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  • Simplest way to automatically alter "const" value in Java during compile time

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is a question corresponds to my uni assignment so I am very sorry to say I cannot adopt any one of the following best practices in a short time -- you know -- assignment is due tomorrow :( link to Best way to alter const in Java on StackOverflow Basically the only task (I hope so) left for me is the performance tuning. I've got a bunch of predefined "const" values in my single-class agent source code like this: //static final values private static final long FT_THRESHOLD = 400; private static final long FT_THRESHOLD_MARGIN = 50; private static final long FT_SMOOTH_PRICE_IDICATOR = 20; private static final long FT_BUY_PRICE_MODIFIER = 0; private static final long FT_LAST_ROUNDS_STARTTIME = 90; private static final long FT_AMOUNT_ADJUST_MODIFIER = 5; private static final long FT_HISTORY_PIRCES_LENGTH = 10; private static final long FT_TRACK_DURATION = 5; private static final int MAX_BED_BID_NUM_PER_AUC = 12; I can definitely alter the values manually and then compile the code to give it another go around. But the execution time for a thorough "statistic analysis" usually requires over 2000 times of execution, which will typically lasts more than half an hour on my own laptop... So I hope there is a way to alter values using other ways than dig into the source code to change the "const" values there, so I can automatically distributed compiled code to other people's PC and let them run the statistic analysis instead. One other reason for a automatically value adjustment is that I can try using my own agent to defeat itself by choosing different "const" values. Although my values are derived from previous history and statistical results, they are far from the most optimized values. I hope there is a easy way so I can quickly adopt that so to have a good sleep tonight while the computer does everything for me... :) Any hints on this sort of stuff? Any suggestion is welcomed and much appreciated.

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  • Reducing Time Complexity in Java

    - by Koeneuze
    Right, this is from an older exam which i'm using to prepare my own exam in january. We are given the following method: public static void Oorspronkelijk() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; int max = -1; char let = '*'; for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { int tel = 1; for (int j=i+1;j<bs.length();j++) { if (bs.charAt(j) == bs.charAt(i)) tel++; } if (tel > max) { max = tel; let = bs.charAt(i); } } System.out.println(max + " keer " + let); } The questions are: what is the output? - Since the code is just an algorithm to determine the most occuring character, the output is "6 keer " (6 times space) What is the time complexity of this code? Fairly sure it's O(n²), unless someone thinks otherwise? Can you reduce the time complexity, and if so, how? Well, you can. I've received some help already and managed to get the following code: public static void Nieuw() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; HashMap<Character, Integer> letters = new HashMap<Character, Integer>(); char max = bs.charAt(0); for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { char let = bs.charAt(i); if(!letters.containsKey(let)) { letters.put(let,0); } int tel = letters.get(let)+1; letters.put(let,tel); if(letters.get(max)<tel) { max = let; } } System.out.println(letters.get(max) + " keer " + max); } However, I'm uncertain of the time complexity of this new code: Is it O(n) because you only use one for-loop, or does the fact we require the use of the HashMap's get methods make it O(n log n) ? And if someone knows an even better way of reducing the time complexity, please do tell! :)

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  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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  • phpUnit - mock php extended exception object

    - by awongh
    I'm testing some legacy code that extends the default php exception object. This code prints out a custom HTML error message. I would like to mock this exception object in such a way that when the tested code generates an exception it will just echo the basic message instead of giving me the whole HTML message. I cannot figure out a way to do this. It seems like you can test for explicit exceptions, but you can't change in a general way the behavior of an exception, and you also can't mock up an object that extends a default php functionality. ( can't think of another example of this beyond exceptions... but it would seem to be the case ) I guess the problem is, where would you attach the mocked object?? It seems like you can't interfere with 'throw new' and this is the place that the object method is called.... Or if you could somehow use the existing phpunit exception functionality to change the exception behavior the way you want, in a general way for all your code... but this seems like it would be hacky and bad....

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

    - by Deukalion
    I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

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  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • how to enable iFrame designMode in a local webpage without using the localhost server?

    - by vjk2005
    The code... <html> <body> <iframe id="editableFrame"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> editableFrame.document.designMode="on"; </script> </body> </html> gets the iFrame editable only when run off a server(http://...)(online or from localhost). How do I get this working by simply opening it up as a local html file(file:///...) in the browser? Some browser specific notes: 1. Firefox needs slightly different code to enable designMode but the problem still remains. 2. IE8 gets me the behavior I want with this code, but it pops up a warning about enabling ActiveX controls which the user must accept before getting the iFrame editable. 3. Opera 10.5 is the only browser that has the behavior I want... iFrames are editable without needing to run the code off a server.

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  • Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

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  • Separating Javascript functions

    - by msharma
    I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

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  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

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  • Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object?

