('CPNRE', this)">PRACTICAL NURSE EXAM</headingOne> <div class="FAA" id="CPNRE"> <h3><a name="applying">Applying to write the CPNRE</a></h3> <ul id="FAQlist" style="width:450px;"> <li class="FAQ"> <p onclick="toggle('faq1',this)"> <strong>Q: How much does it cost to write the exam?</strong></p> <div class="FAA" id="faq1"> <b>A.</b> In 2013, the cost for the first exam writing is $600.00 which includes the interim license fee. See <a href="https://www.clpnbc.org/What-is-an-LPN/Becoming-an-LPN/Canadian-Practical-Nurse-Registration-Examination/Fees-and-Deadlines.aspx"> fee schedule</a>.</div> <hr /> </li> and here's the body of the other page that contains the link and the same script syntax as the all-inclusive FAQ page. This is just a test, that's not exactly what it will say: <a onclick="toggle('CPNRE', this)" href="file:///S|/Designs/Web stuff/FAQ all inclusive.html#applying"> click here</a>

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• Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

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• JQuery quiz app - use <id> tag to toggle variable on/off

  - by hairyllama

  Hi, I am writing a jquery phonegap quiz app and have a number of categories from which a user can select via checkbox. Relevant questions belonging to those categories are then returned. However, I have two huge switch statements to change the relevant variables from 0 to 1 if the checkbox for that category is selected and vice versa (this info is used to build a compound db query). The value of the variable behind the checkbox is only ever 0 or 1, so is there a better way to do this? My HTML is: <h2>Categories</h2> <ul class="rounded"> <li>Cardiology<span class="toggle"><input type="checkbox" id="cardiology" /></span></li> <li>Respiratory<span class="toggle"><input type="checkbox" id="respiratory" /></span></li> <li>Gastrointestinal<span class="toggle"><input type="checkbox" id="gastrointestinal" /></span></li> <li>Neurology<span class="toggle"><input type="checkbox" id="neurology" /></span></li> </ul> My Javascript is along the lines of: var toggle_cardiology = 0; var toggle_respiratory = 0; var toggle_gastrointestinal = 0; var toggle_neurology = 0; $(function() { $('input[type="checkbox"]').bind('click',function() { if($(this).is(':checked')) { switch (this.id) { case "cardiology": toggle_cardiology = 1; break; case "respiratory": toggle_respiratory = 1; break; case "gastrointestinal": toggle_gastrointestinal = 1; break; case "neurology": toggle_neurology = 1; break; etc. (which is cumbersome with 10+ categories plus an else statement with a switch to change them back) I'm thinking of something along the lines of concatenating the HTML id tag onto the "toggle_" prefix - in pseudocode: if (toggle_ + this.id == 1){ toggle_ + this.id == 0} if (toggle_ + this.id == 0){ toggle_ + this.id == 1} Thanks, Nick.

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• How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

  - by kazanaki

  Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

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• MySQL: Limit rows linked to each joined row

  - by SolidSnakeGTI

  Hello, Specifications: MySQL 4.1+ I've certain situation that requires certain result set from MySQL query, let's see the current query first & then ask my question: SELECT thread.dateline AS tdateline, post.dateline AS pdateline, MIN(post.dateline) FROM thread AS thread LEFT JOIN post AS post ON(thread.threadid = post.threadid) LEFT JOIN forum AS forum ON(thread.forumid = forum.forumid) WHERE post.postid != thread.firstpostid AND thread.open = 1 AND thread.visible = 1 AND thread.replycount >= 1 AND post.visible = 1 AND (forum.options & 1) AND (forum.options & 2) AND (forum.options & 4) AND forum.forumid IN(1,2,3) GROUP BY post.threadid ORDER BY tdateline DESC, pdateline ASC As you can see, mainly I need to select dateline of threads from 'thread' table, in addition to dateline of the second post of each thread, that's all under the conditions you see in the WHERE CLAUSE. Since each thread has many posts, and I need only one result per thread, I've used GROUP BY CLAUSE for that purpose. This query will return only one post's dateline with it's related unique thread. My questions are: How to limit returned threads per each forum!? Suppose I need only 5 threads -as a maximum- to be returned for each forum declared in the WHERE CLAUSE 'forum.forumid IN(1,2,3)', how can this be achieved. Is there any recommendations for optimizing this query (of course after solving the first point)? Notes: I prefer not to use sub-queries, but if it's the only solution available I'll accept it. Double queries not recommended. I'm sure there's a smart solution for this situation. Appreciated advice in advance :)

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• Should I go to school and get my degree in computer science?

  - by ryan

  I'll try and keep this short and simple. I've always enjoyed programming and I've been doing it since high school. Right after I graduated from high school (2002), I opted to skip college because I was offered a software engineer position. I quit after a couple of years later to team up on various startup companies. However, most of them did not launch as well as expected. But it honestly did not matter to me because I've learned so much from that experience. So fast forwarding to today, now turned 25, I need a job due to this tough economic climate. Looking on Craigslist, a lot of the listings require computer science degrees. It's evident now that programming is what I want to do because I seem to never get enough of it. But just the thought of having to push 2 years without attending any real computer class for an Associates at age 25 is very, very discouraging. And the thought of having to learn from basic (Hello WOOOOORRLLLD) just does not seem exciting. I guess I have 3 questions to wrap this up: Should I just suck it up and go back to school while working at McDonalds at age 25? Is there a way where I can just skip all the boring stuff and just get tested with what I know? From your experience, how many jobs use computer science degrees as prerequisites? Or am I screwed and better pray that my next startup will be the next big thing?

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