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  • Python subprocess Popen.communicate() equivalent to Popen.stdout.read()?

    - by Christophe
    Very specific question (I hope): What are the differences between the following three codes? (I expect it to be only that the first does not wait for the child process to be finished, while the second and third ones do. But I need to be sure this is the only difference...) I also welcome other remarks/suggestions (though I'm already well aware of the shell=True dangers and cross-platform limitations) Note that I already read Python subprocess interaction, why does my process work with Popen.communicate, but not Popen.stdout.read()? and that I do not want/need to interact with the program after. Also note that I already read Alternatives to Python Popen.communicate() memory limitations? but that I didn't really get it... First code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) stdout = process.stdout.read() stderr = process.stderr.read() return process, stderr, stdout Second code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from subprocess import communicate def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) (stdout, stderr) = process.communicate() return process, stderr, stdout Third code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from subprocess import wait def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) code = process.wait() stdout = process.stdout.read() stderr = process.stderr.read() return process, stderr, stdout Thanks.

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  • Uploading XML with NSInputStream Iphone....

    - by Aks
    Hi, I have to upload XML string to server & the Web service expect it in body stream part of the http request. So i am allocating the NSInputstream instance with xml data & then setting it the part of the http string but it uploading the stream body NULL & in my code if check the Stream status, it gives error & size null, Could you let me know how to get it done , also pasting the code. Code: NSInputStream* stream = [[[NSInputStream alloc]initWithData:streamData]retain]; request=[NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:nss_url]]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [message length]]; [request addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request addValue: @"http://www.XYZ.COM/ACL" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [request addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPBodyStream:[NSInputStream inputStreamWithData:streamData]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSLog(@"The input stream is %@ & error is %@",[stream streamStatus],[stream streamError]); Its gives: The input stream is (null) & error is Error Domain=NSUnknownErrorDomain Code=0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSUnknownErrorDomain error 0.)" Any inputs what I am missing ..........

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  • BN_hex2bn magically segfaults in openSSL

    - by xunil154
    Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

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  • NHibernate Child items query using Parent Id

    - by thorkia
    So I have a set up similar to this questions: Parent Child Setup Everything works great when saving the parent and the children. However, I seem to have a problem when selecting the children. I can't seem to get all the children with a specific parent. This fails with: NHibernate.QueryException: could not resolve property: ParentEntity_id of: Test.Data.ChildEntity Here is my code: public IEnumerable<ChildEntity> GetByParent(ParentEntity parent) { using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { return session.CreateCriteria<ChildEntity>().Add(Restrictions.Eq("ParentEntity_id ", parent.Id)).List<ChildEntity>(); } } Any help in building a proper function to get all the items would be appreciated. Oh, I am using Fluent NHibernate to construct the mappings - version 1 RTM and NHibernate 2.1.2 GA If you need more information, let me know. As per you request, my fluent mappings: public ParentEntityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Code).UniqueKey("ukCode"); HasMany(x => x.ChildEntity).LazyLoad() .Inverse().Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } public ChildEntityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Amount); Map(x => x.LogTime); References(x => x.ParentEntity); } That maps to the following 2 tables: CREATE TABLE "ParentEntity" ( Id integer, Name TEXT, Code TEXT, primary key (Id), unique (Code) ) CREATE TABLE "ChildEntity" ( Id integer, Amount NUMERIC, LogTime DATETIME, ParentEntity_id INTEGER, primary key (Id) ) The data store in SQLite.

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  • Android: Cannot get the httpPost params but can get the httpGet from php

    - by jjLin
    Here is my android code to send request: // defaultHttpClient DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost(serverUrl); List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("abc", "abc2")); httpPost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse httpResponse = httpClient.execute(httpPost); HttpEntity httpEntity = httpResponse.getEntity(); InputStream is = null; is = httpEntity.getContent(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader( is, "UTF-8"), 8); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); String line = null; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line + "\n"); } is.close(); String json = ""; json = sb.toString(); Log.d("JSON", "JSON is:" + json); and here is my php code to get the request: <?php echo $_POST['abc']; ?> When I run the application, the string json is nothing. I expect to get JSON is:abc2 Then I change the some code, in android part: HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost(serverUrl); change to: HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost(serverUrl + "?abc=abc3"); in php part: <?php echo $_GET['abc']; ?> This time, the string json in logcat is JSON is:abc3. It is correct!! I have tried lots of time, but seems cannot send HttpPost request with params. Any one can help me to find out what wrongs with my code??

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  • How to use Struts 2 with JFreeChart?

