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• Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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• How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

  - by peter

  Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

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• Xcode: Display Login View in applicationDidBecomeActive

  - by Patrick

  In my app I would like to show a login screen - which will be displayed when the app starts and when the app becomes active. For reference, I am using storyboards, ARC and it is a tabbed bar application. First off, I have this method which returns the topViewController. - (UIViewController *)topViewController:(UIViewController *)rootViewController { if (rootViewController.presentedViewController == nil) { return rootViewController; } if ([rootViewController.presentedViewController isMemberOfClass:[UINavigationController class]]) { UINavigationController *navigationController = (UINavigationController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; UIViewController *lastViewController = [[navigationController viewControllers] lastObject]; return [self topViewController:lastViewController]; } UIViewController *presentedViewController = (UIViewController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; return [self topViewController:presentedViewController]; } And I call this method here: - (void)applicationDidBecomeActive:(UIApplication *)application { if ( ... ) { // if the user needs to login PasswordViewController *passwordView = [[PasswordViewController alloc] init]; UIViewController *myView = [self topViewController:self.window.rootViewController]; [myView presentModalViewController:passwordView animated:NO]; } } To an extent this does work - I can call a method in viewDidAppear which shows an alert view to allow the user to log in. However, this is undesirable and I would like to have a login text box and other ui elements. If I do not call my login method, nothing happens and the screen stays black, even though I have put a label and other elements on the view. Does anyone know a way to resolve this? My passcode view is embedded in a Navigation Controller, but is detached from the main storyboard.

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• PHP and MySQL validating problem

  - by IPADvsSLATE

  I'm trying to check if a color is already entered into the database if it is the color should not be entered and stored into the database and the following error code <p>This color has already been entered!</p> should be displayed. But for some reason I cant get this to work, can someone please help me? The color names are entered into $_POST['color'] which is an array entered by the user. Here is the html code that collects the colors. <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> Here is the PHP & MySQL code. for($i=0; $i < count($_POST['color']); $i++) { $color = "'" . $_POST['color'][$i] . "'"; } $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT * FROM colors WHERE color = '$color' AND user = '$user_id' "); if(mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == TRUE) { echo '<p>This color has already been entered!</p>'; } else if(mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { // enter the color into the database }

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• Dynamically add data stored in php to nested json

  - by HoGo

  I am trying to dynamicaly generate data in json for jQuery gantt chart. I know PHP but am totally green with JavaScript. I have read dozen of solutions on how dynamicaly add data to json, and tried few dozens of combinations and nothing. Here is the json format: var data = [{ name: "Sprint 0", desc: "Analysis", values: [{ from: "/Date(1320192000000)/", to: "/Date(1322401600000)/", label: "Requirement Gathering", customClass: "ganttRed" }] },{ name: " ", desc: "Scoping", values: [{ from: "/Date(1322611200000)/", to: "/Date(1323302400000)/", label: "Scoping", customClass: "ganttRed" }] }, <!-- Somoe more data--> }]; now I have all data in php db result. Here it goes: $rows=$db->fetchAllRows($result); $rowsNum=count($rows); And this is how I wanted to create json out of it: var data=''; <?php foreach ($rows as $row){ ?> data['name']="<?php echo $row['name'];?>"; data['desc']="<?php echo $row['desc'];?>"; data['values'] = {"from" : "/Date(<?php echo $row['from'];?>)/", "to" : "/Date(<?php echo $row['to'];?>)/", "label" : "<?php echo $row['label'];?>", "customClass" : "ganttOrange"}; } However this does not work. I have tried without loop and replacing php variables with plain text just to check, but it did not work either. Displays chart without added items. If I add new item by adding it to the list of values, it works. So there is no problem with the Gantt itself or paths. Based on all above I assume the problem is with adding plain data to json. Can anyone please help me to fix it?

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• TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

  - by Alan G.

  I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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• Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

  - by Coder

  Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

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• How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

  - by Øystein

  Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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• vb.net sqlite how to loop through selected records and pass each record as a parameter to another fu

  - by mazrabul

  Hi, I have a sqlite table with following fields: Langauge level hours German 2 50 French 3 40 English 1 60 German 1 10 English 2 50 English 3 60 German 1 20 French 2 40 I want to loop through the records based on language and other conditions and then pass the current selected record to a different function. So I have the following mixture of actual code and psudo code. I need help with converting the psudo code to actual code, please. I am finding it difficult to do so. Here is what I have: Private sub mainp() Dim oslcConnection As New SQLite.SQLiteConnection Dim oslcCommand As SQLite.SQLiteCommand Dim langs() As String = {"German", "French", "English"} Dim i as Integer = 0 oslcConnection.ConnectionString = "Data Source=" & My.Settings.dbFullPath & ";" oslcConnection.Open() oslcCommand = oslcConnection.CreateCommand Do While i <= langs.count If langs(i) = "German" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If If langs(i) = "French" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If Loop End Sub Many thanks for your help.