    - by Bill
    I am programming in C#; the code was working about a week ago, however it throws an exception and I don't understand at all what could be wrong with it. Var root = new CalculationNode(); -> Throw exception. In the call stack thats the only thing listed, I've been told that it could be that I need a clean build, but I am open to any ideas or suggestions. Thanks, -Bill Update: Exception's Detail System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message=Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Source=Calculator.Logic StackTrace: at ~.Calculator.Logic.MyBaseExpressionParser.Parse(String expression) in ~\Source\Calculator.Logic\MyBaseExpressionParser.cs:line 44 at ~.Calculator.Logic.Tests.MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.BasicMathDivision() in ~\Projects\Tests\Calculator.Logic.Tests\MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.cs:line 60 InnerException: CalculationNode's code: public sealed calss CalculationNode { public CalculationNode() { this.Left = null; this.Right = null; this.Element = new CalculationElement(); } public CalculationNode Left {get;set;} public CalculationNode Right {get;set;} public CalculationElement Element {get; set;} } CalculationElement's code: public sealed class CalculationElement { public CalculationElement() { Value = string.Empty; IsOperator = false; } public string Value {get; set} public bool IsOperator {get; set} }

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  • How do I improve this design for dealing with intersecting date ranges and resolving date range conf

    - by derdo
    I am working on some code that deals with date ranges. I have pricing activities that have a starting-date and an end-date to set a certain price for that range. There are multiple pricing activities with intersecting date ranges. What I ultimately need is the ability to query valid prices for a date range. I pass in (jan1,jan31) and I get back a list that says jan1--jan10 $4 , jan11--jan19 $3 jan20--jan31 $4. There are priorities between pricing activities. Some type of pricing activities have high priority, so they override other pricing activities and for certain type of pricing activities lowest price wins etc. I currently have a class that holds these pricing activities and keeps a resolved pricing calendar. As I add new pricing activities I update the resolved calendar. As I write more tests/code, it started to get very complicated with all the different cases (pricing activities intersecting in different ways). I am ending up with very complicated code where I am resolving a newly added pricing activity. See AddPricingActivity() method below. Can anybody think of a simpler way to deal with this? Could there be similar code somewhere out there? Public class PricingActivity() { DateTime startDate; DateTime endDate; Double price; Public bool StartsBeforeEndsAfter (PricingActivity pAct) { // pAct covers this pricing activity } Public bool StartsMiddleEndsAfter (PricingActivity pAct){ // early part of pAct Itersects with later part of this pricing activity } //more similar methods to cover all the combinations of intersecting } Public Class PricingActivityList() { List<PricingActivity> activities; SortedDictionary<Date, PricingActivity> resolvedPricingCalendar; Public void AddPricingActivity(PricingActivity pAct) { //update the resolvedCalendar //go over each activity and find intersecting ones //update the resolved calendar correctly //depending on the type of the intersection //this part is getting out of hand….. } }

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  • ASP.NET MVC jQuery autocomplete with url.action helper in a script included in a page.

    - by Boob
    I have been building my first ASP.NET MVC web app. I have been using the jQuery autocomplete widget in a number of places like this: <head> $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); </head> The thing is I have this jQuery code in a number of different places through my web app. So i thought I would create a seperate javascript script (script.js) where I could put this code and then just include it in the master page. Then i can put all these repeated pieces of code in that script and just call them where I need too. So I did this. My code is shown below: In the site.js script I put this function: function doAutoComplete() { $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); } On the page I have: <head> <script src="../../Scripts/site.js" type="text/javascript"></script> doAutoComplete(); </head> But when I do this I get an Invalid Argument exception and the autocomplete doesnt work. What am I doing wrong? Any ideas?Do i need to pass something to the doAutoComplete function?

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  • Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

    - by Adam
    I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

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  • Returning a variable in a public void...

    - by James Rattray
    Hello, I'm abit new to programming Android App's, however I have come across a problem, I can't find a way to make global variables -unlike other coding like php or VB.NET, are global variables possible? If not can someone find a way (and if possible implement the way into the code I will provide below) to get a value from the variable 'songtoplay' so I can use in another Public Void... Here is the code: final Spinner hubSpinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.myspinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.colours, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter .setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); hubSpinner.setAdapter(adapter); // hubSpinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView, View selectedItemView, int position, long id) { //code Object ttestt = hubSpinner.getSelectedItem(); final String test2 = ttestt.toString(); Toast message1 = Toast.makeText(Textbox.this, test2, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); message1.show(); String songtoplay = test2; // Need songtoplay to be available in another 'Public Void' } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView) { //Code } }); Basically, it gets the value from the Spinner 'hubSpinner' and displays it in a Toast. I then want it to return a value for string variable 'songtoplay' -or find a way to make it global or useable in another Public Void, (Which is will a button, -loading the song to be played) Please help me, Thanks alot. James

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  • Shell script task status monitoring

    - by Bikram Agarwal
    I'm running an ANT task in background and checking in 60 second intervals whether that task is complete or not. If it is not, every 60 seconds, a message should be displayed on screen - "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started", where $slept is 60, 120, 180 n so on. There's a limit of 1200 seconds, after which the script will show the log via 'ant log' command and ask the user whether to continue. If the user chooses to continue, 300 seconds are added to the time limit and the process repeats. The code that I am using for this task is - ant deploy & limit=1200 deploy_check() { while [ ${slept:-0} -le $limit ]; do sleep 60 && slept=`expr ${slept:-0} + 60` if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started." else wait $! && echo "Application ${New_App_Name} deployed successfully" || echo "Deployment of ${New_App_Name} failed" break fi done } deploy_check if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process did not finish in $slept seconds. Here's the log." ant log echo "Do you want to kill the process? Press Ctrl+C to kill. Press Enter to continue." read log limit=`expr ${limit} + 300` deploy_check fi Now, the problem is - this code is not working. This looks like a perfectly good code and yet, this is not working. Can anyone point out what is wrong with this code, please.