    - by Pere
    Firstly, I went here ( http://code.google.com/p/struts2-examples/downloads/list and I downloaded Hello_World_Struts2_Mvn.zip) and I run that example. After that, I went here (http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/jfreechart-plugin.html), I add the dependencies for commons-lang-2.5.jar, jcommon-1.0.16.jar and jfreechart-1.0.13.jar and I modify the example downloaded from code.google.com to see how JFreeChart is working, but I receive this error: Unable to load configuration. - action - file:/C:/.../untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:34:67 Caused by: Error building results for action createChart in namespace - action - file:/C:/.../out/artifacts/untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:34:67 Caused by: There is no result type defined for type 'chart' mapped with name 'success'. Did you mean 'chart'? - result - file:/C:/.../out/artifacts/untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:36:49 At the line 36 in struts.xml is the this code (the code from struts2 website): <action name="viewModerationChart" class="myapp.actions.ViewModerationChartAction"> <result name="success" type="chart"> <param name="width">400</param> <param name="height">300</param> </result> </action> What I'm doing wrong?

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  • radio buttons and cookie settings

    - by Cola
    I don't know nothing about cookies and how to set them and i need some advice. I have this 2 radio buttons. For example if an option is changed from one to another, that option will remain even if the page is refreshed or changed on other pages where this radio buttons exist , and i need to make the cookie setting for this code. Can someone can give me an advice what code should i add to my php? thanks This is js code: $(document).ready(function() { $('radio[name=radio]').each(function() { $(this).click(function() { my_function(); }); }); }); my_function() { var value_checked = $("input[name='radio']:checked").val(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'page.php', data: {'value_checked':value_checked}, }); } html code <form> <div id="radio"> <input type="radio" id="radio1" name="radio" checked="checked" /><label for="radio1">Choice 1</label> <input type="radio" id="radio2" name="radio" /><label for="radio2">Choice 2</label> </div> </form>

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  • how to set SqlMapClient outside of spring xmls

    - by Omnipresent
    I have the following in my xml configurations. I would like to convert these to my code because I am doing some unit/integration testing outside of the container. xmls: <bean id="MyMapClient" class="org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientFactoryBean"> <property name="configLocation" value="classpath:sql-map-config-oracle.xml"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="IbatisDataSourceOracle"/> </bean> <bean id="IbatisDataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/my/mydb"/> </bean> code I used to fetch stuff from above xmls: this.setSqlMapClient((SqlMapClient)ApplicationInitializer.getApplicationContext().getBean("MyMapClient")); my code (for unit testing purposes): SqlMapClientFactoryBean bean = new SqlMapClientFactoryBean(); UrlResource urlrc = new UrlResource("file:/data/config.xml"); bean.setConfigLocation(urlrc); DriverManagerDataSource dataSource = new DriverManagerDataSource(); dataSource.setDriverClassName("oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver"); dataSource.setUrl("jdbc:oracle:thin:@123.210.85.56:1522:ORCL"); dataSource.setUsername("dbo_mine"); dataSource.setPassword("dbo_mypwd"); bean.setDataSource(dataSource); SqlMapClient sql = (SqlMapClient) bean; //code fails here when the xml's are used then SqlMapClient is the class that sets up then how come I cant convert SqlMapClientFactoryBean to SqlMapClient

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  • Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

    - by Phil Nash
    We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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  • How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

    - by Boydski
    I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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  • Dynamic memory inside a struct

    - by Maximilien
    Hello, I'm editing a piece of code, that is part of a big project, that uses "const's" to initialize a bunch of arrays. Because I want to parametrize these const's I have to adapt the code to use "malloc" in order to allocate the memory. Unfortunately there is a problem with structs: I'm not able to allocate dynamic memory in the struct itself. Doing it outside would cause to much modification of the original code. Here's a small example: int globalx,globaly; struct bigStruct{ struct subStruct{ double info1; double info2; bool valid; }; double data; //subStruct bar[globalx][globaly]; subStruct ** bar=(subStruct**)malloc(globalx*sizeof(subStruct*)); for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) bar[i]=(*subStruct)malloc(globaly*sizeof(subStruct)); }; int main(){ globalx=2; globaly=3; bigStruct foo; for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) for(int j=0;j<globaly;j++){ foo.bar[i][j].info1=i+j; foo.bar[i][j].info2=i*j; foo.bar[i][j].valid=(i==j); } return 0; } Note: in the program code I'm editing globalx and globaly were const's in a specified namespace. Now I removed the "const" so they can act as parameters that are set exactly once. Summarized: How can I properly allocate memory for the substruct inside the struct? Thank you very much! Max

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  • SQL: How do I INSERT primary key values from two tables INTO a master table.

    - by Stefan
    Hello, I would appreciate some help with an SQL statement I really can't get my head around. What I want to do is fairly simple, I need to take the values from two different tables and copy them into an master table when a new row is inserted into one of the two tables. The problem is perhaps best explained like this: I have three tables, productcategories, regioncategories and mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- I want the values to be inserted like this when a new row is created in either productcategories or regioncategories. New row is created. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- VALUES: DVD | DVDs --------------------------- And a SQL statement copies the new values into the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- The same goes if a row is created in the regioncategories. New row. --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- VALUES: US | United States --------------------------- Copied to the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- VALUES: US | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: US | DVD --------------------------- I hope it makes sense. Thanks, Stefan

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  • How should a programmer go about getting started with Flash/Flex/ActionScript?