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• Get ViewData IList back on postback in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Thomas

  I have the following in my view: <%using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <% foreach (var item in Model.Cart) { %> <div> <%= Html.TextBox("Cart.Quantity", item.Quantity, new { maxlength = "2" })%> <%= Html.Hidden("Cart.ItemID", item.ItemID)%> </div> <% } %> <input name="update" type="image" src="image.gif" /> <% } % I then have this code in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { CartViewData cartViewData = new CartViewData(); IList<Item> items = ItemManager.GetItems(); cartViewData.Cart = items; return View("Index", cartViewData); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(CartViewData cartViewData) { // cartviewData is null } Is there a way to grab the List on the postback to see if the values in the textboxes have changed? Thanks Below is a simplified example since it was requested: <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.Cart.Count; i++ ) { %> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="removeItem(<%= Model.Cart[i].ShoppingCartItemID %>);">Remove</a> <% } %> Hope this helps.

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• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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• Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

  - by ILya

  Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

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• Display two array's in the same table

  - by Naeem Ahmed

  $row = $query->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $num_rows = count($row); for ($i = 0; $i < $num_rows; $i++) { $title = htmlspecialchars($row[$i]['title']); $author =htmlspecialchars($row[$i]['author']); $school =htmlspecialchars($row[$i]['school']); $solution = $row[$i]['solution']; $notes = $row[$i]['notes']; $ad = array($title, $price, $author, $school, $contact, $content, $date); $inlcude = array($solutions, $notes); $field = 0; echo "<table border='1'>"; // foreach($inlcude as $in) This failled miserably foreach ($ad as $post) { if ($field < 3) //The first three values are placed in the first row { echo "<td>$post</td>"; } if ($field >= 3) { echo "<tr><td>$post</td><td>$in</td></tr>"; } $field++; } echo '</table>'; } I have two arrays and I would like to display them in different columns in my table. $ad displays perfectly fine but I'm having trouble displaying the contents in $inlcude in the second column. I've tried putting another foreach loop to iterate through contents of the second array but that really screws up my table by placing random values in different places on the table. Besides the foreach loop, I don't know of any other way to iterate through the array. Any suggestions would be appreciated.Thanks!

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• Xcode: how to know a header file is actually imported?

  - by Philip007

  To be specific, I am using RestKit framework. I want to use a framework class category called RKObjectManager+RKTableController in my view controller mainTVC. Here is my #import section in mainTVC.m: // framework headers, which should be enough #import <RestKit/RestKit.h> #import <RestKit/UI.h> // my project headers, not relating to framework #import "MainTVC.h" #import "Photo.h" // Do this to guarantee import does happen. But still got error, see below #import <RestKit/RKObjectManager+RKTableController.h> However, Xcode issue an error: No known class method for selector 'fetchRequest:groupedBy:inContext:' For reference, this method is a class method declared only in category header RKObjectManager+RKTableController.h, but not in 'RKObjectManager.h`. Also, I added -ObjC and -all_load to "other linker flags" in build settings, if that's relevant. I suspect the error is caused by the fact that category header is not actually imported somehow. How can I verify that? Or the error is caused by other reasons that I am not aware of. What am I doing wrong?

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• Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

  - by David Stratton

  Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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• A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

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• Debug formatting code

  - by Arcadian

  I'm trying to debug my code here: private void CheckFormatting() { StringReader objReaderf = new StringReader(txtInput.Text); List<String> formatTextList = new List<String>(); do { formatTextList.Add(objReaderf.ReadLine()); } while (objReaderf.Peek() != -1); objReaderf.Close(); for (int i = 0; i < formatTextList.Count; i++) { if (!Regex.IsMatch(formatTextList[i], "G[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2} JG[0-9]{2")) { MessageBox.Show("Line " + formatTextList[i] + " is not formatted correctly.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); break; } else { this.WriteToFile(); MessageBox.Show("Your entries have been saved.", "Saved", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } } } what it is supposed to do is to check each line in the list. if one of them isn't formatted correctly, then break the loop and display a message box, if all the lines are formatted properly then it should call the WriteToFile method. However, when testing it using input that WAS correctly formatted it displayed the error message and broke the loop. Anyone figure out why? There's some rep points in it for you :) Thanks in advance

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• query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

  - by Andrew Heath

  One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

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• Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

  - by Gary McGill

  Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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• WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

  - by Groky

  I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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• How do I override a python import?

  - by Evan Plaice

  So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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• Query to look up comment in one table, username in another table

  - by John

  Hello, I am using a MySQL table called "login" with the following structure: loginid, username, password, email, actcode, disabled, activated, created, points I am using another MySQL table called "comment" with the following structure: commentid, loginid, submissionid, comment, datecommented For a given "submisssionid", I would like to print out the following information from the table "comment": -The fields "comment" and "datecommented". At the same time, I would like to print out the following from the table "login": -The "username" that corresponds to the "loginid" for each row being row being selected from the table "comment". How can I do this? I tried the code below but it did not work. Thanks in advance, John $submission = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submission']); $submissionid = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submissionid']); $sqlStr = "SELECT c.loginid ,c.submissionid ,c.comment ,c.datecommented ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM comment c WHERE c.submissionid = $submissionid INNER JOIN login l ON c.loginid = l.loginid GROUP BY c.submissionid ORDER BY c.datecommented DESC LIMIT 100"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1">'.$row["comment"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a>'.$row["datecommented"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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