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  • How to I pass parameters to Ruby/Python scripts from inside PHP?

    - by Roger
    Hi, everybody. I need to turn HTML into equivalent Markdown-structured text. From what I could discover, I have only two good choices: Python: Aaron Swartz's html2text.py Ruby: Singpolyma's html2markdown.rb As I am programming in PHP, I need to pass the HTML code, call the Ruby/Python Script and receive the output back. I started creating a simple test just to know if my server was configured to run both languages. PHP code: echo exec('./hi.rb'); Ruby code: #!/usr/bin/ruby puts "Hello World!" It worked fine and I am ready to go to the next step. Unfortunately, all I know is that the function is Ruby works like this: HTML2Markdown.new('<h1>HTMLcode</h1>').to_s I don't know how to make PHP pass the string (with the HTML code) to Ruby nor how to make the ruby script receive the variable and pass it back to PHP (after have parsed it into Markdown). Believe it or not: I know less of Python. A folk made a similar question here ("how to call ruby script from php?") but with no practical information to my case. Any help would be a joy - thanks. Rogério Madureira. atipico.com.br

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  • to connect matlab with java

    - by user304005
    Through the below given code I was able to connect to matlab. But I was not able to execute the script file containing matlab code...Please help me to modify the code so as to execute the matlab code.... Here luck2 is a .m file.... import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.io.*; public class matlab { private static File myMATLABScript; public static String runScript(File luck2) { String output = "" ; String error = ""; try { String commandToRun ="C:\\Program Files\\MATLAB\\R2009a\\bin\\matlab -nodisplay <" + "Z:\\sem\\java\\luck2"; //String commandToRun = "matlab -nosplash -r myMATLABScript -nodisplay -nodesktop < " + opentxt; System.out.println(commandToRun); Process p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(commandToRun); String s; BufferedReader stdInput = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); BufferedReader stdError = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); System.out.println("\nHere is the standard output of the command:\n"); while ((s = stdInput.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println("haiiiiiiiiiiii"); output = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } while ((s = stdError.readLine()) != null) { error = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("exception happened here what I know:"); e.printStackTrace(); System.exit(-1); } return output + error; } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { matlab m = new matlab(); matlab.runScript(myMATLABScript); //matlab.runScript(); } }

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  • Is it OK to use WPF assemblies in a web app?

    - by Chris
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 2 app targeting .NET 4 that needs to be able to resize images on the fly and write them to the response. I have code that does this and it works. I am using System.Drawing.dll. However, I want to enhance my code so that not only am I resizing the image, but I am dropping it from 24bpp down to 4bit grayscale. I could not, for the life of me, find code on how to do this with System.Drawing.dll. But I did find a bunch of WPF stuff. This is my working/sample code (runs in LinqPad). // Load the original 24 bit image var bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015.png", UriKind.Absolute); //bitmapImage.DecodePixelWidth = 600; bitmapImage.EndInit(); // Create the destination image var formatConvertedBitmap = new FormatConvertedBitmap(); formatConvertedBitmap.BeginInit(); formatConvertedBitmap.Source = bitmapImage; formatConvertedBitmap.DestinationFormat = PixelFormats.Gray4; formatConvertedBitmap.EndInit(); // Encode and dump the image to disk var encoder = new PngBitmapEncoder(); encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(formatConvertedBitmap)); using (var fileStream = File.Create(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015_s2.png")) { encoder.Save(fileStream); } It uses System.Xaml.dll, WindowsBase.dll, PresentationCore.dll, and PresentationFramework.dll. The namespaces used are: System.Windows.Controls, System.Windows.Media, and System.Windows.Media.Imaging. Is there any problem using these namespaces in my web application? It doesn't seem right. If anyone knows how to drop the bit depth without all this WPF stuff (which I barely understand, BTW) I would be thrilled to see that too.

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  • jQuery .html not writing span on page load, rights the span on ajax response

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a bit of a calendar I'm building with events that go beyond the boundary of one day. I've got a graph which shows how many events are running concurrently. In order to graph out the events which go into another day, I look for hours24, and run an extra bit of code. jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count', numStaff).html(''+printHour+''+numEvents+' scheduled').css('height',numEvents*5+'px'); The code is working, the li items are being found, proper height is the css is being applied, data is set, which I've checked by running alert(jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count')); right after the pervious bit of code. The only thing that isn't being done is the .html(add span) stuff. I run this code in two places. Once when the page loads, and once when an action is taken which changes the number of events via an ajax response. The li DOM object I'm writting to is created before the script is run, and the height is being applied, but not the span, and only on page load. Any ideas on this one? I'm stumped.

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