    - by Graphics Noob
    What is the shortest path between zero (ie no flash related development software on my computer or information about where to obtain it or get started) to running a "hello world" ActionScript? I'm hoping for an answer that gives step by step instructions about exactly what software is needed to get started, an example of some "hello world" code, and instructions for compiling and running the code. I've spent more time than I think should be necessary researching this question and not found much information. Hopefully this question will be found by programmers like me who want to get started with Flash/Flex/ActionScript (After my morning of researching I still don't even know what terminology to use so I'll just throw it all out there). ActionScript tutorials I've found are focused on programming concepts, ie logic, branching, OOP, etc, and some even have code examples to download, but not a single one I've found explains how to compile and run the code. They all seem to assume you have an IDE standing by but no knowledge of programming, exactly the opposite of the position I'm in. Here are the most related SO questions I've found: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/59083/what-is-adobe-flex-is-it-just-flash-ii http://stackoverflow.com/questions/554899/getting-started-with-flex-3-ui-actionscript-programming http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2123105/how-to-learn-flex

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  • Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

    - by Ben McCormack
    NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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  • When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

    - by Ben McCormack
    I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

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  • Proper Usage of SqlConnection in .NET

    - by Jojo
    Hi guys, I just want an opinion on the proper usage or a proper design with regards to using SqlConnection object. Which of the 2 below is the best use: A data provider class whose methods (each of them) contain SqlConnection object (and disposed when done). Like: IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } or SqlConnection connection; // initialized in constructor IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Or is there a better approach than this? I have a focused web crawler type of application and this application will crawl 50 or more websites simultaneously (multithreaded) with each website contained in a crawler object and each crawler object has an instance of a data provider class (above). Please advise. Thanks.

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  • Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

    - by Gaks
    I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • Object suddenly missing from HttpServletRequest

    - by Jeune
    I print a list directly in the servlet using the print writer and the list prints. When I try to put in the jsp however the list doesn't print whether I use JSTL or scriptlets. I tried to test in JSTL and scriptlet if the object is null and turns out that it is! Why does this happen and how can I fix this? Servlet code that works for (Artist artist:artists){ resp.getWriter().println(artist.getName()); } Servlet code that puts object in the request public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("com/helloworld/beans/helloworld-context.xml"); ArtistDao artistDao = (ArtistDao) ctx.getBean("artistDao"); List<Artist> artists = null; try { artists = artistDao.getAll(); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } req.setAttribute("artists", artists); try { req.getRequestDispatcher("index.jsp").forward(req, resp); } catch (ServletException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } scriptlet code that suddenly finds the object null <% List<Artist> artists = (List<Artist>) request.getAttribute("artists"); if (artists == null) { out.println("artists null"); } else { for (Artist artist: artists){ out.println(artist.getName()); } } %> Even the jstl code seems to agree <c:if test="${artists eq null}"> Artists are null </c:if> <c:forEach var="artist" items="${artists}"> ${artist.name} </c:forEach> For my app I am using weblogic, spring 2.5.6 and ibatis.

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  • android python full integration

    - by Grzegorz Oledzki
    Is there a way to fully integrate Python with Java code on Android platform? Yes, I saw the question about running Python on Android and Android Scripting Environment (ASE). But that doesn't seem to be enough (correct me if I am wrong). I wanted to be able not only to invoke a Python script from within Java code, but have a full integration. The feature I need the most is the ability to have a state of execution of python code saved and be able to run several parts of code on demand against the same execution state. On JavaSE I would rely on Jython. I believe its simplest example shows it all (and some other features too, like something I would call variable state introspection): http://www.jython.org/archive/21/docs/embedding.html PythonInterpreter interp = new PythonInterpreter(); System.out.println("Hello, brave new world"); interp.exec("import sys"); interp.exec("print sys"); interp.set("a", new PyInteger(42)); interp.exec("print a"); interp.exec("x = 2+2"); PyObject x = interp.get("x"); System.out.println("x: "+x); System.out.println("Goodbye, cruel world"); Is it possible on Android? Is ASE a way to go?

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  • How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

    - by anonim.developer
    Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

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  • Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

    - by Marcel Korpel
    As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

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  • XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

    - by rjovic
    Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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  • Rails routing problem

    - by Steve
    I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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  • Django + Virtualenv: manage.py commands fail with ImportError of project name.

    - by Bartek
    This is blowing my mind because it's probably an easy solution, but I can't figure out what could be causing this. So I have a new dev box and am setting everything up. I installed virtualenv, created a new environment for my project under ~/.virtualenvs/projectname Then, I cloned my project from github into my projects directory. Nothing fancy here. There are no .pyc files sitting around so it's a clean slate of code. Then, I activated my virtualenv and installed Django via pip. All looks good so far. Then, I run python manage.py syncdb within my project dir. This is where I get confused: ImportError: No module named projectname So I figured I may have had some references of projectname within my code. So I grep (ack, actually) through my code base and I find nothing of the sorts. So now I'm at a loss, given this environment why am I getting an ImportError on a module named projectname that isn't referenced anywhere in my code? I look forward to a solution .. thanks guys!

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